BSSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
According to the Lok Sabha reply of 3 February 2025, how many antiquities has the Government retrieved from foreign countries from 1976 to 2024?
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Correct answer: B — 655
PIB (3 Feb 2025): the Government has retrieved 655 antiquities from foreign countries from 1976 to 2024, of which 642 have been retrieved since 2014.
Of the antiquities retrieved from abroad between 1976 and 2024, how many were retrieved since 2014?
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Correct answer: A — 642
PIB (3 Feb 2025): of the 655 antiquities retrieved from 1976 to 2024, 642 antiquities have been retrieved since 2014.
Which was the first language notified as a classical language by the Government of India, in 2004?
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Correct answer: D — Tamil
PIB (3 Feb 2025, Lok Sabha reply): the languages earlier notified as classical were Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Telugu (2008), Kannada (2008), Malayalam (2013) and Odia (2014).
Which of the following languages was NOT among the five notified as classical languages on 4 October 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Odia
PIB (3 Feb 2025): Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese and Bengali were notified on 4 October 2024. Odia was notified earlier, in 2014.
Consider the following statements based on the Lok Sabha reply of 3 February 2025: 1. The Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Kannada is in Mysuru. 2. The Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Malayalam is in Thiruvananthapuram. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (3 Feb 2025): the Classical Kannada centre is located in Mysuru, Karnataka, so statement 1 is correct. The Classical Malayalam centre operates from Tirur, Malappuram, Kerala, not Thiruvananthapuram, so statement 2 is wrong. Answer: 1 only.
Which team did India beat in the final of the ICC U19 Women's T20 World Cup 2025 on 2 February 2025?
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Correct answer: C — South Africa
ICC and BBC (2 Feb 2025): India beat South Africa by nine wickets in the final in Kuala Lumpur.
Who was named Player of the Tournament at the ICC U19 Women's T20 World Cup 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Gongadi Trisha
ICC media release (2 Feb 2025): India's Gongadi Trisha was named Player of the Tournament after scoring 309 runs in seven innings.
In which city was the final of the ICC U19 Women's T20 World Cup 2025 played?
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Correct answer: D — Kuala Lumpur
ICC and BBC (2 Feb 2025): the final was played at Bayuemas Oval in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.
Consider the following statements about the ICC U19 Women's T20 World Cup 2025: 1. India also won the inaugural edition of the tournament in 2023. 2. Gongadi Trisha scored the first century in U19 Women's World Cup history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
ICC media release: India successfully defended the title they first won in 2023, and Trisha made the first century in U19 Women's World Cup history (110 not out against Scotland). Both statements are correct. Answer: Both 1 and 2.
Chandrika Tandon won a Grammy at the 67th Grammy Awards on 2 February 2025 for which album?
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Correct answer: D — Triveni
GRAMMY.com and PIB: Chandrika Tandon won for the album Triveni. Break of Dawn was Ricky Kej's nominated album in the same category.
In which Grammy category did 'Triveni' win at the 67th Grammy Awards?
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Correct answer: B — Best New Age, Ambient, or Chant Album
GRAMMY.com (2 Feb 2025): Triveni by Wouter Kellerman, Eru Matsumoto and Chandrika Tandon won Best New Age, Ambient, or Chant Album.
Consider the following statements about the Grammy-winning album 'Triveni': 1. Chandrika Tandon shared the award with South African flautist Wouter Kellerman and Japanese cellist Eru Matsumoto. 2. Ricky Kej and Anoushka Shankar were also nominated in the same category. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
GRAMMY.com and The Hindu: Tandon won with Wouter Kellerman and Eru Matsumoto, and the category's other nominees included Ricky Kej (Break of Dawn) and Anoushka Shankar (Chapter II: How Dark It Is Before Dawn). Both statements are correct. Answer: Both 1 and 2.
On 2 February 2025, PM Narendra Modi addressed the Maha Kumbhabhishegam of Shri Sanathana Dharma Aalayam, a temple of which deity, in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Lord Murugan; Jakarta
PIB (2 Feb 2025): the PM congratulated devotees of Lord Murugan on the Maha Kumbhabhishegam of the Jakarta temple, Shri Sanathana Dharma Aalayam.
In his Jakarta temple remarks on 2 February 2025, PM Modi said which festival of Odisha celebrates ancient maritime voyages connecting India and Indonesia?
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Correct answer: C — Bali Jatra
PIB (2 Feb 2025): the Bali Jatra festival in Odisha celebrates the ancient maritime voyages that once connected India and Indonesia.
Who won the Tata Steel Masters chess tournament on 2 February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — R Praggnanandhaa
R Praggnanandhaa won the Tata Steel Masters 2025 after beating D Gukesh in a blitz tiebreak; Gukesh was second and Abdusattorov third.
R Praggnanandhaa beat which player in the tiebreak to win the Tata Steel Masters 2025?
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Correct answer: A — D Gukesh
Praggnanandhaa and world champion D Gukesh tied on 8.5/13; Praggnanandhaa won the blitz tiebreak 2–1, taking the sudden-death game.
The 87th Tata Steel Chess Tournament, whose Masters section R Praggnanandhaa won in February 2025, was held in which country?
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Correct answer: D — Netherlands
The 87th Tata Steel Chess Tournament was held from 18 January to 2 February 2025 at Wijk aan Zee in the Netherlands.
What is the outlay of the Nuclear Energy Mission for research and development of Small Modular Reactors announced in the Union Budget 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — ₹20,000 crore
PIB (1 Feb 2025): a Nuclear Energy Mission for R&D of Small Modular Reactors with an outlay of ₹20,000 crore will be set up.
Under the Nuclear Energy Mission announced in the Union Budget 2025-26, at least 5 indigenously developed Small Modular Reactors are to be operational by:
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Correct answer: B — 2033
PIB (1 Feb 2025): at least 5 indigenously developed SMRs will be operationalized by 2033.
Consider the following statements about the Union Budget 2025-26: 1. It said development of at least 100 GW of nuclear energy by 2047 is essential for the energy transition. 2. It proposed amendments to the Atomic Energy Act and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act for partnership with the private sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Budget speech (para 61): at least 100 GW of nuclear energy by 2047 is essential, and the Atomic Energy Act and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act will be amended for private-sector partnership. Both statements are correct. Answer: Both 1 and 2.
The modified UDAN scheme announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 aims to connect how many new destinations over the next 10 years?
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Correct answer: A — 120
Budget speech: a modified UDAN scheme will enhance regional connectivity to 120 new destinations and carry 4 crore passengers in the next 10 years.
What fiscal deficit target for 2025-26 (as a share of GDP) was announced in the Union Budget presented on 1 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 4.4 per cent
Budget speech (para 113): the fiscal deficit for 2025-26 is estimated to be 4.4 per cent of GDP.
According to the Union Budget 2025-26, what is the Revised Estimate of the fiscal deficit for 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 4.8 per cent of GDP
Budget speech (para 111): the Revised Estimate of the fiscal deficit is 4.8 per cent of GDP.
What capital expenditure did the Union Budget 2025-26 provide for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — ₹11.21 lakh crore
PIB Highlights (1 Feb 2025): capex is ₹11.21 lakh crore (3.1% of GDP). ₹10.18 lakh crore is the 2024-25 Revised Estimate and ₹14.82 lakh crore is gross market borrowings.
Which Budget document is mandated by Article 112 of the Constitution of India?
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Correct answer: A — Annual Financial Statement
Key to Budget Documents 2025-26: the Annual Financial Statement, Demands for Grants and Finance Bill are mandated by Articles 112, 113 and 110(a) respectively; Budget at a Glance is an explanatory document.
Consider the following statements about Union Budget documents: 1. Demands for Grants are mandated by Article 113 of the Constitution. 2. The Finance Bill is mandated by Article 110(a) of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Key to Budget Documents 2025-26: the AFS, Demands for Grants and Finance Bill are mandated by Articles 112, 113 and 110(a) respectively. Both statements are correct. Answer: Both 1 and 2.
Under the new tax regime announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 on 1 February 2025, no income tax is payable on normal income up to:
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Correct answer: C — ₹12 lakh
Budget speech and PIB (1 Feb 2025): there will be no income tax payable on income up to ₹12 lakh under the new regime, other than special rate income such as capital gains.
For salaried taxpayers under the new regime, what is the nil-tax income limit after the Union Budget 2025-26, taking the standard deduction into account?
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Correct answer: A — ₹12.75 lakh
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the limit will be ₹12.75 lakh for salaried taxpayers, with a standard deduction of ₹75,000.
In the revised new-regime slabs of the Union Budget 2025-26, what rate applies to the income slab of ₹12-16 lakh?
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Correct answer: D — 15 per cent
Budget speech (para 158): 12-16 lakh rupees is taxed at 15 per cent under the revised new-regime structure.
Consider the following statements about the income-tax changes in the Union Budget 2025-26: 1. Under the new regime, the 30% rate applies to income above ₹24 lakh. 2. The ₹12 lakh nil-tax threshold also covers special rate income such as capital gains. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Budget speech: the top slab is above 24 lakh rupees at 30 per cent, so statement 1 is correct. The ₹12 lakh limit is for income other than special rate income such as capital gains, so statement 2 is wrong. Answer: 1 only.
The Union Budget 2025-26 extended the time limit for filing updated income-tax returns for any assessment year from two years to:
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Correct answer: B — Four years
PIB Summary (1 Feb 2025): the time limit to file updated returns was increased from two years to four years.
The Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 will cover how many districts?
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Correct answer: B — 100
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the programme will cover 100 districts with low productivity, moderate crop intensity and below-average credit parameters.
How many farmers is the Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana expected to help, as per the Union Budget 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 1.7 crore
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the programme will help 1.7 crore farmers. The 7.7 crore figure refers to Kisan Credit Card beneficiaries.
The Union Budget 2025-26 raised the loan limit under the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme for Kisan Credit Card loans from ₹3 lakh to:
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Correct answer: D — ₹5 lakh
Budget speech (para 22): the loan limit under the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme will be enhanced from ₹3 lakh to ₹5 lakh for loans taken through the KCC.
The 'Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses' announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 will run for how many years and focus on which pulses?
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Correct answer: A — 6 years; Tur, Urad and Masoor
Budget speech: a 6-year 'Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses' with a special focus on Tur, Urad and Masoor; NAFED and NCCF will procure these pulses during the next 4 years.
How many Atal Tinkering Labs will be set up in government schools over the next 5 years, as announced in the Union Budget 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 50,000
PIB (1 Feb 2025): 50,000 Atal Tinkering Labs will be set up in government schools in the next 5 years.
What outlay did the Union Budget 2025-26 provide for a Centre of Excellence in Artificial Intelligence for education?
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Correct answer: B — ₹500 crore
PIB (1 Feb 2025): a Centre of Excellence in Artificial Intelligence for education with a total outlay of ₹500 crore.
According to the Union Budget 2025-26, how many medical seats are to be added over the next 5 years?
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Correct answer: D — 75,000
Budget speech: 10,000 additional seats will be added in the next year, towards the goal of adding 75,000 seats in the next 5 years.
Consider the following statements about the Union Budget 2025-26: 1. Day Care Cancer Centres will be set up in all district hospitals in the next 3 years. 2. Gig workers on online platforms will be given healthcare under PM Jan Arogya Yojana. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Budget speech and PIB Highlights: Day Care Cancer Centres in all district hospitals in the next 3 years (200 in 2025-26), and healthcare under PM Jan Arogya Yojana for gig workers. Both statements are correct. Answer: Both 1 and 2.
By how many times did the Union Budget 2025-26 enhance the investment limit for classification of all MSMEs?
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Correct answer: B — 2.5 times
PIB (1 Feb 2025): investment and turnover limits for classification of all MSMEs will be enhanced to 2.5 and 2 times respectively.
The Union Budget 2025-26 enhanced the credit guarantee cover for micro and small enterprises from ₹5 crore to:
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Correct answer: C — ₹10 crore
PIB (1 Feb 2025): credit guarantee cover for micro and small enterprises enhanced from ₹5 crore to ₹10 crore.
In which state did the Union Budget 2025-26 announce the establishment of a Makhana Board?
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Correct answer: A — Bihar
Budget speech and PIB (1 Feb 2025): a Makhana Board will be established in Bihar to improve production, processing, value addition and marketing of makhana.
The Western Koshi Canal ERM Project, which got financial support in the Union Budget 2025-26, benefits farmers in which region of Bihar?
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Correct answer: C — Mithilanchal
Budget speech: financial support will be provided for the Western Koshi Canal ERM Project, benefitting farmers cultivating over 50,000 hectares of land in the Mithilanchal region of Bihar.
The ₹1 lakh crore Urban Challenge Fund announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 will finance up to what share of the cost of bankable projects?
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Correct answer: A — 25 per cent
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the fund will finance up to 25 per cent of the cost of bankable projects, with at least 50 per cent of the cost funded from bonds, bank loans and PPPs.
Until which year was the Jal Jeevan Mission extended in the Union Budget 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — 2028
PIB (1 Feb 2025): Jal Jeevan Mission extended until 2028, with the total budget outlay enhanced to ₹67,000 crore.
The Union Budget 2025-26 raised the FDI limit for the insurance sector from 74% to:
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Correct answer: A — 100 per cent
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the FDI limit for the insurance sector will be raised from 74 to 100 per cent.
Consider the following statements about the Union Budget 2025-26: 1. The enhanced insurance FDI limit is available only to companies that invest the entire premium in India. 2. The 'Grameen Credit Score' framework will be developed by the Reserve Bank of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB and Budget speech: the higher FDI limit is for companies investing the entire premium in India, so statement 1 is correct. The Grameen Credit Score framework will be developed by Public Sector Banks, not the RBI, so statement 2 is wrong. Answer: 1 only.
The Union Budget 2025-26 allocation for the Ministry of Defence was how much higher than the 2024-25 Budget Estimate?
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Correct answer: C — 9.53%
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the allocation of ₹6,81,210.27 crore is 9.53% more than the Budgetary Estimate of 2024-25. 13.45% is its share of the Union Budget.
How much did the Union Budget 2025-26 allocate for capital outlay on defence services?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1.80 lakh crore
PIB (1 Feb 2025): ₹1.80 lakh crore (₹1,80,000 crore), i.e. 26.43% of the total allocation, is for capital outlay on defence services; ₹1.12 lakh crore of the capital budget is earmarked for domestic procurement.
What is the motto of the Indian Coast Guard, which celebrated its 49th Raising Day on 1 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Vayam Rakshamah
PIB (1 Feb 2025): with its motto 'Vayam Rakshamah' (We Protect), the ICG has ensured the safety and security of India's maritime zones.
As of its 49th Raising Day on 1 February 2025, what was the Indian Coast Guard's force level?
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Correct answer: C — 151 ships and 76 aircraft
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the ICG now comprises 151 ships and 76 aircraft; 200 surface platforms and 100 aircraft is its 2030 target.
Under which Article of the Constitution did the President address both Houses assembled together on 31 January 2025, the first session of the year?
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Correct answer: D — Article 87(1)
PIB 2118954: this being the first session of the year, the President addressed both Houses assembled together in terms of Article 87(1) on 31 January 2025.
How many property cards had been issued under the SVAMITVA scheme, according to the President's address of 31 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 2.25 crore
PIB 2097836: under SVAMITVA, 2.25 crore property cards had been issued, about 70 lakh of them in the last six months.
What real GDP growth range did the Economic Survey 2024-25 project for FY26?
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Correct answer: B — 6.3–6.8%
PIB 2097919: the real GDP is projected to grow between 6.3 and 6.8 per cent in FY26; FY25 growth was estimated at 6.4%.
According to the Economic Survey 2024-25, the gross NPA ratio of scheduled commercial banks fell to a 12-year low of:
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Correct answer: A — 2.6%
PIB 2097919: GNPA of scheduled commercial banks declined to a 12-year low of 2.6 per cent.
The Economic Survey 2024-25 used the German term 'Mittelstand' to refer to which sector it wants to build up in India?
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Correct answer: A — Small and medium enterprises
PIB 2097919: the focus of reforms and Ease of Doing Business 2.0 is to create India's Mittelstand, i.e. India's SME sector.
Consider the following statements about the Economic Survey 2024-25: 1. It estimated FY25 real GDP growth at 6.4%. 2. It said forex reserves of USD 640.3 billion could cover 10.9 months of imports. 3. It reported retail inflation rising from 4.9% in FY24 to 5.4% in April–December 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097919: FY25 growth was 6.4% and forex of USD 640.3 billion covered 10.9 months of imports; retail inflation softened from 5.4% in FY24 to 4.9% in April–December 2024, so statement 3 reverses the figures.
Under the Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance Amendment Rules, 2025, which body grants final approval to an entity seeking to use Aadhaar authentication?
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Correct answer: D — Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
PIB 2098223: applications are examined by UIDAI and MeitY issues the approval based on UIDAI's recommendation.
Consider the following statements about the Aadhaar authentication amendment rules notified on 31 January 2025: 1. They were notified under the Aadhaar Act, 2016. 2. They allow non-government entities to use Aadhaar authentication for public-interest services. 3. Entities apply directly to the Reserve Bank of India for approval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2098223: the rules are under the Aadhaar Act, 2016 and open authentication to non-government entities; applications go to the concerned ministry or department, are examined by UIDAI and approved by MeitY, not the RBI.
Which of the following was NOT among the four wetlands added to India's Ramsar list, as announced on 31 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary
PIB (2 Feb 2025) and TOI (31 Jan 2025): the four new sites were Sakkarakottai and Therthangal (Tamil Nadu), Khecheopalri (Sikkim) and Udhwa Lake (Jharkhand). Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary was already on the list (MoEFCC list, as on 30.01.2025), so Nanjarayan is NOT one of the four.
After the four additions announced on 31 January 2025, which State had the maximum number of Ramsar sites in India?
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Correct answer: A — Tamil Nadu
PIB (2 Feb 2025): Tamil Nadu continues to have the maximum number of Ramsar sites (20), followed by Uttar Pradesh (10).
Consider the following statements about the Ramsar Convention: 1. The Convention on Wetlands of International Importance was signed in 1971. 2. India has been a party to the Convention since 1982. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (2 Feb 2025): World Wetlands Day commemorates the signing of the Ramsar Convention in 1971, and India is a party to the Convention since 1982, so both statements are correct.
What is the name of the Indian Railways SuperApp introduced for beta testing on 31 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — SwaRail
PIB 2098305: the Ministry of Railways introduced the SuperApp 'SwaRail' for beta testing.
Which organisation developed the SwaRail SuperApp of Indian Railways?
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Correct answer: C — Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS)
PIB 2098305: the SuperApp was developed by the Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS).
Where were the 9th Asian Winter Games held in February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Harbin, China
PIB 2097997: the 9th Asian Winter Games were scheduled from 7 to 14 February 2025 in Harbin, China.
Under which scheme did the Government extend full financial support, for the first time, to Indian athletes at the 2025 Asian Winter Games?
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Correct answer: C — Assistance to National Sports Federations Scheme
PIB 2097997: full financial support is being extended for the first time under the Assistance to National Sports Federations (ANSF) Scheme.
What was the average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) in rural India in 2023-24, as per HCES 2023-24 (without imputation)?
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Correct answer: D — ₹4,122
PIB 2097601: average MPCE in 2023-24 was ₹4,122 (rural) and ₹6,996 (urban) without imputed values; with imputation ₹4,247 and ₹7,078.
Among major states, which state had the lowest urban–rural gap in average MPCE in 2023-24 according to HCES 2023-24?
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Correct answer: A — Kerala
PIB 2097601: the lowest urban–rural gap in 2023-24 was in Kerala (about 18%) and the highest in Jharkhand (around 83%).
Consider the following statements about HCES 2023-24: 1. The urban–rural gap in MPCE declined to 70% in 2023-24. 2. The Gini coefficient of consumption in rural areas declined to 0.237. 3. The Gini coefficient in urban areas rose compared to 2022-23. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097601: the urban–rural gap fell to 70% and rural Gini fell to 0.237; urban Gini also fell, from 0.314 to 0.284, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which Indian Navy sailboat crossed Point Nemo on 30 January 2025 during Navika Sagar Parikrama II?
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Correct answer: D — INSV Tarini
PIB 2098252: INSV Tarini, sailed by Lt Cdr Dilna K and Lt Cdr Roopa A, crossed Point Nemo at 0030 hrs IST on 30 January 2025.
Point Nemo, crossed by INSV Tarini in January 2025, is known as:
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Correct answer: A — The Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility
PIB 2098252: Point Nemo is the Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility, about 2,688 km from the nearest landmass.
Consider the following statements about Navika Sagar Parikrama II: 1. INSV Tarini was flagged off from Goa on 2 October 2024. 2. Point Nemo was crossed during the leg from Lyttelton to Port Stanley. 3. Water samples from Point Nemo are to be analysed by ISRO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2098252: the crew were flagged off from Goa on 2 October 2024 and crossed Point Nemo on the Lyttelton–Port Stanley leg; the samples will be analysed by the National Institute of Oceanography, not ISRO.
In how many Indian languages does the Sahitya Akademi give its main annual award, for which books were invited directly for the first time in 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 24
PIB 2097806: books in 24 Indian languages recognised by the Akademi were invited directly for the main award for 2025.
Books published in which period were eligible for the Sahitya Akademi Award 2025 under the new submission system?
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Correct answer: B — 2019 to 2023
PIB 2097806: books published between 1 January 2019 and 31 December 2023 could be sent by 28 February 2025.
Which State/UT's tableau was judged the best at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Uttar Pradesh
PIB 2097650: Uttar Pradesh's 'Mahakumbh 2025 – Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas' was first, Tripura second and Andhra Pradesh third; Gujarat topped the popular-choice poll.
Which contingent was judged the best marching contingent among the Services at Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jammu & Kashmir Rifles Contingent
PIB 2097650: the Jammu & Kashmir Rifles contingent was judged best among Services; the Signals contingent won the popular-choice poll.
Tripura's tableau, placed second at Republic Day Parade 2025, was based on which festival?
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Correct answer: A — Kharchi Puja
PIB 2097650: Tripura's tableau was 'Eternal Reverence: The worship of 14 Deities in Tripura – Kharchi Puja'.
About how many GPUs did the IndiaAI Mission's common computing facility have, as announced on 30 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 18,693
PIB 2097709: the IndiaAI Mission created a common computing facility of about 18,693 GPUs; computation begins with roughly 10,000 and the remaining 8,693 will be added.
After the government subsidy, what was the stated cost of AI compute per hour under the IndiaAI Mission?
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Correct answer: A — Less than ₹100 per hour
PIB 2097709: compute will cost less than ₹100 per hour after a 40% government subsidy, against 2.5–3 dollars per hour for global models.
Which launch vehicle carried out ISRO's 100th launch from Sriharikota on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — GSLV-F15
ISRO: GSLV-F15 lifted off from the Second Launch Pad on 29 January 2025, the 100th launch from Sriharikota.
The NVS-02 satellite launched on 29 January 2025 belongs to which Indian system?
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Correct answer: A — NavIC
ISRO: NVS-02 is a navigation satellite of the NavIC series, India's independent regional navigation satellite system.
Consider the following statements about the GSLV-F15/NVS-02 mission: 1. It lifted off from the Second Launch Pad at Sriharikota. 2. It was the 17th launch of GSLV. 3. NVS-02 was raised to its designated orbital slot within a week of launch. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: GSLV-F15 lifted off from the Second Launch Pad and was the 17th GSLV launch; orbit raising could not be carried out because the oxidiser valves did not open.
What is the total outlay of the National Critical Mineral Mission approved by the Union Cabinet on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹34,300 crore
PIB 2097308: ₹16,300 crore government expenditure plus ₹18,000 crore expected investment by PSUs etc. makes ₹34,300 crore over seven years.
Over what period will the National Critical Mineral Mission's ₹34,300 crore outlay be spread?
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Correct answer: C — Seven years
PIB 2097308: the outlay of ₹34,300 crore is over seven years.
Consider the following statements about the National Critical Mineral Mission: 1. It was announced in the Union Budget 2024-25. 2. It proposes a national stockpile of critical minerals. 3. It excludes offshore exploration of critical minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097308: the mission was announced in the Budget on 23 July 2024 and proposes a stockpile; it will intensify exploration within the country and in its offshore areas.