BPSC TRE Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The draft amendments released on 2 July 2025 aim to allow more TV rating agencies besides which existing body?
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Correct answer: C — Broadcast Audience Research Council
I&B Ministry: the draft removes restrictive provisions to allow more players besides the current BARC (Broadcast Audience Research Council).
According to the I&B Ministry (July 2025), about how many people meters are used to capture TV viewership in India?
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Correct answer: D — 58,000
I&B Ministry: only about 58,000 people meters are presently used, representing just 0.025% of the roughly 230 million TV homes.
The Policy Guidelines for Television Rating Agencies, proposed for amendment in July 2025, were originally issued in which year?
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Correct answer: A — 2014
I&B Ministry: the ministry proposed amendments to the Policy Guidelines for Television Rating Agencies, originally issued in 2014.
The ICMR–NCDC studies on sudden unexplained deaths (July 2025) focused on adults of which age group?
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Correct answer: D — 18–45 years
Health Ministry: ICMR and NCDC worked to understand sudden unexplained deaths, especially in young adults between the ages of 18 and 45 years.
Which ICMR institute conducted the multicentric matched case–control study on sudden deaths across 47 hospitals in 19 states/UTs?
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Correct answer: A — National Institute of Epidemiology
Health Ministry: the first study, conducted by ICMR's National Institute of Epidemiology (NIE), was carried out from May to August 2023 across 47 tertiary care hospitals in 19 states and UTs.
The National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development (NIPCCD) was renamed after whom in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Savitribai Phule
WCD Ministry: NIPCCD has officially been renamed as the Savitribai Phule National Institute of Women and Child Development.
What is the corpus of the Research Development and Innovation (RDI) Scheme approved on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹1 lakh crore
Cabinet: the Cabinet approved the RDI Scheme with a corpus of ₹1 lakh crore.
Which department will serve as the nodal department for implementing the RDI Scheme?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Science and Technology
Cabinet: the Department of Science and Technology (DST) will serve as the nodal department for implementation of the RDI Scheme.
Who chairs the Governing Board of the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), which gives strategic direction to the RDI Scheme?
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Correct answer: C — Prime Minister
Cabinet: the Governing Board of ANRF, chaired by the Prime Minister, will provide overarching strategic direction to the RDI Scheme.
What is the outlay of the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme approved by the Cabinet on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹99,446 crore
Cabinet: with an outlay of ₹99,446 crore, the ELI Scheme aims to incentivize the creation of more than 3.5 crore jobs over 2 years.
Under Part A of the ELI Scheme, first-time employees get one month's EPF wage up to what amount?
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Correct answer: C — ₹15,000
Cabinet: Part A offers first-time employees registered with EPFO one-month EPF wage up to ₹15,000 in two instalments.
ELI Scheme benefits apply to jobs created during which period?
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Correct answer: D — 1 August 2025 – 31 July 2027
Cabinet: the benefits of the Scheme would be applicable to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027.
Consider the following about the ELI Scheme (July 2025): 1. It was announced in the Union Budget 2024-25 as part of the PM's package of five schemes. 2. For the manufacturing sector, employer incentives extend to the third and fourth years. 3. Employers get up to ₹15,000 per month for each additional employee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (Cabinet). Statement 3 is wrong: employers get up to ₹3,000 per month per additional employee; ₹15,000 is the cap on the one-month EPF wage for first-time employees.
The National Sports Policy 2025, approved on 1 July 2025, supersedes the National Sports Policy of which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2001
Cabinet: the new policy supersedes the existing National Sports Policy, 2001.
How many key pillars is the National Sports Policy 2025 anchored on?
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Correct answer: D — Five
Cabinet: the policy is anchored on five key pillars.
Which Olympic Games does the National Sports Policy 2025 specifically mention as a target for excellence?
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Correct answer: A — 2036 Olympic Games
Cabinet: NSP 2025 lays out a roadmap to make India a strong contender at international events, including the 2036 Olympic Games.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five pillars of the National Sports Policy 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Sports for Defence Preparedness
Cabinet: the five pillars are Excellence on the Global Stage, Sports for Economic Development, Sports for Social Development, Sports as a People's Movement, and Integration with Education (NEP 2020); Sports for Defence Preparedness is not a pillar.
Where was INS Tamal commissioned on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Yantar Shipyard, Kaliningrad
Indian Navy: INS Tamal (F 71) was commissioned on 01 Jul 2025 at Yantar Shipyard, Kaliningrad, Russia.
INS Tamal is the second ship of which class of frigates?
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Correct answer: B — Tushil class
Indian Navy: INS Tamal is the eighth multi-role stealth frigate of Project 1135.6 and the second of the additional follow-on Tushil class of ships.
What share of indigenous components does INS Tamal have, according to the Navy (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — 26%
Indian Navy: though built in Russia, the ship has 26% indigenous components, including the BrahMos long-range cruise missile and HUMSA-NG sonar system.
On which date was the Digital India programme launched, completing ten years on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 1 July 2015
MyGov/Indian Express: Digital India was launched by PM Narendra Modi on 1 July 2015 and turned 10 on 1 July 2025.
Digital India's stated vision, as recalled on its tenth anniversary, is to transform India into what?
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Correct answer: D — A digitally empowered society and knowledge economy
Indian Express: Digital India was launched with the vision to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.
What was India's record gross GST collection in 2024–25, as GST completed eight years?
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Correct answer: B — ₹22.08 lakh crore
PIB: in 2024–25, gross GST collections hit a record ₹22.08 lakh crore, marking a year-on-year growth of 9.4%.
Under which Article of the Constitution was the GST Council constituted?
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Correct answer: D — Article 279A
PIB: the GST Council was constituted as per Article 279A of the Constitution and is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
Who chairs the GST Council?
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Correct answer: A — Union Finance Minister
PIB: the GST Council consists of the Union Finance Minister (Chairperson), the Union MoS in charge of Revenue or Finance, and state Finance/Taxation Ministers.
By how much per km did AC class fares rise under the railway fare rationalisation effective 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 2 paise
Ministry of Railways/Indian Express: AC classes saw an increase of 02 paisa per passenger-km, Mail/Express non-AC classes one paisa per km.
Under the 1 July 2025 fare rationalisation, Second Class Ordinary fares saw no increase up to what distance?
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Correct answer: D — 500 km
Ministry of Railways: there was no increase in fare of Second Class Ordinary up to 500 km, and thereafter an increase of half paisa per km.
Consider the following about the railway fare rationalisation of 1 July 2025: 1. Suburban fares and season tickets were not increased. 2. Mail/Express non-AC classes rose by 1 paisa per km. 3. Tickets booked before 1 July 2025 were charged the revised fare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: India Today/Indian Express report revised fares apply to tickets booked on or after 1 July 2025; earlier tickets stayed at the old fare.
National Doctors' Day, observed on 1 July, honours which physician who was the second Chief Minister of West Bengal?
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Correct answer: B — Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy
NDTV/The Federal: National Doctors' Day marks the birth anniversary of Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy, renowned physician and second Chief Minister of West Bengal, born on 1 July 1882.
The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI), which RBI asked banks to integrate on 30 June 2025, was developed by which body?
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Correct answer: B — Department of Telecommunications
PIB: RBI's advisory of 30 June 2025 directs banks to integrate the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI) developed by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
Into which risk categories does the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator classify a mobile number?
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Correct answer: C — Medium, High, Very High
PIB: the FRI classifies a mobile number as associated with Medium, High or Very High risk of financial fraud.
Consider the following about the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI): 1. It was launched in May 2025 by DoT's Digital Intelligence Unit. 2. RBI's advisory of 30 June 2025 excludes Co-operative Banks. 3. It is built only on data from DoT's Chakshu platform. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct (PIB). Statement 2 is wrong: the advisory covers Scheduled Commercial, Small Finance, Payments and Co-operative Banks. Statement 3 is wrong: inputs also come from I4C's NCRP and from banks and financial institutions.
Which Indian Army chief departed on a four-day official visit to Bhutan on 30 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — General Upendra Dwivedi
PIB: General Upendra Dwivedi, Chief of the Army Staff, departed for Bhutan on a four-day official visit.
During the June 2025 Bhutan visit, the Army chief was to interact with officials of IMTRAT and which Indian project in Bhutan?
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Correct answer: A — Project DANTAK
PIB: the COAS will also interact with senior officials of the Indian Embassy, the Indian Military Training Team (IMTRAT) and Project DANTAK.
Aboard which vessel did officers embark for the first 'QUAD at Sea Ship Observer Mission' (June 2025)?
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Correct answer: A — USCGC Stratton
PIB: two officers from each country embarked on board the US Coast Guard Cutter (USCGC) Stratton, which is sailing to Guam.
Which Australian agency took part in the first QUAD at Sea Ship Observer Mission alongside the Coast Guards of India, Japan and the US?
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Correct answer: C — Australian Border Force
PIB: the mission deepens operational ties between the Indian Coast Guard, Japan Coast Guard, US Coast Guard and Australian Border Force (ABF).
The QUAD at Sea Ship Observer Mission was launched under which declaration, adopted at the QUAD Leaders' Summit of September 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Wilmington Declaration
PIB: the mission was launched under the Wilmington Declaration and reflects the vision laid out at the QUAD Leaders' Summit in September 2024.
How many electors' details does Bihar's 2003 Electoral Roll, uploaded by ECI on 30 June 2025, contain?
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Correct answer: B — 4.96 crore
ECI: the 2003 Electoral Roll of Bihar, comprising details of 4.96 crore electors, has been uploaded on the ECI website.
According to ECI, roughly what share of Bihar's electorate would not need to submit any documents in the SIR after the 2003 roll was uploaded?
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Correct answer: D — Nearly 60%
ECI: nearly 60 per cent of the total electorate would not have to submit any documents; they just verify details from the 2003 roll and submit the Enumeration Form.
Consider the following about the Election Commission of India: 1. Article 324 vests in it the superintendence, direction and control of elections to Panchayats and Municipalities. 2. Under Article 324, the Chief Election Commissioner can be removed only in like manner and on the like grounds as a Supreme Court judge. 3. Under Article 324, it also conducts elections to the offices of President and Vice-President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 2 and 3 only
Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the text of Article 324: clause (1) covers elections to Parliament, State Legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President, and the first proviso to clause (5) gives the CEC the same removal protection as a Supreme Court judge. Statement 1 is wrong: Article 324 does not mention Panchayats or Municipalities.
What was India's IIP growth rate for May 2025 as per the Quick Estimate released on 30 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 1.2%
MoSPI: the IIP growth rate for May 2025 is 1.2%, compared with 2.7% (Quick Estimate) in April 2025.
Which sector recorded the steepest contraction in the IIP for May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Electricity
MoSPI: growth rates for May 2025 were mining (-)0.1%, manufacturing 2.6% and electricity (-)5.8%, so electricity contracted most.
Consider the following about the IIP release of 30 June 2025: 1. The IIP uses base year 2011-12=100. 2. Under the revised calendar, the Quick Estimate is released on the 28th of every month. 3. 13 of 23 manufacturing industry groups recorded positive growth in May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as per MoSPI: base 2011-12=100; release on the 28th of every month (or next working day); 13 out of 23 industry groups at NIC 2-digit level grew.
The Integrated Alert System 'SACHET' operated by NDMA was developed by which organisation?
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Correct answer: A — Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)
PIB: NDMA has operationalised the Integrated Alert System (SACHET), developed by the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT).
SACHET is based on the Common Alerting Protocol (CAP) recommended by which body?
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Correct answer: C — International Telecommunication Union
PIB: SACHET is based on the Common Alerting Protocol (CAP) recommended by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
What was the theme of the 19th Statistics Day observed on 29 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 75 Years of National Sample Survey
MoSPI: the theme for the 19th Statistics Day was '75 Years of National Sample Survey'.
Statistics Day (29 June) commemorates the birth anniversary of which statistician?
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Correct answer: C — Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
MoSPI: in recognition of Prof. (Late) Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis's contributions, the Government designated his birthday, 29 June, as Statistics Day.
Which mobile application did the National Sample Survey Office launch on Statistics Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — GoIStats
MoSPI: the NSO launched the GoIStats mobile application on Statistics Day 2025.
Consider the following about Statistics Day 2025: 1. It was the 132nd birth anniversary of Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis. 2. MoSPI released the SDG – National Indicator Framework Progress Report, 2025 on the day. 3. The celebration was held in Kolkata. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (MoSPI: 19th Statistics Day commemorated the 132nd birth anniversary; SDG-NIF Progress Report 2025 released on 29 June). Statement 3 is wrong: the celebration was held at Dr. Ambedkar International Centre, New Delhi.
In Mann Ki Baat (29 June 2025), the PM said WHO had declared India free of which disease?
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Correct answer: C — Trachoma
Mann Ki Baat 123: WHO has declared India Trachoma free; India now has become a Trachoma free country.
Citing an ILO report in Mann Ki Baat (June 2025), what share of India's population did the PM say avails some social protection benefit?
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Correct answer: A — More than 64%
Mann Ki Baat 123: the ILO report says more than 64% of the population of India is now availing some social protection benefit.
As recalled in Mann Ki Baat 123, what was the theme of International Yoga Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Yoga for One Earth, One Health
Mann Ki Baat 123: this time the theme was 'Yoga for One Earth, One Health'.
Consider the following about the 123rd episode of Mann Ki Baat (29 June 2025): 1. About 95 crore people were said to be covered by social security schemes, against under 25 crore till 2015. 2. The 50th year of the Emergency was recalled as 'Samvidhan Hatya Diwas'. 3. The Amarnath Yatra was said to commence on 3 July. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as per the PM's address: about 95 crore people covered (under 25 crore till 2015); the Emergency's 50 years observed as 'Samvidhan Hatya Diwas'; the Amarnath Yatra to commence on 3 July.
The new Passenger Reservation System planned by Indian Railways (June 2025) will allow how many ticket bookings per minute?
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Correct answer: B — Over 1.5 lakh
Ministry of Railways: the new PRS will allow over 1.5 lakh ticket bookings per minute, about five times the current 32,000.
Under the charting reform approved in June 2025, how long before departure will reservation charts generally be prepared?
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Correct answer: C — Eight hours
Ministry of Railways: the Railway Board proposed preparing the reservation chart eight hours before departure (currently four hours), and the Minister agreed.
Which organisation is building Indian Railways' upgraded Passenger Reservation System, due by December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — CRIS
Ministry of Railways: the PRS upgrade project is being executed for the last few months by CRIS.
Which ministry issued the 'Model Rules for Felling of Trees in Agricultural Lands' on 29 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
PIB: the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has issued the 'Model Rules for Felling of Trees in Agricultural Lands'.
Under the Model Rules for felling trees on farmland, applicants must register plantations on which portal?
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Correct answer: D — National Timber Management System (NTMS)
PIB: applicants are required to register their plantations on the National Timber Management System (NTMS) portal, which is being developed.
Consider the following about the Model Rules for Felling of Trees in Agricultural Lands (June 2025): 1. They will be implemented by the State Level Committee under the Wood-Based Industries (Establishment and Regulation) Guidelines, 2016. 2. Divisional Forest Officers will supervise the verifying agencies. 3. Felling permits are issued directly by Gram Panchayats without site inspection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (PIB). Statement 3 is wrong: verifying agencies carry out site inspections, and permits are issued based on their reports.
Which Indian Navy ship responded to the fire on tanker MT Yi Cheng 6 on 29 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — INS Tabar
Indian Navy: INS Tabar, on mission-based deployment, received a Mayday call from MT Yi Cheng 6 and commenced firefighting.
MT Yi Cheng 6, rescued by the Indian Navy in June 2025, was flagged in which country?
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Correct answer: A — Palau
Indian Navy: the operation was on board the Palau-flagged tanker MT Yi Cheng 6.
How many Indian crew members were on MT Yi Cheng 6 when INS Tabar responded on 29 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 14
Indian Navy: the operation ensured the safety of 14 Indian crew members; seven were evacuated to INS Tabar.
During his interaction with PM Modi on 28 June 2025, how many orbits of the Earth did Shubhanshu Shukla say the ISS crew completes in a day?
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Correct answer: B — 16
PIB: Shukla said they complete 16 orbits a day, witnessing 16 sunrises and 16 sunsets.
What approximate speed of the space station did Shubhanshu Shukla mention during the interaction with the Prime Minister?
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Correct answer: D — Nearly 28,000 km per hour
PIB: Shukla said they were travelling at a speed of nearly 28,000 km per hour.
Consider the following statements about the PM–Shubhanshu Shukla interaction of 28 June 2025: 1. Shukla said he shared carrot halwa, moong dal halwa and aam ras with fellow astronauts. 2. The interaction took place after Shukla had returned to Earth. 3. Shukla said that a short while earlier the station had passed over Hawaii. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB: statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Shukla was aboard the ISS and the interaction was by videoconference.
According to Shubhanshu Shukla, the first experiment scheduled on the day of his interaction with the PM studied which subject?
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Correct answer: A — Stem cells and whether supplements can prevent or delay muscle loss in microgravity
PIB: the first experiment that day focused on stem cells, testing whether specific supplements can prevent or delay muscle loss caused by the absence of gravity.
Which of the following was NOT part of the 'homework' PM Modi set for Shubhanshu Shukla on 28 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Landing an Indian astronaut on Mars
PIB: the PM said India must move forward with Mission Gaganyaan, build its own space station and land an Indian astronaut on the Moon. Mars was not mentioned.
According to the Health Ministry (28 June 2025), the percentage of zero-dose children in India's total population fell from 0.11% in 2023 to what in 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 0.06%
MoHFW: the share of zero-dose children declined from 0.11% in 2023 to 0.06% in 2024.
The Zero Dose Implementation Plan 2024 was rolled out in how many districts?
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Correct answer: A — 143 districts in 11 states
MoHFW: the Zero Dose Implementation Plan 2024 was rolled out across 143 districts in 11 states with a high burden of unvaccinated children.
Consider the following statements about India's Universal Immunization Programme (UIP): 1. The UIP currently covers 12 vaccine-preventable diseases. 2. Till 2013, only six vaccines were available in the programme. 3. Mission Indradhanush was first launched in 2017. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
MoHFW: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Mission Indradhanush runs since 2014 and was intensified in 2017.
While announcing that the Special Intensive Revision had started in Bihar, the Election Commission cited which Article of the Constitution as specifying eligibility to become an elector?
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Correct answer: B — Article 326
ECI (28 June 2025): 'Article 326 specifies eligibility to become an elector. Only Indian citizens, above 18 years and ordinary resident in that constituency, are eligible.'
Enumeration forms under Bihar's Special Intensive Revision (June 2025) were being distributed in how many Assembly constituencies?
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Correct answer: D — 243
ECI: distribution of new Enumeration Forms started in each of the 243 Assembly Constituencies of Bihar.
Consider the following statements about the Bihar Special Intensive Revision as described by the ECI on 28 June 2025: 1. The ECI had 77,895 Booth Level Officers and was appointing about 20,603 more. 2. Recognised political parties had appointed 1,54,977 Booth Level Agents. 3. SMSs were being sent to all 7,89,69,844 electors of Bihar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
ECI: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: SMSs were being sent to 5,74,07,022 registered mobile numbers, not to all 7,89,69,844 electors.
The 'India Energy Stack', announced on 28 June 2025, is an initiative of which ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Power
PIB: the Ministry of Power announced a task force to conceive the India Energy Stack and is spearheading the initiative.
What is the duration of the Proof of Concept that the Ministry of Power will run to demonstrate the India Energy Stack?
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Correct answer: C — 12 months
PIB: the Ministry will undertake a 12-month Proof of Concept with selected utilities.
Consider the following statements about the India Energy Stack (IES): 1. The IES will provide unique IDs for consumers, assets and transactions. 2. Data under the IES will be shared without the need for consumer consent. 3. The Utility Intelligence Platform will be piloted with DISCOMs in Mumbai, Gujarat and Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB: statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the IES provides real-time, consent-based data sharing.
Under MNRE's revised Waste-to-Energy guidelines (June 2025), what share of the total Central Financial Assistance can be released after the plant obtains Consent to Operate from the State Pollution Control Board?
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Correct answer: D — 50%
MNRE: 50% of total CFA will be released after obtaining the Consent to Operate certificate from the SPCB, against a bank guarantee.
The Biomass Programme whose guidelines MNRE revised in June 2025 is part of which programme?
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Correct answer: A — Phase-I of the National Bioenergy Programme
MNRE: the revised guidelines are for the Biomass Programme under Phase-I of the National Bioenergy Programme (FY 2021-22 to 2025-26).
Consider the following statements about MNRE's revised bioenergy guidelines of June 2025: 1. Under Waste-to-Energy, the balance CFA is released on achieving 80% of rated capacity or the maximum CFA-eligible capacity, whichever is lesser. 2. Under the Biomass Programme, the two-year briquette or pellet sale contract has been replaced with a general sale agreement. 3. Under the Biomass Programme, SCADA-based monitoring has been made mandatory for all plants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
MNRE: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: IoT-based monitoring or quarterly data submission is allowed instead of expensive systems like SCADA.
Scientists of which institute found that teak leaf extract can act as a natural, biodegradable laser shield (reported 27 June 2025)?
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Correct answer: A — Raman Research Institute
PIB (DST): scientists at the Raman Research Institute (RRI), an autonomous institute funded by DST, uncovered the use of teak leaves.
Which natural pigment in teak leaves shows the nonlinear optical properties that make the extract suitable for optical power-limiting?
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Correct answer: D — Anthocyanins
PIB (DST): teak leaves are rich in anthocyanins, natural pigments whose nonlinear optical properties make the extract suitable for optical power-limiting.
As per telecom subscription data as of 31 May 2025, what was India's overall tele-density?
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Correct answer: D — 85.36%
PIB (TRAI data): overall tele-density as of 31 May 2025 was 85.36%.
What was the total number of telephone subscribers (wireless plus wireline) in India as of 31 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1,207.08 million
PIB: total telephone subscribers were 1,207.08 million. 1,168.42 million is wireless only, 974.87 million is broadband, and 1,080.06 million is active wireless on peak VLR date.
Consider the following statements based on telecom subscription data for May 2025: 1. Rural tele-density stood at 59.33%. 2. About 14.03 million mobile number portability requests were submitted in May 2025. 3. Wireline subscribers declined during May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: wireline subscribers grew by 1.25 million (3.34%) in May 2025.
The report 'Skills for the Future: Transforming India's Workforce Landscape', unveiled on 27 June 2025, was prepared by which organisation?
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Correct answer: C — Institute for Competitiveness
PIB: the report was developed independently by the Institute for Competitiveness (IFC).
According to the 'Skills for the Future' report based on PLFS 2023-24 data, what share of India's workforce is in low-competency occupations?
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Correct answer: D — 88%
PIB: PLFS-based analysis shows that in 2023-24, 88% of India's workforce is in low-competency occupations, while only 10-12% are in high-competency roles.