Bihar Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
According to NITI Aayog's tax working paper of October 2025, the Income-tax Act, 2025 continues to criminalise how many actions and omissions?
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Correct answer: B — 35 across 13 provisions
PIB: the paper highlights that the 2025 Act continues to criminalise 35 actions and omissions across 13 provisions, most prescribing mandatory imprisonment.
Consider the following statements about the NITI Tax Policy Working Paper Series: 1. The first paper in the series dealt with Permanent Establishment and profit attribution for foreign investors in India. 2. The second paper recommends removing criminal sanctions even for cases of fraud and wilful evasion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the first paper was on certainty, transparency and uniformity in Permanent Establishment and profit attribution for foreign investors; the second paper recommends restricting criminal sanctions to cases involving fraud or wilful evasion, not removing them.
What combined initial funding have India and the UK committed to the India–UK Connectivity and Innovation Centre?
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Correct answer: A — £24 million over four years
PIB: India and the UK have committed a combined initial £24 million over four years to the initiative.
Consider the following statements about the India–UK Connectivity and Innovation Centre: 1. Its three focus areas are AI in telecom, quantum communication and semiconductor design. 2. It is delivered jointly by UKRI and India's Department of Telecommunications under the UK-India Technology Security Initiative. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: the three focus areas are transforming telecom with AI, non-terrestrial networks and telecom cybersecurity (not quantum or semiconductors); the Centre is delivered by UKRI and DoT under the UK-India Technology Security Initiative.
Which Australian naval facility in Sydney did Rajnath Singh visit on 10 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — HMAS Kuttabul
PIB: Rajnath Singh visited the historic and strategic naval facility HMAS Kuttabul in Sydney on 10 October 2025.
In which year was the India–Australia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership established, as recalled by Rajnath Singh in Sydney?
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Correct answer: C — 2020
PIB: Rajnath Singh spoke of the Comprehensive Strategic Partnership 2020 as the banner for re-positioning defence relations.
Consider the following statements from Rajnath Singh's address at the India–Australia Defence Industry Business Round Table (October 2025): 1. Australia has identified India as a 'Top Tier Partner', removing certain regulatory barriers to technology sharing. 2. India allows FDI in defence up to 49% under the automatic route. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Rajnath Singh said Australia has identified India as a Top Tier Partner; he said the FDI policy has been liberalised up to 74% (not 49%) under the automatic route.
Under the ECI notification of 7 October 2025, how many alternative photo identity documents can an elector use if they cannot produce the EPIC?
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Correct answer: B — 12
PIB: ECI's notification of 7 October 2025 permits electors on the roll who cannot produce their EPIC to show any one of 12 alternative photo identity documents.
Consider the following statements: 1. ECI directs the issue of EPICs under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 read with the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960. 2. The UDID card issued by the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment is one of the alternative documents allowed for voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: ECI is empowered under the RP Act, 1951 read with the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960 to direct the issue of EPICs; the Unique Disability ID (UDID) card is among the 12 alternative photo IDs.
According to NITI Aayog's 'Roadmap for Job Creation in the AI Economy' (October 2025), India's tech services sector could create up to how many new jobs in the next five years?
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Correct answer: D — 4 million
PIB: the roadmap says India's tech services sector has the opportunity to create up to 4 million new jobs in the next five years.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's 'Roadmap for Job Creation in the AI Economy': 1. It was developed by NITI Aayog's Frontier Tech Hub in collaboration with NASSCOM and BCG. 2. It recommends launching a National AI Talent Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the roadmap was developed by NITI's Frontier Tech Hub with NASSCOM and BCG, and recommends a National AI Talent Mission working with the IndiaAI Mission.
Who was designated Mental Health Ambassador by the Union Health Ministry on World Mental Health Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Deepika Padukone
PIB: J P Nadda said Deepika Padukone has been designated as the Mental Health Ambassador for raising awareness about access to mental health services.
After the October 2025 upgrade, the Tele MANAS app is available in how many regional languages in addition to English and Hindi?
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Correct answer: B — 10
PIB: the Tele MANAS app will now be available in 10 regional languages in addition to English and Hindi.
During UK PM Keir Starmer's October 2025 visit, which UK university received in-principle approval to open a campus in GIFT City?
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Correct answer: B — University of Surrey
PIB (list of outcomes): in-principle approval was given for opening a campus of the University of Surrey in GIFT City; Lancaster University received an LoI for Bengaluru.
India and the UK agreed in October 2025 to proceed via the government-to-government route on an initial supply of which missile system?
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Correct answer: D — Lightweight Multirole Missile (LMM)
PIB (joint statement): both leaders announced agreement to proceed via the government-to-government route on an initial supply of Lightweight Multirole Missile (LMM) systems to support India's air defence.
Consider the following statements about UK PM Keir Starmer's visit to India (October 2025): 1. Phase II of the UK-India Critical Minerals Supply Chain Observatory includes a new satellite campus at IIT-ISM Dhanbad. 2. It was Starmer's second official visit to India as Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Phase II of the Observatory will establish a new satellite campus at IIT-ISM Dhanbad; the joint statement says this was Prime Minister Starmer's first official visit to India.
About how many officials did the Election Commission deploy for the 2025 Bihar Assembly election?
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Correct answer: A — 8.5 lakh
PIB: around 8.5 lakh election officials have been deployed, including nearly 4.53 lakh polling personnel and 2.5 lakh police officials.
Consider the following statements about the 2025 Bihar Assembly election arrangements: 1. For the first time, one General Observer has been deployed for each of Bihar's 243 constituencies. 2. Personnel deployed are deemed to be on deputation to the Election Commission under Section 28A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: in a first, one General Observer has been deployed for each of the 243 constituencies; all deployed personnel are deemed to be on deputation to ECI under Section 28A of the RP Act, 1951.
What did the Election Commission direct parties, candidates and star campaigners to do with AI-generated or synthetic campaign content during the Bihar elections?
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Correct answer: D — Label it prominently
PIB: parties, leaders, candidates and star campaigners shall take necessary measures for prominent labelling of AI-generated/synthetic content shared for campaigning.
Under the October 2025 amendments to the PLI scheme for textiles, the minimum investment for new applicants in the Part-1 category was reduced to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹150 crore
PIB: with effect from 1 August 2025, the minimum investment for new applicants was reduced from ₹300 crore to ₹150 crore in Part-1 and from ₹100 crore to ₹50 crore in Part-2.
Consider the following statements about the amended PLI scheme for textiles: 1. The incremental turnover required to qualify for incentives has been reduced from 25% to 10%. 2. The application portal has been opened until 31 March 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: from FY 2025–26 applicants need a minimum 10% incremental turnover (down from 25%); the application portal is open until 31 December 2025, not 31 March 2026.
Which India–Australia implementing arrangement was signed at the inaugural Defence Ministers' Dialogue in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Mutual Submarine Rescue Support and Cooperation
PIB (joint statement): ministers welcomed the signing of the Australia–India Implementing Arrangement on Mutual Submarine Rescue Support and Cooperation; the air-to-air refuelling arrangement had been signed in 2024.
Consider the following statements about the Australia–India Defence Ministers' Dialogue (October 2025): 1. It was the inaugural edition, and the ministers agreed to hold it annually. 2. Australia's first defence trade mission to India took place from 7 to 10 October 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the October 2025 meeting was the inaugural Australia–India Defence Ministers' Dialogue, with a commitment to an annual dialogue; ministers welcomed Australia's first defence trade mission to India from 7 to 10 October 2025.
What is the duration of the Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 launched in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 60 days
PIB: the 60-day Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 prioritises six enhanced key strategies.
Consider the following statements about the Tobacco Free Youth Campaign: 1. The first campaign was launched on 31 May 2023 to mark World No Tobacco Day. 2. At the launch of TFYC 3.0, the 4th National Tobacco Testing Laboratory was dedicated at AIIMS, New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the inaugural campaign was launched on 31 May 2023 to mark World No Tobacco Day; the 4th National Tobacco Testing Laboratory was dedicated at NIMHANS, Bengaluru, not AIIMS.
In October 2025 the combined assets under management of NPS and Atal Pension Yojana crossed which mark?
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Correct answer: C — ₹16 lakh crore
PIB: the combined AUM of NPS and APY crossed the ₹16 lakh crore mark on 9 October 2025.
Consider the following statements about the pension sector (October 2025): 1. The combined subscriber base of NPS and APY has surpassed 9 crore. 2. PFRDA's Multiple Scheme Framework became effective from 1 April 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the subscriber base has surpassed 9 crore; the Multiple Scheme Framework is effective from 1 October 2025, not 1 April 2025.
How many critical and strategic mineral blocks are offered in Tranche VI of the auction launched in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 23
PIB: Tranche VI, launched on 16 September 2025, includes 23 critical and strategic mineral blocks — 19 composite licences and 4 mining leases.
Consider the following statements about Tranche VI of the critical mineral block auction: 1. It comprises 19 composite licences and 4 mining leases. 2. It was launched by the Ministry of Mines on 16 September 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: Tranche VI was launched on 16 September 2025 and includes 23 blocks — 19 composite licences and 4 mining leases.
NITI Aayog's October 2025 roadmap 'AI for Inclusive Societal Development' proposes which national mission for informal workers?
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Correct answer: D — Mission Digital ShramSetu
PIB: NITI Aayog called for Mission Digital ShramSetu, a proposed national mission to make AI accessible, affordable and impactful for every worker.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's roadmap 'AI for Inclusive Societal Development' (October 2025): 1. It focuses on India's 490 million informal workers. 2. It warns that on the current trajectory, informal workers' average annual income will stagnate at $6,000 by 2047, against a $14,500 target. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the study explores how AI can transform the lives of India's 490 million informal workers and warns that at the current trajectory their average annual income will stagnate at $6,000 by 2047, far below the $14,500 target.
At the first meeting of the upgraded India–Qatar Joint Commission (October 2025), the two sides set a goal of doubling bilateral trade by:
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Correct answer: B — 2030
PIB: the sides set a shared goal of doubling bilateral trade by 2030.
Consider the following statements about Piyush Goyal's October 2025 visit to Qatar: 1. The upgraded Joint Commission replaced the earlier Joint Working Group on Trade and Commerce. 2. India–Qatar bilateral trade in 2024–25 was over USD 24 billion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: it was the first meeting of the upgraded Joint Commission, elevated from the earlier Joint Working Group on Trade and Commerce; trade was valued at over USD 14 billion in 2024–25.
The draft Shram Shakti Niti 2025 is described as rooted in which civilisational ethos?
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Correct answer: B — Śrama dharma
PIB: the policy is rooted in India's civilisational ethos of śrama dharma — the dignity and moral value of work.
Under the draft National Labour & Employment Policy – Shram Shakti Niti 2025, which platform is to serve as India's Digital Public Infrastructure for Employment?
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Correct answer: D — National Career Service (NCS)
PIB: the National Career Service (NCS) platform will serve as India's Digital Public Infrastructure for Employment, enabling job matching, credential verification and skill alignment.
Which country received the ISSA award for outstanding achievement in social security immediately before India (in 2022)?
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Correct answer: D — Iceland
PIB: previous recipients include Brazil (2013), China (2016), Rwanda (2019) and Iceland (2022).
Consider the following statements: 1. According to the ILO, India's social protection coverage rose from 19% in 2015 to 64.3% in 2025. 2. The ISSA award for outstanding achievement in social security is presented every year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: coverage expanded from 19% in 2015 to 64.3% in 2025, as highlighted by the ILO; the ISSA Award is presented once every three years at the World Social Security Forum.
India's vote share in the ISSA General Assembly has been raised to which number, the maximum permissible for any member country?
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Correct answer: C — 30
PIB: Dr Mandaviya stressed the rise in India's vote share in the ISSA General Assembly to 30, the maximum permissible limit for any member country.
Which form do electors above 85 years and electors with benchmark disabilities use to opt for postal ballot in the Bihar Assembly election 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Form 12D
PIB (ECI): such electors can avail the facility using Form 12D, submitted to the Returning Officer through their BLO within 5 days of the notification.
Consider the following statements regarding postal ballots in the Bihar Assembly election 2025: 1. The facility for electors above 85 years and those with benchmark disabilities is notified under Section 60(c) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. 2. Service voters receiving ballots through ETPBS must bear the cost of postal services. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (ECI): the Commission notified the facility as per Section 60(c) of the RP Act, 1951; service voters are not required to bear the cost of postal services.
As of September 2025, public sector banks had sanctioned loans under PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana amounting to about:
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Correct answer: D — ₹10,907 crore
PIB: as of September 2025, PSBs had sanctioned over 5.79 lakh loan applications amounting to ₹10,907 crore.
Consider the following statements about the model loan scheme under PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana: 1. It offers collateral-free loans of up to ₹2 lakh. 2. It provides a 12-month moratorium from disbursement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the model loan scheme offers loans up to ₹2 lakh without collateral and a 6-month moratorium period from disbursement.
How many of the 243 seats in the Bihar Legislative Assembly are reserved for Scheduled Castes, as per the ECI press note of 6 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 38
PIB (ECI): the Bihar Assembly has 243 constituencies, of which 38 are reserved for SCs and 2 for STs.
On which date was counting of votes scheduled for the Bihar Assembly election 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 14 November 2025
ECI schedule (Annexure-I): polling on 6 November (121 ACs) and 11 November (122 ACs); counting on 14 November 2025; election to be completed by 16 November.
Consider the following statements about the Bihar Assembly election 2025: 1. With a cap of 1,200 electors per polling station, Bihar's polling stations rose from 77,462 (Lok Sabha 2024) to 90,712. 2. The final electoral roll, after a Special Intensive Revision with 1 July 2025 as qualifying date, was published on 30 September 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (ECI): a maximum of 1,200 electors per polling station took the count from 77,462 to 90,712; the SIR used 01.07.2025 as the qualifying date and the final roll was published on 30.09.2025.
The ECI conducts elections to the Bihar Legislative Assembly under which Article of the Constitution read with Article 172(1)?
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Correct answer: A — Article 324
PIB (ECI): the Commission conducts the election in exercise of powers under Article 324 read with Article 172(1) of the Constitution and Section 15 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
In which year did India achieve leprosy elimination status at the national level (prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population)?
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Correct answer: B — 2005
PIB (MoHFW explainer): India achieved elimination status in March 2005 at the national level, meaning a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population, and has sustained it.
Nikusth 2.0, the revamped web portal for leprosy data and monitoring, was launched on which occasion?
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Correct answer: D — National Anti-Leprosy Day, 30 January 2023
PIB: Nikusth 2.0, a revamped web-based ICT portal for recording, reporting and monitoring leprosy activities, was launched on 30 January 2023 (National Anti-Leprosy Day) by the Union Health Minister.
Consider the following statements about leprosy in India: 1. As of March 2025, 31 States and 638 districts had a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population. 2. The new case detection rate rose from 7.0 per 100,000 in 2014–15 to 9.73 per 100,000 in 2024–25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: as of March 2025, 31 States and 638 districts had achieved a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000. The new case detection rate fell (not rose) from 9.73 per 100,000 in 2014–15 to 7.0 in 2024–25.
Which Article of the Constitution entrusts Panchayats with preparing plans for economic development and social justice, the basis of the People's Plan Campaign?
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Correct answer: D — Article 243G
PIB (MoPR): Article 243G recognises Panchayats as institutions of local self-government and entrusts them with the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice; PDPs cover the 29 subjects of the Eleventh Schedule.
Consider the following statements about the People's Plan Campaign (PPC): 1. Panchayat Development Plans cover the 29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution. 2. PPC 2025–26, launched on 2 October 2025, prepares Panchayat Development Plans for the financial year 2025–26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (MoPR): PDPs cover the 29 subjects of the Eleventh Schedule. PPC 2025–26 was launched on 2 October 2025 to prepare PDPs for the financial year 2026–27, not 2025–26.
Exercise Konkan, which began on 5 October 2025, is a bilateral exercise between the Indian Navy and which navy?
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Correct answer: C — Royal Navy (United Kingdom)
PIB (Indian Navy): Exercise KONKAN-25 is a bilateral exercise between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy of the UK, held off India's western coast from 5 to 12 October 2025.
Consider the following statements about Exercise Konkan 2025: 1. It was conducted off the eastern coast of India in the Bay of Bengal. 2. The Indian side was represented by the carrier battle group of INS Vikrant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: the exercise was held off the western coast of India (western seaboard), and the Indian side was represented by the carrier battle group of the indigenous aircraft carrier INS Vikrant; the UK CSG 25 was led by HMS Prince of Wales.
Consider the following statements about the ₹1,500 crore Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme: 1. Its eligible feedstock includes e-waste, spent lithium-ion batteries and other scrap. 2. Its incentives are meant for units engaged only in black mass production. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (Ministry of Mines): eligible feedstock is e-waste, spent LiBs and other scrap. Incentives are for the value chain engaged in actual extraction of critical minerals, not the value chain involved only in black mass production.
Applications under the Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme, opened on 2 October 2025, can be made up to which date?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2026
PIB: the scheme is open for applications from 2 October 2025 for six months, i.e. up to 1 April 2026.
According to the government explainer of October 2025, what was India's unemployment rate in 2023–24?
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Correct answer: D — 3.2%
PIB explainer: the unemployment rate fell sharply from 6.0% in 2017–18 to 3.2% in 2023–24.
Consider the following statements based on the government's October 2025 employment explainer: 1. EPFO added fewer than 1 crore net subscribers in 2024–25. 2. The share of self-employment fell from 58.4% in 2017–18 to 52.2% in 2023–24. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: EPFO added over 1.29 crore net subscribers in 2024–25 (up from 61.12 lakh in 2018–19). Self-employment rose (not fell) from 52.2% in 2017–18 to 58.4% in 2023–24, while casual labour fell from 24.9% to 19.8%.
Before UIDAI's October 2025 waiver, what fee was charged per Mandatory Biometric Update (MBU) for a child outside the free age windows?
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Correct answer: C — ₹125
PIB (MeitY/UIDAI): the first and second MBUs were free if done at ages 5–7 and 15–17; thereafter a prescribed fee of ₹125 per MBU was charged. The waiver makes MBU effectively free for all children aged 5–17.
Consider the following statements about Aadhaar for children: 1. Fingerprints and iris biometrics are not captured for Aadhaar enrolment of children below five years of age. 2. UIDAI's waiver of MBU charges, effective 1 October 2025, will remain in force for two years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: fingerprints and iris are not captured below age five because they are not mature. The MBU charge waiver took effect on 1 October 2025 and is in force for one year, not two.
Under the amended National Highways fee rules notified in October 2025, a vehicle without a valid FASTag that pays via UPI will be charged how much of the applicable user fee?
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Correct answer: C — 1.25 times
PIB (MoRTH): non-FASTag users paying in cash will be charged twice the applicable fee, while those paying via UPI will be charged only 1.25 times (e.g. ₹100 → ₹125 by UPI, ₹200 in cash).
From which date did the National Highways Fee (Determination of Rates and Collection) (Third Amendment) Rules, 2025 come into effect?
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Correct answer: D — 15 November 2025
PIB (MoRTH): the National Highways Fee (Determination of Rates and Collection) (Third Amendment) Rules, 2025 come into effect from 15 November 2025.
During his visit to Singapore for 'India-Singapore @60' in October 2025, Piyush Goyal met which President of Singapore at the Istana?
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Correct answer: C — Tharman Shanmugaratnam
PIB (Ministry of Commerce): a highlight of the three-day visit was a meeting with H.E. Tharman Shanmugaratnam, President of the Republic of Singapore, at the Istana.
Consider the following statements about the 'India-Singapore @60' business session of 4 October 2025: 1. It marked the 60th anniversary of diplomatic relations and was co-organised by FICCI, CII and ASSOCHAM. 2. Singapore was represented at the session by its Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the session marked the 60th anniversary of India–Singapore diplomatic relations and was co-organised by FICCI, CII and ASSOCHAM. Singapore was represented by Ms Gan Siow Huang, Minister of State, Ministry of Trade & Industry — not the Prime Minister.
According to MoSPI, the free foodgrain distribution scheme launched on 1 January 2023 covers what share of the population?
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Correct answer: B — 75% rural and 50% urban
PIB (MoSPI): the free food grain distribution scheme launched by the Government of India from 1 January 2023 covers 75% of the rural and 50% of the urban population.
Which body released the Discussion Paper 2.0 on 'The Treatment of Free PDS Items in CPI Compilation' in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
PIB: the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), which is conducting the CPI base revision, released Discussion Paper 2.0 and invited comments.
What period of authorisation has TRAI recommended for digital radio broadcasting by private broadcasters (October 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 15 years
PIB (TRAI): the period of authorisation for digital radio broadcasting should be 15 years.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's October 2025 recommendations on digital radio: 1. New broadcasters should start digital radio in simulcast mode, allowing one analog, three digital and one data channel on the assigned frequency. 2. Frequencies for new channels should be assigned by auction under Section 4(4) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (TRAI): digital radio should commence in simulcast mode (one analog, three digital and one data channel on the assigned spot frequency), and frequencies for new channels should be assigned by auction in accordance with Section 4(4) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
TRAI has recommended an authorisation fee of what share of Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR) for digital radio in 'A+' and 'A' category cities?
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Correct answer: A — 4%
PIB (TRAI): authorisation fee is 4% of AGR for cities of category 'A+', 'A', 'B', 'C' and 'D'; for 'Others' (border/hilly areas of NE, J&K, Ladakh and island territories) and 'E' category, 2% of AGR for the first 3 years.