Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
After the Rajasthan cabinet decision of 28 December 2024, how many districts does the State have?
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Correct answer: B — 41
CMO Rajasthan/The Hindu: Rajasthan will now have 41 districts and seven divisions.
Which of the following was among the three divisions that the Rajasthan cabinet decided not to retain in December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Sikar
CMO Rajasthan/The Hindu: the three new divisions not retained were Banswara, Pali and Sikar; Ajmer, Udaipur and Bharatpur are older divisions.
The Rajasthan cabinet's December 2024 decision on new districts was based on the recommendations of a committee headed by:
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Correct answer: A — Lalit K. Panwar
The Hindu: the decision was based on a high-level committee headed by former civil servant Lalit K. Panwar.
On 28 December 2024, the Rajasthan cabinet extended the validity of the Common Eligibility Test (CET) score to:
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Correct answer: D — Three years
CMO Rajasthan: the cabinet approved making the CET score valid for three years.
During his visit to Tripura in December 2024, Union Minister Pralhad Joshi gave in-principle approval to set up which office at Agartala?
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Correct answer: B — A regional office of the Food Corporation of India
PIB (Food and Public Distribution): Joshi accorded in-principle approval to the State government's proposal to set up a regional office of the FCI at Agartala.
As stated in the Food Ministry's release on the Agartala visit (December 2024), the Centre's free ration scheme has been extended till:
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Correct answer: D — 31 December 2028
PIB (Food and Public Distribution): the government has extended the free ration scheme till 31 December 2028.
Which edition of the PRAGATI interaction did Prime Minister Narendra Modi chair on 26 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 45th
PIB (PMO): the Prime Minister chaired the meeting of the 45th edition of PRAGATI on 26 December 2024.
Of the eight projects reviewed at the 45th PRAGATI meeting in December 2024, how many were metro projects?
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Correct answer: B — Six
PIB (PMO): the eight projects reviewed included six metro projects of urban transport and one project each in road connectivity and thermal power, with a combined cost of more than ₹1 lakh crore.
Under the Post Office Regulations, 2024, the limit for remittance through money order was raised to what amount?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,000
PIB (Ministry of Communications): the money order remittance limit was raised from ₹5,000 to ₹10,000 to help disburse social welfare scheme payments.
From which date did the Post Office Rules, 2024 and Post Office Regulations, 2024 come into force?
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Correct answer: C — 16 December 2024
PIB (Ministry of Communications): the Rules and Regulations came into force w.e.f. 16 December 2024; 24 December 2023 is when the Post Office Act, 2023 was enacted and 18 June 2024 when the Act took effect.
How many rules and regulations together make up the new subordinate legislation under the Post Office Act, 2023?
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Correct answer: B — 19 rules and 180 regulations
PIB (Ministry of Communications): the new Rules and Regulations contain 19 rules and 180 regulations, framed with the motto 'Dak Sewa Jan Sewa'.
What penalty did the CCPA impose on each of Vajirao & Reddy Institute and StudyIQ IAS in December 2024 for misleading UPSC result advertisements?
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Correct answer: D — ₹7 lakh
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹7 lakh each on Vajirao & Reddy Institute and StudyIQ IAS, and ₹1 lakh on Edge IAS.
Who headed the Central Consumer Protection Authority as Chief Commissioner when it penalised UPSC coaching institutes in December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Nidhi Khare
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the CCPA is headed by Chief Commissioner Nidhi Khare; Anupam Mishra is a Commissioner.
The CCPA found that all 617 successful candidates claimed by Vajirao & Reddy Institute for UPSC CSE 2022 had been enrolled in which course?
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Correct answer: C — Interview Guidance Programme
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the CCPA found that all the claimed 617 successful candidates were enrolled in the Interview Guidance Programme, which the advertisement did not disclose.
According to data released by the ECI on 26 December 2024, which parliamentary constituency recorded the highest voter turnout in the 2024 Lok Sabha elections?
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Correct answer: D — Dhubri
PIB (ECI): the PC with the highest turnout was Dhubri (Assam) at 92.3%.
Which parliamentary constituency recorded the lowest turnout (38.7%) in the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, as per ECI data released in December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Srinagar
PIB (ECI): the PC with the lowest turnout was Srinagar (J&K) at 38.7%, compared to 14.4% in 2019.
Which parliamentary constituency received the highest number of nominations (114) in the 2024 Lok Sabha elections?
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Correct answer: C — Malkajgiri
PIB (ECI): the PC with the highest number of nominations was Malkajgiri (Telangana) with 114.
Consider the following statements based on ECI data on the 2024 Lok Sabha elections released on 26 December 2024: 1. The turnout of female electors (65.78%) was higher than that of male electors (65.55%). 2. NOTA's vote share rose compared to the 2019 elections. 3. Puducherry had the highest share of female electors among States/UTs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 3 only
PIB (ECI): 65.78% of female electors voted against 65.55% of male electors, and Puducherry had the highest female elector share (53.03%). Statement 2 is wrong: NOTA got 0.99% in 2024, down from 1.06% in 2019.
Rajasthan announced on Good Governance Day 2024 that an Atal Gyan Kendra will be set up in every:
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Correct answer: A — Gram panchayat
Times of India and Devdiscourse (PTI): CM Bhajanlal Sharma announced that the State will open an Atal Gyan Kendra in every gram panchayat and appoint Atal Preraks.
About how much will the Rajasthan government spend on developing Atal Gyan Kendras, as announced on 25 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — ₹500 crore
Times of India and Devdiscourse (PTI): the Atal Gyan Kendras will require about ₹500 crore; ₹23,000 crore relates to a separate crop loan scheme.
What did Rajasthan decide to rename the computer rooms of government schools on Good Governance Day 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Atal Computer Rooms
Times of India and Devdiscourse (PTI): the computer rooms of government schools will be named Atal Computer Rooms, and the e-governance award renamed the Atal e-governance award.
The 'Viksit Panchayat Karmayogi' initiative launched on Good Governance Day 2024 is part of which broader campaign?
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Correct answer: D — Prashasan Gaon Ki Aur
PIB (DoPT): the 'Viksit Panchayat Karmayogi' initiative is part of the broader 'Prashasan Gaon Ki Aur' campaign.
In which States was the 'Viksit Panchayat Karmayogi' initiative piloted, as stated on 25 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Odisha, Assam, Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh
PIB (DoPT): the initiative was piloted in Odisha, Assam, Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh.
Which milestone e-learning course was introduced on the iGOT Karmayogi platform on Good Governance Day 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 1,600th
PIB (DoPT): Dr Jitendra Singh launched a new dashboard on the iGOT Karmayogi platform along with the milestone introduction of the 1,600th e-learning course.
Who launched the Rashtraparv website and mobile app on Good Governance Day, 25 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Rajesh Kumar Singh
PIB (Ministry of Defence): Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh launched the Rashtraparv website along with its mobile app on 25 December 2024.
From where can the Rashtraparv mobile app, launched in December 2024, be downloaded?
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Correct answer: A — Government App Store (M-Seva)
PIB (Ministry of Defence): the website is at rashtraparv.mod.gov.in and the mobile app can be downloaded from the Government App Store (M-Seva).
Who was appointed Governor of Manipur by the President of India on 24 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Ajay Kumar Bhalla
PIB (President's Secretariat): Ajay Kumar Bhalla was appointed Governor of Manipur in the press communique of 24 December 2024.
General (Dr) Vijay Kumar Singh (Retd.) was appointed Governor of which State on 24 December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Mizoram
PIB (President's Secretariat): General (Dr) Vijay Kumar Singh (Retd.) was appointed Governor of Mizoram.
Whose resignation as Governor of Odisha did the President of India accept on 24 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Raghubar Das
PIB (President's Secretariat): the President accepted the resignation of Raghubar Das as Governor of Odisha and appointed Dr Hari Babu Kambhampati in his place.
Consider the following statements about the gubernatorial changes announced on 24 December 2024: 1. Arif Mohammed Khan was moved from Kerala to Bihar. 2. Dr Hari Babu Kambhampati was Governor of Mizoram before being appointed to Odisha. 3. The appointments take effect from the dates the appointees assume charge. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (President's Secretariat): Arif Mohammed Khan, Governor of Kerala, was appointed Governor of Bihar; Hari Babu Kambhampati, Governor of Mizoram, was appointed to Odisha; and the appointments take effect from the dates of assuming charge. All three statements are correct.
What was the theme of National Consumer Day 2024, observed on 24 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Virtual Hearings & Digital Access to Consumer Justice
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the theme for National Consumer Day 2024 was 'Virtual Hearings & Digital Access to Consumer Justice'.
On National Consumer Day 2024, a voluntary Safety Pledge for consumer safety was signed by how many major e-commerce platforms?
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Correct answer: A — 13
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the Safety Pledge, a voluntary commitment for ensuring consumer safety, was signed by 13 major e-commerce platforms.
On National Consumer Day 2024, an Organic Food Testing Laboratory was inaugurated at the National Test House in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Guwahati
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the Minister inaugurated the Organic Food Testing Laboratory at National Test House, Guwahati, and a Low Voltage Switch Gear Testing Facility at National Test House, Mumbai.
How much was released to Uttar Pradesh as the second instalment of XV Finance Commission untied grants for rural local bodies (2024-25), as announced on 24 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,598.80 crore
PIB (Panchayati Raj): Uttar Pradesh received ₹1,598.80 crore as the second instalment of untied grants; ₹446.49 crore went to Andhra Pradesh.
XV Finance Commission untied grants to Panchayati Raj Institutions can be used for location-specific needs under the 29 subjects listed in which Schedule of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: C — Eleventh Schedule
PIB (Panchayati Raj): untied grants are used for location-specific felt needs under the 29 subjects enshrined in the Eleventh Schedule, except salaries and establishment costs.
Consider the following statements about XV Finance Commission grants to rural local bodies, as explained by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj in December 2024: 1. Tied grants can be used for sanitation and maintenance of ODF status. 2. Tied grants can be used for drinking water supply, rainwater harvesting and water recycling. 3. Untied grants can be used to pay salaries of panchayat staff. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Panchayati Raj): tied grants are for sanitation/ODF status and for drinking water, rainwater harvesting and water recycling; untied grants exclude salaries and other establishment costs, so statement 3 is wrong.
The revised detention policy notified by the Centre in December 2024 under the RTE rules applies to students of which grades?
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Correct answer: B — Grades 5 and 8
PIB (Ministry of Education): the revised "Detention Policy" applies to students in Grades 5 and 8 of schools run by the Central Government or by UTs without a legislature.
Under the RTE (Amendment) Rules, 2024, within what period of the declaration of results must a student who fails the annual examination get a re-examination?
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Correct answer: C — Two months
PIB (Ministry of Education): a student who fails to meet the promotion criteria gets additional instruction and a re-examination within two months of the declaration of results.
Consider the following statements about the RTE (Amendment) Rules, 2024: 1. They apply to schools established, owned or controlled by the Central Government or by the administrator of a UT having no legislature. 2. They allow a child to be expelled from school before completing elementary education. 3. They were notified through G.S.R. 777(E) dated 21 December 2024. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Ministry of Education): statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong because the amendment reinforces that no child shall be expelled from school until the completion of elementary education.
Who was appointed Chief Justice of the Himachal Pradesh High Court on 23 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Justice G.S. Sandhawalia
PIB (Ministry of Law and Justice): Justice G.S. Sandhawalia, judge of the Punjab and Haryana High Court, was appointed Chief Justice of the Himachal Pradesh High Court.
Justice Guhanathan Narendar, a judge of the Andhra Pradesh High Court, was appointed Chief Justice of which High Court in December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Uttarakhand High Court
PIB (Ministry of Law and Justice): Justice Guhanathan Narendar was appointed Chief Justice of the Uttarakhand High Court.
Under TRAI's Telecom Consumers Protection (Twelfth Amendment) Regulations, 2024, the validity cap for Special Tariff Vouchers and Combo Vouchers was raised to how many days?
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Correct answer: C — 365 days
PIB (TRAI): the cap on validity period for STVs and Combo Vouchers was increased from 90 days to 365 days.
Which of the following did TRAI mandate through its December 2024 amendment to the Telecom Consumers Protection Regulations?
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Correct answer: A — A separate Special Tariff Voucher for voice and SMS
PIB (TRAI): the regulations mandate a separate STV for voice and SMS. Colour coding was done away with, and the reservation of ₹10 and its multiples for top-up vouchers was removed.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's December 2024 changes to voucher rules: 1. Colour coding of vouchers was done away with. 2. Telecom operators no longer need to offer any ₹10 top-up voucher. 3. The changes followed a consultation paper released on 26 July 2024. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB (TRAI): statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong because the mandate of at least one ₹10 top-up voucher is retained.
How many appointment letters did Prime Minister Narendra Modi distribute at the Rozgar Mela on 23 December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — More than 71,000
PIB (PMO): the Prime Minister distributed more than 71,000 appointment letters to newly appointed recruits via video conferencing on 23 December 2024.
At how many locations across the country was the Rozgar Mela of 23 December 2024 held?
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Correct answer: A — 45
PIB (PMO): the Rozgar Mela was held at 45 locations across the country.
At the Rozgar Mela of 23 December 2024, the Prime Minister said that around how many permanent government jobs had been offered in the previous one and a half years?
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Correct answer: B — 10 lakh
PIB (PMO): the Prime Minister said that in the last one and a half years, around 10 lakh permanent government jobs had been offered.
What penalty did the CCPA impose on Shubhra Ranjan IAS Study in December 2024 for misleading UPSC CSE 2023 advertisements?
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Correct answer: C — ₹2 lakh
PIB (Department of Consumer Affairs): the CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹2 lakh on Shubhra Ranjan IAS Study for misleading advertisements about UPSC CSE 2023 results.
Under which law did the Central Consumer Protection Authority act against Shubhra Ranjan IAS Study in December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Consumer Protection Act, 2019
PIB (Department of Consumer Affairs): the order was issued in view of violation of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, by the CCPA headed by Chief Commissioner Nidhi Khare.
Consider the following statements about the CCPA order against Shubhra Ranjan IAS Study in December 2024: 1. The institute's advertisement claimed '13 students in Top 100' in UPSC CSE 2023. 2. The CCPA found that terms such as 'Shubhra Ranjan IAS' gave a deceptive impression that Shubhra Ranjan is or was an IAS officer. 3. The penalty was imposed under the Information Technology Act, 2000. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Department of Consumer Affairs): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because the order was issued for violation of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
To what rate did the 55th GST Council (December 2024) recommend reducing GST on Fortified Rice Kernel (FRK)?
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Correct answer: A — 5%
PIB (Finance Ministry): the 55th GST Council recommended reducing the GST rate on Fortified Rice Kernel (FRK), classifiable under 1904, to 5%.
The 55th GST Council recommended raising the GST rate on the sale of all old and used vehicles, including EVs (other than those already at 18%), from 12% to:
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Correct answer: C — 18%
PIB (Finance Ministry): the Council recommended increasing the GST rate from 12% to 18% on the sale of all old and used vehicles, including EVs, other than those already specified at 18%.
According to the 55th GST Council's clarification, Autoclaved Aerated Concrete (ACC) blocks containing more than 50% fly ash attract GST at:
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Correct answer: B — 12%
PIB (Finance Ministry): the Council clarified that ACC blocks containing more than 50% fly ash content fall under HS 6815 and attract 12% GST.
Consider the following recommendations of the 55th GST Council held in Jaisalmer in December 2024: 1. Gene therapy to be fully exempted from GST. 2. Contributions by general insurance companies from third-party motor premiums to the Motor Vehicle Accident Fund to be exempted. 3. The new rule linking the GST rate on restaurant services in hotels to the actual value of supply of rooms to take effect from 1 January 2025. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Finance Ministry): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because the changes to restaurant services in hotels are to be effective from 1 April 2025 (01.04.2025).
Where was the 72nd Plenary Session of the North Eastern Council held on 21 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Agartala
PIB (MHA): Union Home Minister Amit Shah addressed the 72nd Plenary Session of the North Eastern Council (NEC) in Agartala, Tripura, on 21 December 2024.
At the 72nd NEC Plenary, the Union Home Minister said how many insurgents had surrendered in the North East in the last 10 years?
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Correct answer: A — 10,574
PIB (MHA): Amit Shah said that in the last 10 years 10,574 insurgents had surrendered, alongside a 71% reduction in violent incidents and an 86% decrease in civilian deaths in the North East.
At the 12th NESAC Society meeting in Agartala (December 2024), how many waterways were said to have been built with the help of NESAC?
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Correct answer: B — 20
PIB (MHA): at the 12th meeting of the North Eastern Space Applications Centre (NESAC) Society, it was stated that 20 waterways have been built with the help of NESAC.
What was the approximate productivity of the Lok Sabha in the Winter Session 2024, according to the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs?
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Correct answer: D — 54.5%
PIB (Parliamentary Affairs): the productivity of the Lok Sabha was approximately 54.5% and that of the Rajya Sabha approximately 40%.
Which Bill was passed by both Houses of Parliament during the Winter Session 2024?
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Correct answer: B — The Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak, 2024
PIB (Parliamentary Affairs): one Bill, 'The Bhartiya Vayuyaan Vidheyak, 2024', which re-enacts the Aircraft Act, 1934, was passed by both Houses during the session.
Consider the following statements about the Winter Session 2024 of Parliament: 1. It began on 25 November 2024 and was adjourned sine die on 20 December 2024. 2. The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Ninth Amendment) Bill, 2024 was referred to a Joint Parliamentary Committee on 20 December 2024. 3. The Rajya Sabha held more sittings than the Lok Sabha during the session. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Parliamentary Affairs): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because the session had 20 sittings of the Lok Sabha and 19 of the Rajya Sabha.
Where was the 61st Raising Day function of the Sashastra Seema Bal held on 20 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Siliguri
PIB (MHA): Union Home Minister Amit Shah attended the 61st Raising Day function of the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) at Siliguri in West Bengal as Chief Guest.
The Sashastra Seema Bal guards India's borders with which countries?
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Correct answer: D — Nepal and Bhutan
PIB (MHA): under the 'one border, one force' policy, SSB was given responsibility for vigilance and security of the borders with Nepal and Bhutan.
From which date did access providers start rejecting commercial SMS traffic sent through unregistered paths, as announced by TRAI in December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 11 December 2024
PIB (TRAI): effective 11 December 2024, SMS traffic sent through unregistered paths is being rejected.
TRAI's commercial SMS traceability framework is built on which technology platform?
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Correct answer: D — Blockchain-based Distributed Ledger Technology
PIB (TRAI): the traceability of commercial messages is implemented on the blockchain-based Distributed Ledger Technology (DLT) platform.
Till what date did EPFO give employers a final opportunity to upload wage details for pending applications for pension on higher wages?
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Correct answer: C — 31 January 2025
PIB (Labour): EPFO gave a final opportunity till 31 January 2025 to employers to upload wage details for over 3.1 lakh pending applications.
EPFO's facility for pension on higher wages was provided in compliance with a Supreme Court order of which date?
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Correct answer: B — 4 November 2022
PIB (Labour): the online facility for Validation of Options/Joint Options was made available in compliance with the Supreme Court order dated 4 November 2022.
How many applications for Validation of Option/Joint Options for pension on higher wages did EPFO receive by the extended deadline of 11 July 2023?
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Correct answer: A — 17.49 lakh
PIB (Labour): a total of 17.49 lakh applications for Validation of Option/Joint Options were received by 11 July 2023.
Along with the Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Ninth Amendment) Bill, 2024, which other Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 17 December 2024 for simultaneous elections?
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Correct answer: B — Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024
PIB (Parliamentary Affairs): the Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Ninth Amendment) Bill, 2024 and the Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024 were introduced in the Lok Sabha on 17 December 2024.
Who headed the High-Level Committee on Simultaneous Elections whose recommendations were accepted by the Union Cabinet on 18 September 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Ram Nath Kovind
PIB (Law and Justice): the High-Level Committee on Simultaneous Elections was headed by former President Ram Nath Kovind; its recommendations were accepted by the Union Cabinet on 18 September 2024.
Under the High-Level Committee's phased approach to simultaneous elections, elections to municipalities and panchayats are to be synchronised with Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections within how many days?
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Correct answer: A — 100 days
PIB (Law and Justice): Phase 1 synchronises Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections; Phase 2 synchronises elections for municipalities and panchayats with them within 100 days.
Who was the CBIC Chairperson who launched four citizen-centric initiatives on 17 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Sanjay Kumar Agarwal
PIB (Finance): Sanjay Kumar Agarwal, Chairperson, CBIC, launched the initiatives in the presence of all Board members.
Which of the following was NOT among the four initiatives launched by CBIC on 17 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Faceless customs assessment
PIB (Finance): the four initiatives were the revised Citizen's Charter, the revamped Citizen's Corner, the 'Ease of Doing Business' tab and CBIC Archives. Faceless customs assessment was not among them.
Which body took up the development of a National Wildlife Health Policy through a stakeholder consultation in December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Central Zoo Authority
PIB (MoEFCC): the Central Zoo Authority, under the aegis of MoEFCC, took up the development of the National Wildlife Health Policy at a consultative workshop on 17 December 2024.
Consider the following statements about the proposed National Wildlife Health Policy: 1. It covers the health of both captive and free-ranging wildlife. 2. It aims to integrate wildlife health with public health and domestic animal health management. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MoEFCC): the proposed policy aims at a comprehensive framework for safeguarding wildlife integrated with public health and domestic animal health management, and recognises the health of captive and free-ranging wildlife. Both statements are correct.
How many ministers took oath at Raj Bhavan, Nagpur, on 15 December 2024 in the first expansion of the Fadnavis-led Maharashtra ministry?
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Correct answer: C — 39
Governor C P Radhakrishnan administered the oath to 39 ministers, 33 of Cabinet rank and six ministers of state, taking the ministry's strength to 42.
The Maharashtra cabinet swearing-in at Raj Bhavan, Nagpur, on 15 December 2024 was the first there in 33 years. The previous one was held in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1991
The last swearing-in at Raj Bhavan in Nagpur, the State's second capital, was during the Sudhakarrao Naik government in 1991.
What was the overarching theme of the fourth National Conference of Chief Secretaries held in Delhi from 13 to 15 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Promoting Entrepreneurship, Employment and Skilling – Leveraging the Demographic Dividend
PIB (PMO): the conference included discussions around the overarching theme of 'Promoting Entrepreneurship, Employment and Skilling – Leveraging the Demographic Dividend'.
At the National Conference of Chief Secretaries in December 2024, the Prime Minister directed States to explore Viability Gap Funding for which purpose?
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Correct answer: C — Recycling of e-waste
PIB (PMO): the PM directed the States to explore concepts of Viability Gap Funding for recycling of e-waste, since digital waste will increase in a technology-driven society.
How many resolutions did PM Narendra Modi present in the Lok Sabha on 14 December 2024 during the special discussion on 75 years of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: C — 11
Inspired by the spirit of the Constitution, the Prime Minister presented 11 resolutions for India's future.
What was the first of the resolutions presented by PM Modi in the Lok Sabha on 14 December 2024 on the 75th anniversary of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: D — Citizens and government must fulfil their duties
The first resolution was that whether citizens or the government, all must fulfil their duties.
The Indian Posts & Telecommunications Accounts and Finance Service (IP&TAFS), which marked its 50th Foundation Day on 14 December 2024, was established in:
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Correct answer: A — 1974
PIB (Communications): since its establishment in 1974, IP&TAFS has been at the forefront of India's telecommunications and postal financial landscape.
The Department of Telecommunications' SAMPANN portal, lauded at the IP&TAFS 50th Foundation Day, is used for:
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Correct answer: D — Pension disbursement
PIB (Communications): IP&TAFS oversees disbursement of DoT pensions through the cloud-based SAMPANN portal; revenue assurance is handled through the separate SARAS portal.