Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — Last 6 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How many seats did the BJP win in the West Bengal Assembly election results declared on 4 May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 207
The BJP won 207 of the 293 seats declared; the Trinamool Congress won 80 (215 in 2021), and the BJP had won 77 in the previous election.
In the 2026 West Bengal Assembly election, who defeated Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee in the Bhabanipur constituency?
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Correct answer: D — Suvendu Adhikari
BJP leader Suvendu Adhikari defeated Mamata Banerjee in Bhabanipur, polling 73,917 votes against her 58,812.
Consider the following statements about the West Bengal Assembly election results of 4 May 2026: 1. The Trinamool Congress won 80 seats, down from 215 in 2021. 2. The BJP had won 77 seats in the previous Assembly election. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Trinamool Congress fell from 215 seats in 2021 to 80, and the BJP, which won 207 this time, had won 77 in the previous election.
By what margin did Suvendu Adhikari win the Bhabanipur seat in the 2026 West Bengal Assembly election, as per ECI?
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Correct answer: A — 15,105 votes
ECI's final count gave Suvendu Adhikari 73,917 votes and Mamata Banerjee 58,812, a margin of 15,105 votes.
Which party emerged as the single largest party in the Puducherry Assembly election results of 4 May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — All India N. R. Congress (AINRC)
The AINRC won 12 of 30 seats and led the NDA to 18 seats; the BJP won 4.
From which two constituencies did Chief Minister N. Rangasamy win in the 2026 Puducherry Assembly election?
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Correct answer: D — Thattanchavady and Mangalam
N. Rangasamy won both seats he contested, Thattanchavady and Mangalam.
Which revamped planning portal did the Ministry of Panchayati Raj launch at its national workshop on Panchayat Development Plans on 4 May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — eGramSwaraj
The revamped eGramSwaraj planning portal was launched along with the PPC booklet for 2026-27 and the GPDP quality committee report.
How many Police Observers did the Election Commission deploy around counting centres for the 2026 West Bengal Assembly election?
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Correct answer: C — 77
ECI deployed 77 Police Observers along with 165 Additional Counting Observers.
Consider the following statements about the observers deployed by ECI in West Bengal in May 2026: 1. They were appointed under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 20B of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. 2. Police Observers may enter the counting hall on counting day to supervise counting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The appointments were made under Article 324 and Section 20B of the RP Act, 1951; Police Observers shall not enter the counting hall under any circumstance.
The 70 sarpanches recognised at the Atmanirbhar Panchayat Programme workshop at NIRD&PR, Hyderabad, in May 2026 were distinguished performers in which area?
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Correct answer: D — Own Source Revenue generation
The 70 sarpanches were distinguished performers in Own Source Revenue (OSR) generation in their gram panchayats.
House-to-house Houselisting Operations under Census 2027 began on 1 May 2026 in six States/UTs. Which of the following was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: C — Rajasthan
HLO began in Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Haryana, Chandigarh, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh; in Rajasthan only the self-enumeration window opened on 1 May.
About how many households had used the Census 2027 self-enumeration facility by 1 May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 82 lakh
The Home Ministry said nearly 82 lakh households had availed the self-enumeration facility so far.
Consider the following statements about Census 2027: 1. The self-enumeration facility being used in Census 2027 was also offered in the previous Census. 2. Data collected is governed by the Census Act, 1951, and may be shared for individual verification. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. Self-enumeration has been introduced for the first time in a Census; data is collected under the Census Act, 1948, and remains strictly confidential, used only for statistical purposes and development planning.
Under the ECI's three-tier security mechanism for counting centres introduced on 30 April 2026, at which point is QR code scanning mandatory for entry?
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Correct answer: B — At the third, innermost cordon near the counting hall
Photo ID cards issued by the RO are checked manually at the first and second tiers; entry at the third and innermost cordon near the counting hall is permitted only after QR code verification.
On which ECI platform was the QR code-based Photo Identity Card module for counting centres introduced in April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ECINET
The Election Commission introduced the QR code-based Photo Identity Card module on ECINET.
As per the Election Commission's final statistical reports published with Press Note PN/085/2026, what was West Bengal's polling percentage (EVM plus postal) in the 2026 Assembly election?
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Correct answer: A — 93.71%
ECI's Highlight report (published with PN/085/2026) puts West Bengal's state polling percentage at 93.71%, based on 293 ACs excluding Falta (AC 144). 84.72% was the earlier record set in 2011.
How many Assembly constituencies of West Bengal went to the polls in the second phase on 29 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 142
Phase II covered 142 ACs in 8 districts; Phase I had covered 152 ACs, for a total of 294.
Consider the following statements about the 2026 West Bengal Assembly election: 1. ECI's final statistical report for the state excluded Falta (AC 144), where a repoll was scheduled. 2. Men recorded a higher turnout than women, as per ECI's final report. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: women's turnout (93.8%) was higher than men's (92.06%).
At which venue was the closing ceremony of Sikkim's 50th Year of Statehood celebrations held on 28 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Paljor Stadium, Gangtok
The Prime Minister addressed the closing ceremony at Paljor Stadium, Gangtok.
Which Article of the Constitution, inserted by the Constitution (Thirty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1975, contains special provisions with respect to Sikkim?
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Correct answer: D — Article 371F
Article 371F (special provisions with respect to the State of Sikkim) was inserted by the 36th Amendment with effect from 26 April 1975.
Consider the following statements about the Constitution (Thirty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1975: 1. It omitted Article 2A, under which Sikkim was associated with the Union. 2. It allotted Sikkim two seats in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Act allotted Sikkim one seat each in the Council of States and the House of the People.
As per ECI data up to 27 April 2026, total seizures of illicit inducements in West Bengal had crossed:
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Correct answer: D — ₹510 crore
Seizures reached ₹510.10 crore, higher than ₹339 crore in the 2021 Assembly election.
Consider the following statements about election seizures in West Bengal reported by ECI on 27 April 2026: 1. Cash formed the largest component of the seizures. 2. Seizures are tracked through the Election Seizure Management System (ESMS). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: cash was ₹30 crore, less than freebies/other (₹184.85 crore) and liquor (₹126.85 crore). Statement 2 is correct.
With which earlier election did ECI compare West Bengal's 2026 seizure total of over ₹510 crore?
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Correct answer: A — 2021 Assembly election (₹339 crore)
ECI said the ₹510.10 crore seized was higher than the ₹339 crore seized in the state during the 2021 Assembly election.
How many municipal corporations went to the polls in Gujarat's local body elections on 26 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 15
Polling was held for 15 municipal corporations, 84 municipalities, 34 district panchayats and 260 taluka panchayats.
In the Gujarat local body elections of April 2026, which party won the Narmada district panchayat?
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Correct answer: D — Aam Aadmi Party
The BJP won 33 of 34 district panchayats; the AAP won the Narmada district panchayat.
Consider the following statements about Gujarat's local body elections of April 2026: 1. Polling was held on 26 April and counting on 28 April. 2. Union Home Minister Amit Shah voted in the Surat Municipal Corporation election. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Amit Shah voted in the Ahmedabad Municipal Corporation election.
According to the Prime Minister in the 133rd Mann Ki Baat (April 2026), India's wind energy capacity has crossed:
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Correct answer: D — 56 GW
The PM said India's wind energy capacity has exceeded 56 GW, with nearly 6 GW added in the last year.
The Fast Breeder Reactor whose criticality was hailed in the 133rd Mann Ki Baat is located at:
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Correct answer: D — Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu
The PM said the Fast Breeder Reactor at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu, has achieved criticality.
Consider the following statements made in the 133rd Mann Ki Baat: 1. India ranks fourth in the world in wind energy capacity. 2. The music of the Beating Retreat ceremony is now available on WAVES OTT for the first time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements were made by the Prime Minister in the 26 April 2026 episode.
Census 2027 will be which census in the series since Independence?
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Correct answer: D — 8th
The PIB backgrounder says Census 2027 will be the 16th census in the series and the 8th since Independence.
India's first synchronous census was conducted in:
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Correct answer: B — 1881
The backgrounder says the first modern census was conducted between 1865 and 1872, not simultaneously, and the first synchronous census was held in 1881.
Consider the following statements about Census 2027: 1. The decision to include caste enumeration was taken by the Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs on 30 April 2025. 2. Its outlay is ₹11,718.24 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are stated in the PIB backgrounder of 25 April 2026.
NITI Aayog's April 2026 report 'Moving Towards Effective City Government' focuses on which category of cities?
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Correct answer: B — Million-plus cities
The report is titled 'Moving Towards Effective City Government – A Framework for Million-plus Cities' and prioritises India's million-plus cities.
Consider the following recommendations of NITI Aayog's report on million-plus cities (April 2026): 1. A directly elected Mayor with a fixed tenure, supported by an empowered Mayor-in-Council. 2. Bringing water supply, sanitation and public transport under city governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are among the report's key recommendations.
Who was appointed Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog under the Cabinet Secretariat notification of 24 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Ashok Kumar Lahiri
The notification approved Ashok Kumar Lahiri's appointment as Vice Chairperson; Rajiv Gauba, K. V. Raju and Abhay Karandikar were among the full-time members.
NITI Aayog, reconstituted in April 2026, was originally constituted through:
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Correct answer: B — A Cabinet resolution dated 1 January 2015
NITI Aayog was constituted by a Cabinet Secretariat resolution dated 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission set up by a Cabinet resolution on 15 March 1950.
Consider the following statements about the April 2026 reconstitution of NITI Aayog: 1. Rajiv Gauba and Gobardhan Das were appointed as full-time members. 2. The ex-officio members and special invitees were also replaced. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Rajiv Gauba and Gobardhan Das are among the five full-time members; the notification says ex-officio members and special invitees remain the same, so only statement 1 is correct.
The Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0 report released on 24 April 2026 rationalised the number of indicators from 516 to:
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Correct answer: B — 150
PAI 2.0 rationalised indicators from 516 to 150 and recorded participation of 97.30% of Gram Panchayats.
Provisions relating to Panchayats, given constitutional status by the 73rd Amendment Act, are contained in which Part of the Constitution of India?
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Correct answer: D — Part IX
The PIB backgrounder notes that the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 came into force in 1993 and the provisions related to Panchayats are in Part IX.
Consider the following statements made on National Panchayati Raj Day 2026: 1. The Sixteenth Finance Commission's grant for rural local bodies is nearly 84% higher than under the Fifteenth Finance Commission. 2. Basic and performance grants are split in the ratio 50:50. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The secretary said the 16th FC grant is nearly 84% higher than under the 15th FC, with an 80:20 ratio between basic and performance grants; only statement 1 is correct.
In the post-poll scrutiny conducted after the 23 April 2026 polls, Form 17A refers to the:
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Correct answer: A — Register of Voters
The ECI note describes Form 17A as the Register of Voters, scrutinised with other poll-day documents.
Consider the following statements about the Form 17A scrutiny held on 24 April 2026: 1. In West Bengal Phase I, it covered 152 Assembly constituencies and no repoll was recommended. 2. In Tamil Nadu, repolls were recommended in a few of the 75,064 polling stations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Scrutiny covered all 152 ACs of WB Phase I with no repoll; in Tamil Nadu no repoll was recommended out of 75,064 polling stations. Only statement 1 is correct.
How many Assembly constituencies of West Bengal voted in Phase I on 23 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 152
Phase I covered 152 Assembly constituencies with 1,478 candidates and 44,376 polling stations.
Bye-elections held on 23 April 2026 alongside the Tamil Nadu and West Bengal polls included Baramati and Rahuri in:
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Correct answer: C — Maharashtra
Bye-elections were held in Umreth (Gujarat) and in Baramati and Rahuri (Maharashtra).
Consider the following statements about the polls held on 23 April 2026: 1. Live webcasting was ensured in all polling stations in Tamil Nadu and West Bengal. 2. West Bengal Phase I had more polling stations than Tamil Nadu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
ECI said webcasting covered 100% of polling stations in both states; WB Phase I had 44,376 polling stations against 75,064 in Tamil Nadu, so only statement 1 is correct.
According to ECI's statistical report, the final state polling percentage in the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly election (including postal ballots) was:
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Correct answer: C — 86.03%
ECI's Statistical Report (Highlights) records a state polling percentage of 86.03%; 78.29% was the previous highest, in 2011.
How many Assembly constituencies of Tamil Nadu went to the polls on 23 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 234
All 234 Assembly constituencies of Tamil Nadu voted in a single phase on 23 April 2026.
Consider the following statements about the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly election: 1. Of the 234 constituencies, 44 are reserved for Scheduled Castes and 2 for Scheduled Tribes. 2. Before 2026, the highest poll participation in Tamil Nadu was recorded in the 2016 Assembly election. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
ECI's Highlights list 188 general, 44 SC and 2 ST seats; ECI said the previous highest participation was 78.29% in 2011, not 2016. Only statement 1 is correct.
According to ECI, total election seizures in Tamil Nadu and West Bengal up to 22 April 2026 stood at about:
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Correct answer: A — ₹1,072 crore
ECI reported total seizures of ₹1,072.13 crore in the two states, with Tamil Nadu at ₹599.24 crore and West Bengal at ₹472.89 crore.
Consider the following statements about election enforcement in Tamil Nadu and West Bengal (2026): 1. The Election Seizure Management System was activated on 26 February 2026. 2. West Bengal recorded higher total seizures than Tamil Nadu up to 22 April 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
ESMS was activated on 26 February 2026; Tamil Nadu (₹599.24 crore) recorded more than West Bengal (₹472.89 crore), so only statement 1 is correct.
Who was appointed Chief Justice of the Andhra Pradesh High Court with effect from 25 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Justice Lisa Gill
Justice Lisa Gill was appointed Chief Justice of the Andhra Pradesh High Court, succeeding Justice Dhiraj Singh Thakur, who retired on 24 April 2026.
Justice Lisa Gill, appointed Chief Justice of the Andhra Pradesh High Court in April 2026, has which parent High Court?
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Correct answer: D — Punjab and Haryana High Court
The Law Ministry notification lists her parent High Court as Punjab and Haryana.
How many delegates took part in Phase II of ECI's International Election Visitors' Programme 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 34 delegates from 17 countries
34 delegates from 17 countries, including International IDEA, took part in Phase II.
Which states/UTs did delegates visit in Phase I of the International Election Visitors' Programme 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Assam, Kerala and Puducherry
In Phase I, delegates visited Assam, Kerala and Puducherry on 8–9 April 2026; Phase II covered Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.
Who delivered the keynote address at the 18th Civil Services Day in New Delhi on 21 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Vice-President C.P. Radhakrishnan
Vice-President C.P. Radhakrishnan delivered the keynote address at Vigyan Bhawan.
Applications for the Prime Minister's Awards for Excellence in 2025 numbered:
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Correct answer: B — 2,035
Applications rose from 1,216 in 2023 to 1,588 in 2024 and 2,035 in 2025; 4,770 is the number of iGOT courses.
Consider the following statements made at the 18th Civil Services Day: 1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel described civil servants as the 'steel frame of India' while addressing probationers in Delhi 79 years earlier. 2. Average grievance resolution time on CPGRAMS has fallen from 60 days to about 12 days. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Vice-President recalled Patel's 'steel frame' address 79 years earlier, and Dr Jitendra Singh cited the fall in CPGRAMS resolution time from 60 to about 12 days.
Which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 prohibits the sale or distribution of liquor in a polling area in the 48 hours ending with the close of poll?
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Correct answer: B — Section 135C
Section 135C of the RP Act, 1951 bars sale or distribution of liquor in a polling area during the 48 hours ending with the close of poll.
Consider the following statements about ECI's dry-day directions for the 2026 Assembly elections: 1. The dry-day period also applies to the date of any repoll. 2. The counting day, 4 May 2026, is to be declared a dry day in the poll-going states/UT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: ECI said the 48-hour dry period includes the date of any repoll, and directed that 4 May 2026, the counting day, also be a dry day.
Within how many hours of being brought to a platform's notice must misleading or unlawful AI-generated election content be acted upon, as directed by ECI in 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 3 hours
ECI directed that misleading or unlawful AI-generated content be acted upon within 3 hours of notice.
Under ECI's cVIGIL system, within what stipulated time were 96.01% of complaints resolved during the 2026 Assembly elections (15 March–19 April)?
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Correct answer: A — 100 minutes
Of 3,23,099 cVIGIL complaints, 3,10,393 (96.01%) were resolved within the stipulated 100 minutes.
Consider the following statements regarding election-related provisions reiterated by ECI in April 2026: 1. Section 126 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 prohibits display of election matter in polling areas during the 48 hours before the conclusion of poll. 2. Labelling of AI-altered campaign content is optional for candidates if the content is factually accurate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Section 126 imposes the 48-hour silence period; ECI requires all synthetically generated or AI-altered campaign content to be clearly labelled, regardless of accuracy.
According to the Lok Sabha Speaker, what was the productivity of the Lok Sabha during the Budget Session that ended on 18 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — About 93%
The Speaker put Lok Sabha productivity at 93%; about 110% was the Rajya Sabha figure.
The President's address to both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the start of the first session of the year, as on 28 January 2026, is made under which provision of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: C — Article 87(1)
The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs notes that the President addressed both Houses together in terms of Article 87(1), this being the first session of the year.
Consider the following statements about the Budget Session, 2026: 1. The session had 31 sittings spread over 81 days. 2. In the Lok Sabha, 12 Government Bills were introduced and 12 were passed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: 12 Bills were introduced but 9 were passed in the Lok Sabha.
In the Lok Sabha vote of 17 April 2026 on the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, how many members voted in favour and against?
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Correct answer: A — 298 in favour, 230 against
With 528 members present, 298 voted in favour and 230 against (The Hindu, Indian Express); the Bill needed 352.
Under Article 368(2) of the Constitution, a Bill to amend the Constitution must be passed in each House by:
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Correct answer: D — A majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting
Article 368(2) requires both limbs in each House: a majority of the total membership and not less than two-thirds of members present and voting. In April 2026, 298 of 528 met the first limb but not the second (352 needed).
Consider the following statements about the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, as summarised by PRS Legislative Research: 1. It proposed raising the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha from 550 to 850, with up to 35 members from Union Territories. 2. It proposed raising the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha above 250. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: PRS notes the Bill left the Rajya Sabha maximum of 250 (Article 80) unchanged.
The existing freeze on the allocation of Lok Sabha seats among states, based on the 1971 census, was extended until the first census after 2026 by which Constitutional Amendment?
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Correct answer: C — 84th Amendment, 2001
PRS notes the 42nd Amendment (1976) froze seats on the 1971 census until the first census after 2000, and the 84th Amendment (2001) extended it until the first census after 2026.
Who was elected Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha unopposed on 17 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Harivansh
Harivansh was elected unopposed; the Chairman noted it was his third election to the office.
Consider the following statements about the election of the Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman in April 2026: 1. The election was unopposed. 2. It was Harivansh's first election to the office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Chairman said it was his election to the office for the third time.
According to ECI data up to 17 April 2026, total election-related seizures in Tamil Nadu and West Bengal crossed:
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Correct answer: C — ₹865 crore
Seizures crossed ₹865 crore: ₹438 crore in Tamil Nadu and ₹427 crore in West Bengal.
Consider the following statements about the ECI seizure figures released on 17 April 2026: 1. Tamil Nadu recorded higher total seizures than West Bengal. 2. Cash formed the largest component of the total seizures. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct (₹438 crore vs ₹427 crore). Statement 2 is wrong: freebies/other items (₹350 crore) were the largest; cash was ₹99 crore.
The motion to introduce the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026 in the Lok Sabha on 16 April 2026 was carried by what vote in the division?
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Correct answer: A — 251 to 185
The Hindu and BusinessLine report 251 in favour and 185 against at the introduction stage; 298–230 was the vote on passage on 17 April.
Under the Delimitation Bill, 2026 (as summarised by PRS), the proposed Delimitation Commission would consist of: 1. A chairperson who is or has been a Supreme Court judge 2. The Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner nominated by the CEC 3. The State Election Commissioner of the state concerned 4. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer:
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3 only
PRS lists the chairperson (serving or former SC judge), the CEC or a nominated EC, and the State Election Commissioner; the Speaker is not a member.
The Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026 proposed that the Delimitation Commission fix the number of Assembly seats at not less than the existing number. Match the UT with that minimum: 1. Puducherry – 30 2. Delhi – 70 3. Jammu and Kashmir – 90 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
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Correct answer: B — Only two
Pairs 1 and 2 are correct. PRS gives the existing figure for Jammu and Kashmir under the 2019 Reorganisation Act as 114, not 90.
Consider the following statements, based on PRS Legislative Research's analysis of the Delimitation Bills of 2026: 1. The last Delimitation Commission was constituted in 2002 and its orders were finalised in 2008. 2. The Delimitation Bill, 2026 provided that the census to be used is the latest one published when the Commission is constituted, implying the 2011 Census. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per PRS.