Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Where did NITI Aayog hold the Regional Best Practices Seminar (South) under the Aspirational Districts and Blocks Programmes on 9 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Visakhapatnam
The seminar was held in Visakhapatnam, with officials from five southern states and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Which of the following Autonomous District Councils of Assam received Fifteenth Finance Commission grants announced on 8 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Bodoland Territorial Council
The three ADCs were the Bodoland Territorial Council, Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council and Dima Hasao Autonomous Council; the others listed are in Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura.
How much was released to Assam's rural local bodies as the second instalment of XV-FC untied grants for 2025–26?
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Correct answer: A — ₹256.60 crore
₹256.60 crore was the second untied instalment; another ₹42.70 crore of the withheld first instalment went to three ADCs, taking the total over ₹299 crore.
Consider the following statements: 1. Article 243G of the Constitution allows a State Legislature to endow Panchayats with powers for schemes, including those on matters listed in the Eleventh Schedule. 2. Fifteenth Finance Commission untied grants to rural local bodies can be used for salaries and other establishment costs. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Article 243G covers devolution to Panchayats including Eleventh Schedule matters, but XV-FC untied grants are for location-specific needs under the 29 Eleventh Schedule subjects and exclude salaries and establishment costs.
On 7 March 2026, Amit Shah launched projects worth over ₹1,132 crore in which city to mark four years of the Uttarakhand government?
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Correct answer: D — Haridwar
The projects were inaugurated and their foundation stones laid in Haridwar.
How many people in Uttarakhand were granted citizenship under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, according to Amit Shah on 7 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 162
Amit Shah said 162 people from Pakistan and Afghanistan were granted citizenship; 1,900 was the number of police constable jobs.
The Punjab Cabinet on 7 March 2026 approved a world-class university named after Sri Guru Teg Bahadur at which place?
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Correct answer: A — Sri Anandpur Sahib
The Cabinet approved the Sri Guru Teg Bahadur World Class University at Sri Anandpur Sahib and its draft Bill.
The Industrial & Business Development Policy 2026 approved by the Punjab Cabinet comes under which flagship initiative?
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Correct answer: B — Punjab Udyog Kranti
The policy and its sector-specific schemes were approved under the 'Punjab Udyog Kranti' initiative.
President Droupadi Murmu attended the 9th International Santal Conference on 7 March 2026 at which place?
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Correct answer: D — Darjeeling
The President graced the conference at Darjeeling, West Bengal.
The Ol Chiki script, used for Santali, was invented in 1925 by whom?
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Correct answer: A — Pandit Raghunath Murmu
The President said Pandit Raghunath Murmu invented Ol Chiki in 1925; its centenary was celebrated recently.
The Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act, 2003 added which languages to the Eighth Schedule?
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Correct answer: B — Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santali
The 92nd Amendment inserted Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santali, taking the Eighth Schedule to 22 languages.
Who secured the first rank in the UPSC Civil Services Examination 2025, whose result was declared on 6 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Anuj Agnihotri
Anuj Agnihotri, an MBBS graduate of AIIMS Jodhpur, topped with Medical Science as his optional subject.
How many candidates were recommended for appointment in the Civil Services Examination 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 958
UPSC recommended 958 candidates (659 men and 299 women); 2,736 had qualified for the Personality Test.
What was the optional subject of Anuj Agnihotri, the CSE 2025 topper?
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Correct answer: D — Medical Science
Anuj Agnihotri qualified with Medical Science as his optional subject.
Consider the following statements about the CSE 2025 result: 1. The top 25 candidates include 11 women. 2. The top five candidates include one woman. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the top 25 have 11 women and 14 men, and the top five have one woman (Rajeshwari Suve M, rank 2) and four men.
The Union Public Service Commission, which conducts the Civil Services Examination, is established under which Article of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: A — Article 315
Article 315 provides for a Public Service Commission for the Union and for each State. Article 148 is the CAG, 280 the Finance Commission and 324 the Election Commission.
The XV Finance Commission grants released to Mizoram on 6 March 2026 will benefit how many Village Councils?
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Correct answer: C — 816
The ₹14.80 crore first instalment of untied grants will benefit all 816 eligible Village Councils in Mizoram.
What are the names of the Census-2027 mascots unveiled on 5 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Pragati and Vikas
The mascots are 'Pragati' (female enumerator) and 'Vikas' (male enumerator).
What is the reference date for Census-2027 for most States and Union Territories?
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Correct answer: C — 1 March 2027
The reference date is 00:00 hours of 1 March 2027, except Ladakh and snow-bound areas of J&K, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand (1 October 2026).
Which organisation developed the digital platforms soft-launched for Census-2027?
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Correct answer: D — C-DAC
The Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) developed the four digital platforms.
Consider the following statements about Census-2027: 1. Respondents can self-enumerate online in 16 languages before the door-to-door survey. 2. The caste-related question will be asked in Phase 1 (Houselisting and Housing Census). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The caste-related question will be included in Phase 2 (Population Enumeration, February 2027), not in the houselisting phase.
By what date must memorandums be submitted to the 8th Central Pay Commission, as announced on 5 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 30 April 2026
Submissions will be received up to 30 April 2026, only through the online portals.
Who chairs the 8th Central Pay Commission?
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Correct answer: D — Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai
Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai is the Chairperson, with Prof. Pulak Ghosh as part-time member and Pankaj Jain as member-secretary.
Consider the following statements about the 8th Central Pay Commission: 1. It was constituted by a Government resolution dated 3 November 2025. 2. It is required to make its recommendations within 18 months of its constitution. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Commission was constituted by a resolution dated 3 November 2025 and must report within 18 months.
UIDAI's school drive for mandatory biometric updates in Aadhaar was enabled by integration with which application?
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Correct answer: D — UDISE+
UIDAI integrated with UDISE+ of the Department of School Education and Literacy, which shows children's MBU status.
Where were the 89th meeting of the NBWL Standing Committee and the 44th meeting of the Central Zoo Authority held on 28 February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Bhopal
Both meetings, chaired by Bhupender Yadav, were held in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife is a statutory body constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 2. At its 89th meeting, the Committee discussed environmental flows in the Chambal river for conserving dolphins and gharials. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB describes the SC-NBWL as a statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and lists Chambal e-flows for dolphins and gharials among the policy matters discussed.
The RAJMARG PRAVESH portal, revamped in February 2026, is used for:
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Correct answer: A — NOCs for access and utilities along National Highways
RAJMARG PRAVESH is MoRTH's portal for No Objection Certificates for access and utilities along National Highways.
On 24 February 2026, the Union Cabinet approved altering the name of which State to 'Keralam'?
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Correct answer: D — Kerala
The Cabinet approved the proposal to alter the name of Kerala to 'Keralam'.
Under which Article of the Constitution can Parliament by law alter the name of a State, as cited for Kerala's renaming?
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Correct answer: B — Article 3
Article 3 provides that Parliament may by law alter the name of any State.
When did the Kerala Legislative Assembly pass the resolution seeking to rename the State as 'Keralam'?
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Correct answer: B — 24 June 2024
The Assembly passed the resolution on 24 June 2024; the Union Cabinet approved the proposal on 24 February 2026.
Kerala Piravi Day, cited in the Kerala Assembly's 'Keralam' resolution, is observed on:
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Correct answer: C — 1 November
States were formed on a linguistic basis on 1 November 1956, which is also Kerala Piravi Day.
Consider the following statements regarding the renaming of a State: 1. A Bill under Article 3 to alter a State's name can be introduced in Parliament only on the recommendation of the President, after it has been referred to the State Legislature for its views. 2. The names of the States are recorded in the First Schedule to the Constitution. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The proviso to Article 3 requires the President's recommendation and a reference to the State Legislature; the Kerala resolution notes the name is recorded as 'Kerala' in the First Schedule.
The National Round Table Conference of the ECI and State Election Commissioners held on 24 February 2026 took place after a gap of how many years?
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Correct answer: C — 27 years
The SECs noted that the conference was held after a gap of 27 years; it is now to be held annually.
Which document was adopted by the ECI and State Election Commissioners at the round table on 24 February 2026?
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Correct answer: B — National Declaration 2026
The SECs adopted the National Declaration 2026, affirming that pure electoral rolls are the bedrock of democracy.
Consider the following statements about State Election Commissions: 1. Under Articles 243K and 243ZA, they superintend the preparation of electoral rolls and conduct of elections to Panchayats and Municipalities. 2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Chief Election Commissioner of India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Under Article 243K, the State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor and can be removed only like a High Court judge.
With how many countries did Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla constitute Parliamentary Friendship Groups in the first phase announced in February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — More than 60
The Speaker constituted Parliamentary Friendship Groups with more than 60 countries in the first phase.
The Parliamentary Friendship Groups constituted in February 2026 build on which earlier initiative, according to the Lok Sabha Secretariat?
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Correct answer: A — The multi-party outreach after Operation Sindoor
The Secretariat said the step builds on the Prime Minister's post-Operation Sindoor multi-party outreach.
Which authority imposed a ₹15 lakh penalty on a coaching institute for misleading UPSC result advertisements in February 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Central Consumer Protection Authority
The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) imposed the ₹15 lakh penalty on Vajirao & Reddy Institute.
In the 131st Mann Ki Baat (22 February 2026), the Prime Minister paid homage to Alin Sherin Abraham, from which State, whose parents donated her organs?
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Correct answer: B — Kerala
The PM paid homage to Alin Sherin Abraham from Kerala; her parents Arun Abraham and Sherin Ann John donated her organs.
Which episode of Mann Ki Baat was broadcast on 22 February 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 131st
The 131st episode of Mann Ki Baat was broadcast on 22 February 2026.
On International Mother Language Day, 21 February 2026, the Vice President released the updated Constitution of India in which two languages?
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Correct answer: D — Gujarati and Tamil
Vice President C. P. Radhakrishnan released the updated Constitution in Gujarati and Tamil, along with the 8th edition of the Legal Glossary (English–Hindi).
Which department prepared the updated Gujarati and Tamil editions of the Constitution and the Legal Glossary released on 21 February 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Legislative Department
The Legislative Department of the Ministry of Law and Justice brought out the editions; its Secretary Dr. Rajiv Mani described the work.
Consider the following statements about International Mother Language Day (21 February): 1. It traces its origin to the 1952 struggle in the then East Pakistan to protect the Bengali language against the imposition of Urdu. 2. The first Santhali edition of the Constitution was released on this Day in 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The first Santhali edition of the Constitution was released by the President on 25 December 2025, not on 21 February 2026.
CAQM's Statutory Direction No. 98 of 21 February 2026 set what uniform particulate matter emission limit for identified industries in Delhi-NCR?
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Correct answer: B — 50 mg/Nm³
The direction set a uniform PM emission standard of 50 mg/Nm³ for the targeted industries across Delhi-NCR.
From which date does CAQM's 50 mg/Nm³ particulate emission limit apply to large and medium industries in Delhi-NCR?
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Correct answer: B — 1 August 2026
Large and medium industries must comply from 1 August 2026; the remaining industries from 1 October 2026.
Consider the following statements about the Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR and Adjoining Areas (CAQM): 1. It is a statutory body under an Act of Parliament passed in 2021. 2. It was set up under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 as a sub-committee of CPCB. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. CAQM is constituted under the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021 (Act No. 29 of 2021), not as a CPCB sub-committee.
Where did Amit Shah launch the Vibrant Villages Programme-II on 20 February 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Nathanpur, Assam
VVP-II was launched at Nathanpur village in Cachar district, Assam.
How many villages are covered under the Vibrant Villages Programme-II?
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Correct answer: B — 1,954
VVP-II covers 1,954 villages in 334 blocks abutting international land borders.
Consider the following statements about the Vibrant Villages Programme-II (VVP-II): 1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with costs shared between the Centre and the states. 2. It covers villages along the northern border with China in addition to other land borders. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. VVP-II is a Central Sector Scheme with 100% Centre funding, and it excludes the northern border, which is covered by VVP-I.
Who is the Chairperson of the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, as of its 23rd Foundation Day on 19 February 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Antar Singh Arya
NCST Chairperson Antar Singh Arya attended the 23rd Foundation Day along with Members Nirupam Chakma and Dr. Asha Lakra.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes constituted?
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Correct answer: D — Article 338A
NCST is constituted under Article 338A. Article 338 covers the NCSC, Article 338B the NCBC, and Article 340 commissions on backward classes.
Consider the following statements about the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes: 1. It was created by the Constitution (Eighty-ninth Amendment) Act, 2003, which split the combined National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. 2. It is a statutory body set up under an Act of Parliament, not a constitutional body. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. NCST is a constitutional body under Article 338A, inserted by the 89th Amendment Act, 2003; it came into existence on 19 February 2004.
How many Rajya Sabha seats were covered by the biennial elections announced by the Election Commission on 18 February 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 37
The ECI announced biennial elections to 37 Rajya Sabha seats from 10 states, with polling on 16 March 2026.
In the Rajya Sabha biennial elections of March 2026, which state had the largest number of seats falling vacant?
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Correct answer: D — Maharashtra
Maharashtra had seven seats, followed by Tamil Nadu (six) and West Bengal and Bihar (five each).
Consider the following statements about the Rajya Sabha: 1. Under Article 83(1) of the Constitution, one-third of its members retire on the expiration of every second year. 2. In Rajya Sabha elections, electors may mark preferences with any pen of their choice. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Article 83(1) makes the Rajya Sabha a permanent House with one-third of members retiring every second year. The ECI directs that only the integrated violet sketch pen provided by the Returning Officer be used.
What was the theme of the Manthan Meeting of Cooperation Ministers chaired by Amit Shah in Gandhinagar on 17 February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Sahkar se Samriddhi
The Manthan Meeting was held under the theme 'Sahkar se Samriddhi'.
At the Manthan Meeting on 17 February 2026, Amit Shah said food grain storage capacity must rise about threefold. How much of this expansion did he say should come through the cooperative sector?
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Correct answer: A — Twofold
Shah said storage needs to increase nearly threefold, with twofold expansion to be undertaken by the cooperative sector.
Which report of the Committee of Parliament on Official Language was presented to the President on 16 February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 13th
Amit Shah and Committee members presented the Committee's 13th report to President Droupadi Murmu.
Under which law is the Committee of Parliament on Official Language constituted?
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Correct answer: C — Section 4 of the Official Languages Act, 1963
The Committee is constituted under Section 4 of the Official Languages Act, 1963. Section 3 provides for the continued use of English.
Consider the following statements about the Committee of Parliament on Official Language: 1. It consists of 30 members — 20 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. 2. Its members are nominated by the President. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Under Section 4(2) of the Official Languages Act, 1963, members are elected by the members of each House by proportional representation through the single transferable vote.
Which Raising Day of the Delhi Police was observed on 16 February 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 79th
Amit Shah addressed the 79th Raising Day ceremony of the Delhi Police on 16 February 2026.
Under the first phase of Delhi's Safe City Project inaugurated on 16 February 2026, which facility was dedicated to the public?
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Correct answer: D — An Integrated Command, Control, Communication and Computer Centre (C4I)
The first phase of the Safe City Project, built at about ₹857 crore, dedicated a modern C4I centre to the public.
To which port was the boat intercepted by the Indian Coast Guard and Gujarat ATS with about 203 kg of suspected narcotics on 16 February 2026 brought for investigation?
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Correct answer: B — Porbandar
The apprehended boat, contraband and two foreign crew members were brought to Porbandar.
The Toys (Quality Control) Order, 2020, under which the CCPA penalised Snapdeal in February 2026, became mandatory from:
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Correct answer: B — 1 January 2021
The Toys (Quality Control) Order, 2020 became mandatory on 1 January 2021.
Where did Amit Shah launch the CBDC-based Public Distribution System pilot on 15 February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Gandhinagar
Amit Shah launched the CBDC-based PDS in Gandhinagar, the capital of Gujarat.
Which of the following districts is NOT among the four districts covered by the CBDC-based PDS pilot in Gujarat launched on 15 February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Rajkot
The pilot covers Ahmedabad, Anand, Valsad and Surat districts.
Consider the following statements about the CBDC-based PDS pilot launched on 15 February 2026: 1. Digital food coupons are credited to beneficiaries as programmable digital rupee (e₹). 2. Its later phases are to cover the Union Territories of Chandigarh, Puducherry, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Coupons generated through the RBI are credited as programmable e₹, and subsequent phases will extend to the three Union Territories.
When did the Reserve Bank of India launch the first pilot of the retail digital rupee (e₹-R)?
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Correct answer: B — 1 December 2022
The RBI launched the first retail e₹-R pilot on 1 December 2022 with four banks in Mumbai, New Delhi, Bengaluru and Bhubaneswar.
How much did the National Biodiversity Authority release under Access and Benefit Sharing to BMCs in 24 districts, as announced on 15 February 2026?
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Correct answer: B — ₹10.40 lakh
The NBA released ₹10.40 lakh to BMCs across 24 districts. ₹145 crore is the cumulative ABS disbursement.
In the ABS release announced on 15 February 2026, a dairy farmer from which state received a benefit share for providing the Murrah buffalo breed?
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Correct answer: D — Haryana
A farmer holding a dairy farm in Haryana received an ABS amount for providing the Murrah buffalo breed.
Consider the following statements about the National Biodiversity Authority: 1. It is established under Section 8 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. 2. Its head office is in New Delhi. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Under Section 8(3) of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, the NBA's head office is at Chennai.
Where was the International Conference on Dam Safety (ICDS 2026) held on 13–14 February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — IISc Bengaluru
ICDS 2026 was held at the J.N. Tata Auditorium, Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru.
DAMCHAT, the AI-powered dam safety knowledge platform launched at ICDS 2026, was developed by:
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Correct answer: A — International Centre of Excellence for Dams, IIT Roorkee
DAMCHAT was developed by the International Centre of Excellence for Dams (ICED), IIT Roorkee. The Jal Shakti Data Management platform was developed by NWIC with support from BISAG-N.
Consider the following statements about the Dam Safety Act, 2021: 1. The National Committee on Dam Safety is chaired by the Chairman of the Central Water Commission. 2. The headquarters of the National Dam Safety Authority is in Bengaluru. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Under Section 5, the CWC Chairman is the ex officio Chairperson of the National Committee; under Section 8(3), the Authority's headquarters is in the National Capital Territory of Delhi.