Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — Last 6 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
By what date were stakeholders invited to comment on the Sports Ministry's proposed amendments to criminalise organised doping (May 2026)?
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Correct answer: B — 18 June 2026
Comments and suggestions were invited during the public consultation by 18 June 2026.
Consider the following statements about the proposed anti-doping amendments (May 2026): 1. Athletes not involved in offences such as trafficking will not be criminalised merely for anti-doping rule violations or positive tests. 2. The proposals are aligned with India's commitments under the UNESCO Convention against doping in sport. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are stated: athletes remain outside criminal prosecution for rule violations alone, and the measures align with the UNESCO Convention and the WADA approach.
The proposed Indian anti-doping amendments of May 2026 are stated to be aligned with which international instrument?
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Correct answer: A — UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport
The Ministry said the measures are aligned with India's commitments under the UNESCO Convention against doping in sport and consistent with the WADA approach.
Which three new centres did UPSC add for the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Bhubaneswar, Kanpur and Meerut
UPSC introduced new centres at Bhubaneswar, Kanpur and Meerut, raising the total from 80 to 83.
Which of the new UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2026 centres received the most applications?
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Correct answer: D — Bhubaneswar
Bhubaneswar received 10,656 applications, Kanpur 6,938 and Meerut 5,902; Ghaziabad is an existing centre.
What was the theme of World Metrology Day 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Metrology: Building Trust in Policy Making
The Department of Consumer Affairs stated that the 2026 theme is 'Metrology: Building Trust in Policy Making'.
World Metrology Day is observed on 20 May to mark the anniversary of the signing of which treaty?
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Correct answer: B — The Metre Convention
The Metre Convention was signed in Paris on 20 May 1875; 2026 marked its 151st anniversary.
Which of the following states is NOT a member of the Central Zonal Council, whose 26th meeting was held in Bastar in May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Bihar
The meeting was attended by the Chief Ministers of the member states Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Bihar is not among them.
Which body organised the 26th meeting of the Central Zonal Council in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Inter-State Council Secretariat under the Ministry of Home Affairs
PIB: the meeting was organised by the Inter-State Council Secretariat, functioning under the MHA, with Chhattisgarh as host.
Under which digital initiative of the Ministry of Ayush was the Ayush Anudan Portal launched in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Ayush Grid
The Ayush Anudan Portal was developed under the Ayush Grid initiative.
What is the main purpose of the Ayush Anudan Portal launched in May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Managing funding proposals under the Ayush ministry's Central Sector Schemes
The portal streamlines the submission, processing, approval and monitoring of funding proposals under the ministry's Central Sector Schemes.
Which national initiative did Jal Shakti Minister C. R. Patil launch at the 14th HPRB meeting of the Brahmaputra Board in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — State Water Reforms Framework
Patil launched the State Water Reforms Framework (SWRF) to strengthen water governance reforms across states and UTs.
Where was the 14th meeting of the High-Powered Review Board of the Brahmaputra Board held on 19 May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Guwahati
The 14th HPRB meeting was held at Guwahati.
Who was the Presiding Officer of the Judges Inquiry Committee that submitted its report on Justice Yashwant Varma in May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Justice Aravind Kumar
Justice Aravind Kumar of the Supreme Court presided; Justice Shree Chandrashekhar and B.V. Acharya were members.
Under which law was the report of the Judges Inquiry Committee on Justice Yashwant Varma presented in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968
The report was presented in accordance with the statutory requirements under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
Consider the following statements about the Judges Inquiry Committee on Justice Yashwant Varma: 1. The committee was constituted by the Lok Sabha Speaker on 12 August 2025. 2. The committee was presided over by the Chief Justice of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Presiding Officer was Justice Aravind Kumar, a judge of the Supreme Court.
Who took oath as Chief Minister of Keralam, as congratulated by the Prime Minister on 18 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — V. D. Satheesan
PM Modi congratulated V. D. Satheesan on taking oath as Chief Minister of Keralam.
How many customs ports have been digitally integrated to facilitate import of agricultural commodities, as reviewed by the Agriculture Ministry in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 649
The ministry said all 649 customs ports have been digitally integrated to facilitate import of agricultural commodities.
Under the May 2026 reforms, what replaces the physical leaflets supplied with household pesticide products?
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Correct answer: C — QR codes on product labels
Physical leaflets have been discontinued and replaced with QR codes directly on product labels.
The houselisting field operations that began in Rajasthan, Meghalaya, Maharashtra and Jharkhand on 17 May 2026 are part of which exercise?
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Correct answer: B — Phase I of Census 2027
The Houselisting and Housing Census (HLO) is Phase I of Census 2027.
As of 17 May 2026, more than how many households had completed Census self-enumeration?
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Correct answer: D — 1.44 crore
MHA said more than 1.44 crore households had completed self-enumeration across 25 States/UTs.
Consider the following statements about Census 2027 operations as of 17 May 2026: 1. The self-enumeration facility has been introduced for the first time in Census operations. 2. Houselisting operations in Uttar Pradesh were completed between 16 April and 15 May 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: in Uttar Pradesh self-enumeration runs until 21 May and field work from 22 May to 20 June; the 16 April–15 May round covered A&N, Lakshadweep, Mizoram, Odisha, Sikkim and Delhi's NDMC and Cantonment areas.
On 17 May 2026 the Census self-enumeration facility opened in which group of States/UTs?
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Correct answer: B — Gujarat, Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh and Puducherry
Self-enumeration began on 17 May in Gujarat, J&K, Ladakh and Puducherry, open till 31 May 2026.
Which Statehood Day did Sikkim celebrate on 16 May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 51st
Vice President C.P. Radhakrishnan addressed Sikkim's 51st Statehood Day celebrations in Gangtok.
At Sikkim's Statehood Day event in May 2026, the Vice President paid tribute to which person as the first Chief Minister of Sikkim?
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Correct answer: D — Kazi Lhendup Dorjee
The Vice President paid tribute to Kazi Lhendup Dorjee, the first Chief Minister of Sikkim.
The 'Mission Sikkim Organics' initiative highlighted on Sikkim's Statehood Day 2026 is worth how much and is expected to benefit how many farmer families?
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Correct answer: A — ₹360 crore; over 66,000 families
DoNER said the ₹360 crore Mission Sikkim Organics initiative, anchored in MDoNER's ₹85 crore contribution, will benefit over 66,000 farmer families.
On which date was the Government e Marketplace Special Purpose Vehicle (GeM SPV) incorporated?
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Correct answer: D — 17 May 2017
The GeM SPV was incorporated on 17 May 2017 under the Companies Act, 2013.
What is the legal form of the GeM SPV, according to the Ministry of Commerce (May 2026)?
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Correct answer: A — A Section 8 non-profit company under the Ministry of Commerce
GeM SPV is a Section 8 non-profit company under the Ministry of Commerce, incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013.
What penalty did the CCPA impose on Motion Education Pvt. Ltd. for misleading advertisements (May 2026)?
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Correct answer: C — ₹10 lakh
CCPA imposed a ₹10 lakh penalty on Motion Education and ₹5 lakh on Career Line Coaching, Sikar.
The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA), which penalised coaching institutes in May 2026, acts under which law?
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Correct answer: B — Consumer Protection Act, 2019
The CCPA passed the orders for violations under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the law under which it functions.
From which date will only electric L5 three-wheelers be registered in Delhi under CAQM's draft direction of May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 1 January 2027
Draft Direction No. 100 mandates EV-only L5 three-wheeler registration in Delhi from 1 January 2027 (HVD districts 2028, rest of NCR 2029).
The CAQM issues directions such as those approved at its 28th meeting (May 2026) under Section 12 of which law?
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Correct answer: C — CAQM Act, 2021
The draft directions were approved under Section 12 of the CAQM Act, 2021.
What target does CAQM's Draft Direction No. 99 (May 2026) set for paddy stubble burning in the NCR states in 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Complete elimination
Draft Direction No. 99 sets a target of complete elimination of paddy stubble burning in the NCR states in 2026.
SIR Phase III of electoral rolls, ordered by the ECI on 14 May 2026, covers about how many electors?
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Correct answer: B — 36.73 crore
Over 3.94 lakh BLOs will go house to house to 36.73 crore electors in SIR Phase III.
Which of the following is NOT covered in SIR Phase III announced by the ECI in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Himachal Pradesh
Phase III covers the whole country except Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh, whose schedule will be announced later.
Consider the following statements about the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, Phase III (2026): 1. The ECI ordered it under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. 2. Enumeration begins first, on 30 May 2026, in Odisha, Mizoram, Sikkim and Manipur. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The ECI order cites Article 324 and Section 21 of the RP Act, 1950, and the house-to-house enumeration starts on 30 May in Odisha, Mizoram, Sikkim and Manipur.
N. Rangasamy, sworn in as Chief Minister of Puducherry on 13 May 2026, began which term in the post?
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Correct answer: A — Fifth
Rangasamy was sworn in for a record fifth term as Puducherry Chief Minister.
Who administered the oath of office to N. Rangasamy as Chief Minister of Puducherry on 13 May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Lieutenant Governor K. Kailashnathan
Lieutenant Governor K. Kailashnathan administered the oaths of office and secrecy at Lok Nivas, Puducherry.
Consider the following statements about Article 239A of the Constitution of India: 1. It enables Parliament, by law, to create a Legislature and/or a Council of Ministers for the Union Territory of Puducherry. 2. A law made under it is not deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Article 239A, inserted by the Constitution (Fourteenth Amendment) Act, 1962, provides for both, and clause (2) says such a law is not an amendment for Article 368.
How much was released on 13 May 2026 as the first instalment of mother sanction for 2026-27 under the CSS for infrastructure of district and subordinate courts?
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Correct answer: C — ₹401.50 crore
Arjun Ram Meghwal released ₹401.50 crore to States/UTs through PFMS as the first instalment for 2026-27.
Consider the following statements about the Centrally Sponsored Scheme for Development of Infrastructure Facilities for District and Subordinate Courts: 1. The Department of Justice has been running this effort since 1993-94. 2. Union Territories share its cost with the Centre in a 90:10 ratio. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The fund-sharing pattern is 60:40 for most states, 90:10 for north-eastern and two Himalayan states, and 100% central for UTs.
The Judicial Infrastructure Advisory Committee constituted by the Chief Justice of India on 12 May 2026 is chaired by:
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Correct answer: B — Justice Aravind Kumar
The committee was constituted under the chairmanship of Justice Aravind Kumar, Judge, Supreme Court of India.
Who administered the oath of office to Himanta Biswa Sarma as Assam Chief Minister on 12 May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Governor Lakshman Prasad Acharya
Governor Lakshman Prasad Acharya administered the oath at the Veterinary College ground, Khanapara, Guwahati.
How many seats did the BJP win on its own in the 126-member Assam Assembly in the 2026 election?
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Correct answer: D — 82
The BJP won 82 seats; with the AGP and BPF (10 each), the NDA reached 102.
Consider the following statements: 1. Under Article 164(4) of the Constitution, a Minister who for six consecutive months is not a member of the State Legislature ceases to be a Minister at the end of that period. 2. In the 2026 Assam Assembly election, the Asom Gana Parishad and the Bodoland People's Front won 10 seats each. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Article 164(4) sets the six-month limit, and the AGP and BPF won 10 seats each as BJP allies.
Under the February 2026 MoU between NCGG and Seychelles' Public Service Bureau, how many Seychellois civil servants are to be trained over three years?
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Correct answer: A — 250
The three-year agreement sets out a roadmap to train 250 Seychellois civil servants.
How many senior Seychelles officials are in the first NCGG capacity-building cohort that began on 11 May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 29
The first cohort brings together 29 high-ranking officials, including directors general and senior officers.
C. Joseph Vijay, sworn in as Tamil Nadu Chief Minister on 10 May 2026, heads which party?
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Correct answer: A — Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK)
Vijay is the president of the Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK); the VCK was among the parties that backed his government.
Who administered the oath of office to C. Joseph Vijay as Tamil Nadu Chief Minister on 10 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Governor Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar
Governor Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar administered the oath of office and secrecy; under Article 164(3) the Governor administers oaths to State ministers.
How many seats did the TVK win in the 234-member Tamil Nadu Assembly in its first election in 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 108
TVK won 108 of 234 seats, short of the majority mark of 118, and formed the government with outside support.
Which of the following parties was NOT among those that backed the TVK government in Tamil Nadu in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — AIADMK
The TVK was backed by the Congress, CPI, CPI(M), VCK and IUML; the AIADMK was not among its supporters.
Consider the following statements about Article 164 of the Constitution of India: 1. The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Governor. 2. The forms of the oaths of office and secrecy for State Ministers are set out in the Second Schedule. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Article 164(3) says the oath forms are set out in the Third Schedule; the Second Schedule deals with salaries and allowances.
Who was sworn in as the first BJP Chief Minister of West Bengal on 9 May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Suvendu Adhikari
Suvendu Adhikari took oath as Chief Minister; Dilip Ghosh, Agnimitra Paul and Nisith Pramanik were sworn in as ministers.
How many seats did the BJP win in the 294-member West Bengal Assembly in the 2026 election?
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Correct answer: D — 207
The BJP won 207 of 294 seats, while the Trinamool Congress was reduced to 80.
Where was the swearing-in of West Bengal Chief Minister Suvendu Adhikari held on 9 May 2026, and who administered the oath?
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Correct answer: A — Brigade Parade Ground, Kolkata; Governor R. N. Ravi
Governor R. N. Ravi administered the oath at the Brigade Parade Ground in Kolkata, as the Governor does for State ministers under Article 164(3).
Consider the following statements about Article 164 of the Constitution of India: 1. The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a State shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly, and shall not be less than twelve. 2. The Council of Ministers of a State is collectively responsible to the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct (Article 164(1A), added by the 91st Amendment, 2003). Under Article 164(2) the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly, not the Governor.
Which district panchayat was named Best District Panchayat under the National Panchayat Awards 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sepahijala (Tripura)
Sepahijala in Tripura won the Best District Panchayat award with ₹5 crore; Ganjam and Coimbatore followed, and Harippad was the Best Block.
How many panchayats were selected for the National Panchayat Awards 2025 announced in May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 42
42 panchayats from 17 States/UTs were selected; 34 of them were Gram Panchayats under the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar.
Consider the following statements about the National Panchayat Awards 2025: 1. Under the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar, Gram Panchayats were awarded across nine themes of Localisation of Sustainable Development Goals. 2. Karnataka won the highest number of awards. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. 34 Gram Panchayats won across the nine LSDG themes, and Karnataka led with six awards, ahead of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha with five each.
For how many Assembly constituencies did the ECI publish Index Cards and Statistical Reports after the 2026 Assembly elections and bye-elections?
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Correct answer: B — 830
Index Cards and Statistical Reports were published for all 830 Assembly constituencies that went to polls.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's publication of election data in May 2026: 1. It was the first time that Statistical Reports were published within 72 hours of the declaration of poll results. 2. A re-poll was scheduled for the Falta Assembly constituency of Tamil Nadu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The re-poll was scheduled for 144-Falta Assembly constituency of West Bengal on 21 May 2026.
Under DILRMP 3.0, reviewed by the Rural Development Minister in May 2026, what does ULPIN stand for?
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Correct answer: A — Unique Land Parcel Identification Number
ULPIN is the Unique Land Parcel Identification Number assigned after georeferencing land parcels under DILRMP 3.0.
The Ministry of Cooperation held its second Regional Conference on Cooperative Reforms in Aizawl on 8 May 2026. Where was the first conference in this series held?
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Correct answer: B — Jaipur
The first regional conference under this initiative was held in Jaipur; Aizawl hosted the second, the first ever in Mizoram.
How many downloads did the new Aadhaar App record within three months, as reported in May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Over 21 million
The new Aadhaar App crossed 21 million downloads in three months; 28 lakh is the number of mobile-number updates.
The new Aadhaar App supports hotel check-ins through QR code scanning by which category of entity?
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Correct answer: C — Offline Verification Seeking Entity (OVSE)
Hotel check-ins are supported through Offline Verification Seeking Entity (OVSE) QR code scanning.
Under the Bill approved by the Cabinet in May 2026, the number of Supreme Court judges, excluding the Chief Justice of India, will rise to:
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Correct answer: B — 37
The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026 raises the strength by four, from 33 to 37, excluding the CJI.
The Bill approved in May 2026 to raise the Supreme Court's judge strength amends which law?
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Correct answer: D — The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956
The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026 amends the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956; Parliament fixes the number by law under Article 124(1).
Consider the following statements: 1. Article 124(1) of the Constitution originally provided for a Chief Justice of India and not more than seven other judges, until Parliament by law prescribed a larger number. 2. Before the 2026 proposal, the Supreme Court's judge strength was last raised from 30 to 33 (excluding the CJI) by an amendment in 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Article 124(1) originally fixed the CJI plus up to seven judges; the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2019 raised the strength from 30 to 33.
How many of Kerala's 140 Assembly seats did the Congress-led UDF win in the results declared on 4 May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 102
The UDF won 102 seats and the LDF 35; the Congress alone won 63.
Which of the following seats did the BJP win in the 2026 Kerala Assembly election?
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Correct answer: B — Nemom
The BJP won three seats: Nemom (Rajeev Chandrasekhar), Kazhakuttam and Chathannoor; Paravur was won by V. D. Satheesan.
Consider the following statements about the 2026 Kerala Assembly election results: 1. The Indian National Congress was the single largest party with 63 seats. 2. The CPI(M) won 26 seats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: as per ECI, the Congress won 63 seats and the CPI(M) 26.
Which party emerged as the single largest party in the Tamil Nadu Assembly election results of 4 May 2026, winning 108 seats?
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Correct answer: C — Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam (TVK)
Vijay's Tamilaga Vettri Kazhagam won 108 of 234 seats on its debut; the DMK won 59 and the AIADMK 47.
What is the majority mark in the 234-member Tamil Nadu Assembly, which the TVK missed by 10 seats in May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 118
The majority mark in the 234-member House is 118; the TVK's 108 seats left it 10 short.
Consider the following statements about the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly election: 1. TVK chief Vijay won from both Perambur and Tiruchi East. 2. The TVK secured more than 45% of the votes polled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: Vijay won both Perambur and Tiruchi East, but the TVK's vote share was about 35%, not over 45%.
Which party finished second in the 2026 Tamil Nadu Assembly election with 59 seats?
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Correct answer: B — DMK
The ruling DMK won 59 seats, behind the TVK's 108; the AIADMK won 47.
How many of Assam's 126 Assembly seats did the BJP-led NDA win in the results declared on 4 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 102
The NDA won 102 of 126 seats: BJP 82, AGP 10 and BPF 10.
What is the simple majority mark in the 126-member Assam Assembly, which the BJP alone crossed by 18 seats in 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 64
The simple majority mark in the 126-member Assam Assembly is 64; the BJP's 82 seats were 18 more.
Consider the following statements about the 2026 Assam Assembly election results: 1. The Asom Gana Parishad and the Bodoland People's Front won 10 seats each. 2. Congress state president Gaurav Gogoi won the Jorhat seat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: the AGP and the BPF won 10 seats each, while Gaurav Gogoi lost in Jorhat.