Bihar Police Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Under the LC75 option extended to Central Government employees in October 2025, the maximum equity allocation is:
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Correct answer: C — 75%
PIB: LC75 allows a maximum equity allocation of 75%, tapering gradually from age 35 to 55 (to 15% by age 55).
Under the Balanced Life Cycle (BLC) option for NPS/UPS subscribers, the equity allocation starts tapering from which age?
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Correct answer: D — 45 years
PIB: BLC is a modified version of LC50, with equity allocation tapering from age 45, letting employees stay in equities longer; equity is 35% by age 55.
Consider the following statements about investment options for Central Government employees (October 2025): 1. LC75 and BLC options have been extended under both NPS and the Unified Pension Scheme. 2. Scheme G invests 100% in Government securities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: LC75 and BLC were extended under both NPS and UPS; Scheme G means 100% investment in Government securities.
Where and when was the Bharat International Rice Conference (BIRC) 2025 scheduled to be held?
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Correct answer: A — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, 30–31 October 2025
PIB: BIRC 2025 will be held at Bharat Mandapam, Pragati Maidan, New Delhi, on 30–31 October 2025.
According to the BIRC 2025 curtain raiser, India's rice production of about 150 million tonnes in 2024–25 accounted for roughly what share of global output?
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Correct answer: C — 28%
PIB: India produced around 150 million tonnes of rice in 2024–25 from nearly 47 million hectares, accounting for about 28 percent of global output.
The ₹1,500 crore Incentive Scheme for critical mineral recycling, approved by the Union Cabinet on 3 September 2025, is part of:
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Correct answer: A — National Critical Mineral Mission
PIB: the ₹1,500 crore Incentive Scheme for critical mineral recycling is a part of the National Critical Mineral Mission; guidelines were issued on 2 October 2025.
Under the critical mineral recycling incentive scheme, the total incentive for a large recycler is capped at:
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Correct answer: B — ₹50 crore
PIB: to enlist more beneficiaries, total incentive is capped at ₹50 crore for big recyclers and ₹25 crore for small recyclers.
Which of the following was described by the Election Commission as a 'novel initiative' for polling stations in the Bihar elections and bye-elections of 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Mobile phone deposit facility outside the polling station
PIB (ECI): in a novel initiative, a mobile phone deposit facility will be provided outside the polling station entrance; voters hand over switched-off phones to a volunteer and collect them after voting.
How many uniform and standardised Voter Facilitation Posters (VFPs) are to be displayed at all polling stations in the Bihar elections of 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Four
PIB (ECI): four standardised VFPs will show Polling Station Details, List of Candidates, Do's and Don'ts, approved ID documents and the voting process.
What was the approximate total value of proposals cleared by the Defence Acquisition Council on 23 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹79,000 crore
PIB: the DAC, chaired by Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh, approved proposals amounting to a total of about ₹79,000 crore.
Landing Platform Docks (LPDs), cleared by the DAC in October 2025 to enable amphibious operations, are for which service?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Navy
PIB: for the Indian Navy, AoN was granted for Landing Platform Docks, which will help the Navy undertake amphibious operations along with the Army and Air Force.
The Collaborative Long Range Target Saturation/Destruction System (CLRTS/DS), capable of autonomous take-off, landing and payload delivery, was cleared by the DAC in October 2025 for:
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Correct answer: C — Indian Air Force
PIB: for the Indian Air Force, AoN was accorded for CLRTS/DS, which can autonomously take off, land, navigate, detect and deliver payload in the mission area.
Under the October 2025 amendment to Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules, 2021, an intimation to intermediaries for removal of unlawful content can be issued (where the rank exists) only by an officer not below the rank of:
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Correct answer: C — Joint Secretary
PIB: intimations can now only be issued by a senior officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary or equivalent (or a Director where such rank is not appointed).
Under the amended Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules (October 2025), which police officer can issue a content-removal intimation to intermediaries?
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Correct answer: A — A specially authorised officer not below Deputy Inspector General
PIB: in case of police authorities, only an officer not below the rank of Deputy Inspector General of Police (DIG), specially authorised, can issue such intimation.
Consider the following statements about the October 2025 amendment to Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules, 2021: 1. All intimations will be reviewed monthly by an officer not below the rank of Secretary of the Appropriate Government. 2. The term 'reasoned intimation' was introduced to align the rule with Section 69A of the IT Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: monthly review by a Secretary-level officer is mandated; 'reasoned intimation' aligns the rule with the 'actual knowledge' requirement of Section 79(3)(b), not Section 69A.
Under the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025 provisions effective from 1 November 2025, a depositor can nominate up to how many persons?
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Correct answer: C — Four
PIB: customers may nominate up to four persons, either simultaneously or successively.
Under the new nomination rules effective 1 November 2025, which type of nomination is permitted for articles in safe custody and safety lockers?
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Correct answer: B — Only successive nomination
PIB: for articles in safe custody and safety lockers, only successive nominations are permitted; deposit accounts can have either.
Consider the following statements about the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. It contains 19 amendments across five legislations, including the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. 2. Its nomination provisions came into force on 1 August 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the Act has 19 amendments across five laws. Certain other sections came into force on 1 August 2025; the nomination provisions (Sections 10–13) come into force on 1 November 2025.
According to Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav on International Snow Leopard Day 2025, how many snow leopards did India's first-ever snow leopard census record?
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Correct answer: C — 718
PIB: the first-ever Snow Leopard Census recorded 718 individual snow leopards across the Indian Himalayas, with Ladakh alone hosting 477.
What was the name of the nationwide campaign with which India marked International Snow Leopard Day on 23 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — #23for23
PIB: India observed International Snow Leopard Day with '#23for23', encouraging people to do physical activity for 23 minutes to raise awareness about snow leopard conservation.
Where was the Election Commission's two-day Conference of Chief Electoral Officers on SIR preparedness held in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — India International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Management, New Delhi
PIB (ECI): the two-day conference concluded at the India International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Management (IIIDEM), New Delhi.
At the October 2025 CEOs' conference, the Election Commission held one-to-one interactions with CEOs of poll-bound states/UT. Which one of the following was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: D — Karnataka
PIB (ECI): the Commission interacted one-to-one with CEOs of Assam, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Kerala and West Bengal. Karnataka was not among them.
From which date does the Defence Procurement Manual (DPM) 2025, released by the Defence Minister in October 2025, come into effect?
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Correct answer: B — 1 November 2025
PIB: DPM 2025 is effective from November 01, 2025; RFPs issued up to October 31, 2025 remain under DPM 2009.
Under DPM 2025, what rate of liquidated damages per week applies in indigenisation cases for delayed delivery?
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Correct answer: C — 0.1% per week
PIB: in indigenisation cases only 0.1% LD per week will be levied instead of 0.5% per week; overall, maximum LD of 10% applies only in cases of inordinate delay.
Consider the following statements about the Defence Procurement Manual 2025: 1. RFPs issued after 1 November 2025 will be governed by DPM 2025, while earlier RFPs remain under DPM 2009. 2. It governs capital acquisition of major weapon platforms worth about ₹1 lakh crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: DPM 2025 governs revenue procurement (not capital acquisition) of approx ₹1 lakh crore by the three Services and other MoD establishments.
According to the Global Forest Resources Assessment 2025, what is India's global rank in total forest area?
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Correct answer: C — 9th
PIB: India moved up to 9th position in total forest area as per GFRA 2025; it was 10th in the previous assessment.
The Global Forest Resources Assessment (GFRA) 2025 was released by which organisation?
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Correct answer: B — Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
PIB: GFRA 2025 was released by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) in Bali.
Consider the following statements regarding India in the Global Forest Resources Assessment 2025: 1. India retained its 3rd position worldwide in annual forest area gain. 2. The assessment was released by FAO at Rome. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: India maintained its 3rd position in annual forest area gain; the GFRA 2025 was released by FAO in Bali, not Rome.
The 16th session of UNCTAD (UNCTAD XVI), where Piyush Goyal led India's delegation in October 2025, was held in which city?
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Correct answer: A — Geneva
PIB: Piyush Goyal attended the XVIth Session of UNCTAD in Geneva and delivered India's national statement.
In which year was the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) established?
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Correct answer: B — 1964
PIB (UNCTAD XVI release): UNCTAD, established in 1964, promotes the integration of developing countries into the global economy through trade, investment and sustainable development.
Consider the following statements based on India's address at UNCTAD XVI (October 2025): 1. India contributes about 17% of global emissions, in line with its share of world population. 2. India's current clean energy capacity was stated as 500 GW. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: India contributes only 3.5% of global emissions despite hosting 17% of the world's population; clean energy stands at 250 GW, with 500 GW as the 2030 target.
India's 7 nm processor announced in October 2025 is being developed by which institution?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Madras
PIB backgrounder: the 7 nm processor is being developed by IIT Madras through its SHAKTI initiative.
Consider the following statements about the SHAKTI processor initiative: 1. It was started in 2013 and is based on an open-source instruction set architecture. 2. The 7 nm processor under it is mainly targeted at smartphones and consumer wearables. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB backgrounder: SHAKTI started in 2013 on an open-source ISA (RISC-V); the 7 nm processor targets server applications in financial services, communications, defence and strategic sectors.
Which Indian Navy ship participated in JAIMEX-25 and made a port call at Yokosuka in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — INS Sahyadri
PIB: INS Sahyadri, a Shivalik-class guided missile stealth frigate, took part in JAIMEX-25 and called at Yokosuka on 21 October 2025.
INS Sahyadri, which took part in JAIMEX-25, belongs to which class of warships?
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Correct answer: D — Shivalik-class guided missile stealth frigate
PIB: INS Sahyadri is an indigenously built Shivalik-class Guided Missile Stealth Frigate, commissioned in 2012.
Consider the following statements about JAIMEX-25: 1. A JMSDF submarine took part in the sea phase along with surface ships. 2. The sea phase was held after the harbour phase at Yokosuka. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: JMSDF ships Asahi and Oumi and submarine Jinryu joined the sea phase (16–18 Oct); the harbour phase at Yokosuka began on 21 October, after the sea phase.
Who was designated Prime Minister of Japan by the Diet on 21 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sanae Takaichi
Kantei (Japan PMO): on 21 October 2025 Ms. Takaichi Sanae was designated Prime Minister; PIB: PM Modi congratulated her on her election.
According to Japan's Prime Minister's Office, Sanae Takaichi is Japan's Prime Minister number ___ since Ito Hirobumi.
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Correct answer: A — 104th
Kantei: Prime Minister Takaichi became the 104th Prime Minister since Ito Hirobumi, the first Prime Minister of Japan.
Consider the following statements regarding leadership changes greeted by PM Modi on 21 October 2025: 1. Sanae Takaichi succeeded Fumio Kishida as Prime Minister of Japan. 2. Rodrigo Paz Pereira was elected Prime Minister of Bolivia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. BBC: Takaichi became LDP leader after Shigeru Ishiba resigned, so she succeeded Ishiba; PIB: Rodrigo Paz Pereira was elected President (not Prime Minister) of Bolivia.
Under the Election Commission's arrangement for Bihar 2025, flying squads aim to attend to cVIGIL complaints within how much time?
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Correct answer: A — 100 minutes
PIB: 824 flying squads have been deployed across Bihar so that complaints are attended to within 100 minutes; 94% of cVIGIL complaints were resolved within 100 minutes.
Which call centre number did the Election Commission set up for the public and political parties to lodge complaints during the Bihar elections 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1950
PIB: a complaint monitoring system including Call Centre number 1950 has been set up and is operational 24x7.
By how much did the combined Index of Eight Core Industries grow in September 2025 (provisional)?
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Correct answer: B — 3.0%
PIB: the ICI increased by 3.0% (provisional) in September 2025; 2.9% is the April–September cumulative and 6.5% the final August figure.
Which core industry recorded the highest growth in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Steel
PIB: steel production increased by 14.1% in September 2025, ahead of cement (5.3%), electricity (2.1%) and fertilizers (1.6%).
Consider the following statements about the Index of Eight Core Industries: 1. The eight core industries comprise 40.27% of the weight of items in the Index of Industrial Production. 2. Among the eight, refinery products carry the smallest weight. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the eight core industries comprise 40.27% of IIP weight; petroleum refinery products carry the largest weight (28.04%), while fertilizers have the smallest (2.63%).
On which date was the Regional Connectivity Scheme UDAN launched?
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Correct answer: A — 21 October 2016
PIB: UDAN was launched on 21 October 2016 under the National Civil Aviation Policy; 27 April 2017 is the date of the first UDAN flight.
The first UDAN flight, inaugurated by PM Modi on 27 April 2017, connected which two cities?
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Correct answer: D — Shimla and Delhi
PIB: the first UDAN flight was inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi on 27 April 2017 between Shimla and Delhi.
Consider the following statements about UDAN as of its 9th anniversary (October 2025): 1. The 93 airports connected under UDAN include heliports and water aerodromes. 2. UDAN 5.5 is a special bidding round for seaplanes and helicopters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the 93 unserved and underserved airports include 15 heliports and 2 water aerodromes; UDAN 5.5 is a special bidding round for seaplanes and helicopters.
The Holy Relics of Lord Buddha were exhibited in October 2025 in which republic of the Russian Federation?
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Correct answer: D — Kalmykia
PIB: the relics returned to India after a week-long exposition (11–18 October 2025) in the Republic of Kalmykia, Russia; the delegation departed from Elista, its capital.
Who led the Indian delegation accompanying the Buddha relics to Kalmykia in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Manoj Sinha, Lieutenant Governor of J&K
PIB: the Indian delegation was led by Lieutenant Governor Manoj Sinha; UP Deputy CM Keshav Prasad Maurya inaugurated Vasudeo Kamath's art exhibition there.
Consider the following statements about the Buddha relics exposition in Kalmykia (October 2025): 1. It was organised by the Ministry of Culture with the International Buddhist Confederation, the National Museum and IGNCA. 2. Artist Vasudeo Kamath donated all 28 paintings displayed there to the National Museum in Elista. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the exposition was a collaborative effort of the Ministry of Culture, IBC, National Museum and IGNCA; Kamath donated all 28 paintings to the National Museum of Elista.
The Ministry of Mines' October 2025 amendment introducing intermediate timelines for auctioned mineral blocks was made to which rules?
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Correct answer: A — Mineral (Auction) Rules, 2015
PIB: the Ministry of Mines notified an amendment to the Mineral (Auction) Rules, 2015, introducing intermediary timelines from LoI to execution of the mining lease.
Under the amended mineral auction rules (October 2025), what penalty applies for delay beyond a prescribed intermediate timeline?
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Correct answer: B — Appropriation of 1% of the bank guarantee per month of delay
PIB: delay beyond the prescribed timelines attracts appropriation of the bidder's bank guarantee to the extent of 1% for each month or part of a month.
Consider the following statements about mineral block auctions as described by the Ministry of Mines in October 2025: 1. All 585 major mineral blocks auctioned since 2015 are critical mineral blocks. 2. For a mining lease auction, the total penalty-free timeline from LoI to lease execution is 7 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: of 585 major mineral blocks auctioned, 34 are critical mineral blocks auctioned by the Centre; the penalty-free timeline is 3 years for a mining lease and 7 years for a composite licence.
Under which Article of the Constitution does the Election Commission exercise the plenary powers used to appoint Central Observers?
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Correct answer: C — Article 324
PIB: the Commission appoints Central Observers under the plenary powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 20B of the RP Act, 1951.
Which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the appointment of observers by the Election Commission?
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Correct answer: A — Section 20B
PIB: Central Observers are appointed under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 20B of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Consider the following statements about observers for the Bihar elections 2025: 1. 121 General Observers were deployed for Phase 2. 2. 8 General and 8 Police Observers were deployed for the bye-elections in 8 Assembly constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: Phase 1 had 121 General Observers and Phase 2 had 122; 8 General and 8 Police Observers were deployed for the 8 bye-elections.
Which is described by the Government as India's first indigenously discovered antibiotic, developed by the Department of Biotechnology with Wockhardt?
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Correct answer: A — Nafithromycin
PIB: Dr Jitendra Singh said India has developed its first indigenously discovered antibiotic 'Nafithromycin', developed by DBT in collaboration with Wockhardt.
India's first successful indigenous clinical trial of gene therapy for haemophilia, announced in October 2025, was carried out at which institution?
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Correct answer: C — Christian Medical College, Vellore
PIB: the trial, supported by DBT, was done in a non-government hospital, Christian Medical College Vellore.
Consider the following statements made by Dr Jitendra Singh on 18 October 2025: 1. The Anusandhan National Research Foundation has an outlay of ₹50,000 crore over five years, of which ₹36,000 crore will come from non-government sources. 2. The findings of the indigenous haemophilia gene therapy trial were published in The Lancet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: ANRF has a total outlay of ₹50,000 crore over five years, ₹36,000 crore from non-government sources; the gene therapy findings were published in the New England Journal of Medicine.
Which provision of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 entitles employed voters to a paid holiday on polling day?
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Correct answer: B — Section 135B
PIB (ECI): as per Section 135B of the RP Act, 1951, every employed person entitled to vote in a Lok Sabha or State/UT Assembly election shall be granted a paid holiday on the day of poll.
Consider the following statements about the paid holiday on polling day for the Bihar elections, 2025, as clarified by the ECI: 1. Daily wage and casual workers are also entitled to a paid holiday. 2. Voters employed outside their constituency are not entitled to the paid holiday even if registered in a constituency going to the polls. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (ECI): daily wage and casual workers are entitled; electors working outside their constituency but registered in a constituency going to the polls are also entitled to the paid holiday.
How many products did the Finance Ministry closely monitor to check that Next-Gen GST rate cuts reached consumers, as stated on 18 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 54
PIB: the Finance Minister said prices of 54 products were closely monitored and the benefits had been fully passed on across all 54 items.
According to Ashwini Vaishnaw on 18 October 2025, production had commenced at which two semiconductor manufacturing facilities?
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Correct answer: D — CG Semi and Kaynes
PIB: Shri Vaishnaw announced that production has commenced at two semiconductor manufacturing facilities — CG Semi and Kaynes.
Consider the following statements about the Next-Gen GST reforms, as described at the 18 October 2025 press conference: 1. They came into effect on 22 September 2025, the first day of Navratri. 2. They reduced the number of GST slabs from four to three. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the Next-Gen GST reforms came into effect on 22 September, the first day of Navratri, and brought the number of slabs down from four to two.
Which instrument on the Chandrayaan-2 orbiter made the first-ever observation of a solar CME's effect on the lunar exosphere, as announced by ISRO on 18 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — CHACE-2
ISRO (18 Oct 2025): the observation was made by Chandra's Atmospheric Composition Explorer-2 (CHACE-2) on board the Chandrayaan-2 orbiter.
On which date did the series of coronal mass ejections occur whose impact on the Moon was observed by Chandrayaan-2's CHACE-2?
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Correct answer: B — 10 May 2024
ISRO (18 Oct 2025): the opportunity came in a rare occurrence on 10 May 2024, when a series of CMEs were hurled by the Sun.
Consider the following statements, as stated by ISRO in October 2025: 1. The Moon's exosphere falls under the category of a 'surface boundary exosphere'. 2. Coronal mass ejections comprise mostly helium and hydrogen ions. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
ISRO (18 Oct 2025): the Moon's exosphere is a 'surface boundary exosphere', and CMEs comprise mostly helium and hydrogen ions, so both statements are correct.
The G20 Climate and Environmental Sustainability Working Group Ministerial Meeting, where India delivered its closing statement on 17 October 2025, was held in which city?
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Correct answer: C — Cape Town
PIB: Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav delivered India's closing statement at the meeting in Cape Town, South Africa.
Consider the following statements made by India at the G20 environment ministerial in October 2025: 1. India raised its non-fossil electric generation capacity to over 50% in 2025, meeting its revised NDC target five years in advance. 2. India's installed solar capacity grew from 27 GW in 2014 to 127 GW in 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: non-fossil capacity exceeded 50% in 2025, five years ahead of the revised NDC target; installed solar capacity grew from 2.8 GW in 2014 (not 27 GW) to 127 GW in 2025.
Who is the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka who called on PM Narendra Modi in New Delhi on 17 October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Dr Harini Amarasuriya
PIB: H.E. Dr Harini Amarasuriya, Prime Minister of the Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka, called on PM Modi; Anura Kumara Disanayaka is Sri Lanka's President.
Consider the following statements: 1. Dr Harini Amarasuriya is the President of Sri Lanka. 2. PM Modi made a State visit to Sri Lanka in April 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: Dr Amarasuriya is the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka (the President is Anura Kumara Disanayaka); PM Modi recalled his State visit to Sri Lanka in April this year.
Egypt's Foreign Minister Badr Abdelatty briefed PM Modi on 17 October 2025 about which bilateral mechanism held during his visit?
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Correct answer: A — The first India–Egypt Strategic Dialogue
PIB: Foreign Minister Abdelatty briefed the Prime Minister on the first India–Egypt Strategic Dialogue being held during his visit.
PM Modi congratulated Egypt's President on 17 October 2025 for Egypt's role in which agreement?
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Correct answer: D — Gaza Peace Agreement
PIB: the Prime Minister congratulated President Sisi for Egypt's crucial role in the Gaza Peace Agreement.
Which State is ranked first in Category A of the State Mining Readiness Index released by the Ministry of Mines in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Madhya Pradesh
PIB: the top three in Category A are Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
Which States are the top three in Category C of the State Mining Readiness Index?
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Correct answer: B — Punjab, Uttarakhand and Tripura
PIB: in Category C, the top three ranks were obtained by Punjab, Uttarakhand and Tripura; Goa, Uttar Pradesh and Assam top Category B.
Consider the following statements about the State Mining Readiness Index (SMRI): 1. Its release fulfils an announcement made in the Union Budget 2025-26. 2. Its indicators pertain mainly to coal and lignite blocks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: SMRI fulfils the Union Budget 2025-26 announcement; its indicators — auction performance, early mine operationalisation, exploration and sustainable mining — pertain to non-coal minerals.
When was the Framework Agreement between India and MERCOSUR, recalled in the India–Brazil Joint Declaration of October 2025, signed?
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Correct answer: B — 17 June 2003
PIB: the Joint Declaration recalled the Framework Agreement signed between India and MERCOSUR on 17 June 2003.
Who signed the Joint Declaration on deepening the MERCOSUR–India trade agreement with Piyush Goyal on 16 October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Geraldo Alckmin, Vice President of Brazil
PIB: the Vice President of Brazil and Minister of Development, Industry, Trade and Services, Geraldo Alckmin, and Piyush Goyal issued the Joint Declaration.
Consider the following statements about the India–Brazil Joint Declaration on the MERCOSUR–India PTA (October 2025): 1. The parties should endeavour to conclude negotiations within one year from their launch. 2. A meeting of the Joint Administration Committee created under Article 23 of the PTA is to help define the scope of the expansion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the parties should endeavour to conclude negotiations within one year; the next step includes a meeting of the Joint Administration Committee under Article 23 of the PTA to define the scope.