Economy Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
With which country/territory does India have a Mutual Recognition Agreement (MRA) for organic products, as stated by APEDA in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Taiwan
PIB (27 July 2025): NPOP crop standards are recognised by the European Commission and Switzerland and accepted by Great Britain; there is an MRA for organic products with Taiwan.
Consider the following statements about the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP): 1. It was launched in 2001 by the Department of Commerce, with APEDA as its Secretariat. 2. Grower group certification under it began in 2005 for small and marginal farmers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB: NPOP was launched in 2001 by the Department of Commerce, APEDA is its Secretariat, and grower group certification was launched in 2005. Both correct.
Alstom's Savli facility, reviewed by Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw on 27 July 2025, is located in which district?
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Correct answer: C — Vadodara
PIB (27 July 2025): Ashwini Vaishnaw visited Alstom's Savli facility in Vadodara, Gujarat.
As per the Railway Ministry (27 July 2025), how many bogies has Alstom exported from India?
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Correct answer: B — Over 3,800
PIB: Alstom exports 3,800+ bogies and 4,000+ flatpacks (modules) from India.
What was the value of the Line of Credit extended by India to Maldives during PM Modi's State Visit in July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹4,850 crore
PIB List of Outcomes: extension of a Line of Credit of INR 4,850 crore to Maldives.
Which Indian entity signed a network-to-network agreement with the Maldives Monetary Authority on UPI in July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — NPCI International Payment Limited (NIPL)
PIB List of Outcomes: Network-to-Network Agreement between India's NPCI International Payment Limited (NIPL) and Maldives Monetary Authority (MMA) on UPI in Maldives.
The India-Maldives Joint Vision whose implementation PM Modi and President Muizzu reviewed on 25 July 2025 is titled:
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Correct answer: C — Comprehensive Economic and Maritime Security Partnership
PIB (25 July 2025): the leaders took stock of the India-Maldives Joint Vision for a 'Comprehensive Economic and Maritime Security Partnership', adopted during President Muizzu's State Visit to India in October 2024.
Consider the following outcomes of PM Modi's State Visit to Maldives (July 2025): 1. Launch of India-Maldives Free Trade Agreement negotiations. 2. An MoU on recognition of the Indian Pharmacopoeia by Maldives. 3. An amendatory agreement reducing Maldives' annual debt repayment obligations on GoI-funded Lines of Credit. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB List of Outcomes lists the launch of IMFTA negotiations, the MoU on recognition of Indian Pharmacopoeia, and the amendatory agreement on reducing annual debt repayment obligations. All correct.
How many social housing units in Hulhumale, built under India's Buyers' Credit facilities, were handed over during PM Modi's Maldives visit (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 3,300
PIB List of Outcomes: handing-over of 3,300 social housing units in Hulhumale under India's Buyers' Credit facilities.
Which body administers the Atal Pension Yojana, whose gross enrolments crossed 8 crore in July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — PFRDA
PIB (25 July 2025): APY, a flagship social security scheme administered by PFRDA, surpassed 8 crore gross enrolments.
What is the eligible entry age for the Atal Pension Yojana?
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Correct answer: B — 18-40 years
PIB: APY is open to all Indian citizens between 18-40 years, except those who are or have been income tax payers.
Under what name did the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme come into effect from 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana
PIB (25 July 2025): the ELI Scheme will come into effect from 1 August 2025 as the 'PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PM-VBRY)'.
What is the outlay of the PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana?
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Correct answer: C — ₹99,446 crore
PIB: with an outlay of ₹99,446 crore, PM-VBRY aims to incentivise the creation of more than 3.5 crore jobs over 2 years.
Consider the following statements about PM-VBRY: 1. Part A offers first-time EPFO-registered employees one month's EPF wage up to ₹15,000 in two instalments. 2. Part B gives employers up to ₹3,000 per month for two years for each additional employee with sustained employment of at least six months. 3. Benefits apply to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (25 July 2025): Part A gives one month EPF wage up to ₹15,000 in two instalments; Part B gives employers up to ₹3,000/month for two years per additional employee sustained for six months; benefits apply to jobs created between 1 Aug 2025 and 31 Jul 2027. All correct.
Where is the third round of India-New Zealand FTA negotiations scheduled, after the second round concluded on 25 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — New Zealand, September 2025
PIB (25 July 2025): the Third Round of negotiations is scheduled to be held in New Zealand in September 2025.
Who signed the India-UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement on behalf of India on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Piyush Goyal
PIB (24 July 2025): the agreement was signed by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal and UK Secretary of State for Business and Trade Jonathan Reynolds, in the presence of the two Prime Ministers.
Under the India-UK CETA, zero-duty access is available on what share of tariff lines?
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Correct answer: A — 99%
PIB: zero-duty access on 99% of tariff lines, covering nearly 100% of the trade value.
The signing of the India-UK CETA on 24 July 2025 followed the conclusion of negotiations announced on:
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Correct answer: D — 6 May 2025
PIB (24 July 2025): the signing of the India-UK CETA follows the successful conclusion of negotiations announced on 6 May 2025.
Consider the following statements about the India-UK CETA (July 2025): 1. India-UK bilateral trade stands at nearly USD 56 billion, with a goal to double it by 2030. 2. The Double Contribution Convention will exempt Indian workers and their employers from UK social security contributions for three years. 3. The agreement was signed by the two Prime Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB: trade is nearly USD 56 billion with a goal to double by 2030, and the DCC will exempt Indian workers and employers from UK social security contributions for three years. The agreement was signed by Piyush Goyal and Jonathan Reynolds in the presence of the two PMs, so 3 is wrong.
Which UK minister signed the India-UK CETA on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jonathan Reynolds, Secretary of State for Business and Trade
PIB: the agreement was signed by Jonathan Reynolds, Secretary of State for Business and Trade; Rachel Reeves was present.
Under the DoP-NIPL initiative announced on 24 July 2025, UPI is to be integrated with which platform for inward remittances?
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Correct answer: D — Universal Postal Union (UPU) Interconnection Platform
PIB (24 July 2025): the partnership will leverage UPI and the Universal Postal Union (UPU) Interconnection Platform to create a remittance channel for the Indian diaspora.
What is the railway outlay for infrastructure and safety works in Bihar for 2025-26, as stated on 23 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹10,066 crore
PIB (23 July 2025): the outlay for Bihar is ₹10,066 crore in 2025-26, nearly 9 times the ₹1,132 crore per year of 2009-14.
How many of the 14 Amrit Bharat Express services in India cater to Bihar, as per the Railway Ministry (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 10
PIB: 10 out of 14 Amrit Bharat Express services in India cater to Bihar.
Which of the following recently completed rail bridges in Bihar is the longest, as per the Railway Ministry's data (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: A — Patna Bridge (40 km)
PIB (23 July 2025): Munger Bridge 19 km (₹2,774 crore), Kosi Bridge 22 km (₹516 crore), Patna Bridge 40 km (₹3,555 crore). The Patna Bridge project is the longest at 40 km.
Who assumed charge as Chairperson of the National Financial Reporting Authority on 23 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nitin Gupta
PIB (24 July 2025): Nitin Gupta, IRS (IT:86) (Retd.), assumed charge as Chairperson, NFRA on 23 July 2025.
Before heading NFRA, Nitin Gupta served as Chairman of which body from June 2022 to June 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Central Board of Direct Taxes
PIB: Nitin Gupta earlier served as Chairman, Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) from June 2022 to June 2024.
NFRA, whose new Chairperson and Full-Time Members took oath on 23 July 2025, functions under which Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of Corporate Affairs
PIB (Ministry of Corporate Affairs, 24 July 2025): the Secretary, Ministry of Corporate Affairs administered the oaths to the NFRA Chairperson and Full-Time Members at a ceremony held in the Ministry on 23.07.2025.
Which category of intellectual property recorded the highest growth in filings between 2020-21 and 2024-25, as per the Commerce Ministry (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — Geographical Indications
PIB (22 July 2025): GI saw the highest growth at 380%, followed by Designs (266%) and Patents (180%).
By what percentage did total IP filings by Indian citizens rise from 2020-21 to 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 44%
PIB: IP filings increased by 44%, from 4,77,533 in 2020-21 to 6,89,991 in 2024-25.
Preparations for Census 2027 began with a gazette notification expressing the Government's intent to conduct the Population Census. That notification is dated:
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Correct answer: D — 16 June 2025
PIB (MHA, 22 July 2025): the preparation for Census 2027 started with the publication of the gazette notification dated 16.06.2025.
Which portal will be used for management and monitoring of Census 2027 activities, as discussed at the July 2025 conference?
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Correct answer: C — CMMS (Census Management and Monitoring System)
PIB: the conference discussed management and monitoring of census activities through the Census Management and Monitoring System (CMMS) portal.
What was the gross NPA ratio of public sector banks as of 31 March 2025, as per the Finance Ministry (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 2.58%
PIB (22 July 2025): gross NPAs of PSBs reduced from 9.11% (March 2021) to 2.58% (March 2025); 3.47% was March 2024.
As part of NPA recovery measures, the pecuniary jurisdiction of Debt Recovery Tribunals was raised from ₹10 lakh to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹20 lakh
PIB: the pecuniary jurisdiction of DRTs was increased from ₹10 lakh to ₹20 lakh to let them focus on high-value cases.
According to EPFO's provisional payroll data, what was the net addition of members in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 20.06 lakh
PIB (Labour): EPFO recorded a net addition of 20.06 lakh members in May 2025, the highest since April 2018; 9.42 lakh was the number of new subscribers.
Which state led net payroll additions in EPFO's May 2025 data, with 20.33 percent of the total?
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Correct answer: D — Maharashtra
PIB: Maharashtra led by adding 20.33% of net payroll during the month.
By how much did the Index of Eight Core Industries grow in June 2025 over June 2024 (provisional)?
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Correct answer: B — 1.7 percent
PIB (Commerce and Industry): the combined ICI increased by 1.7 percent (provisional) in June 2025; 1.2 percent was the final figure for May 2025.
The eight core industries together carry what share of the weight of items in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
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Correct answer: C — 40.27 percent
PIB: the Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the IIP.
After Phase-IV amalgamation under 'One State-One RRB', how many Regional Rural Banks remain with effect from 1 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 28
PIB (Finance): Phase-IV amalgamation reduced RRBs from 43 to 28 w.e.f. 1 May 2025, in 26 states and 2 UTs.
Consider the following statements about the consolidation of Regional Rural Banks: 1. Phase-I amalgamation (2005-2010) reduced the number of RRBs from 196 to 82. 2. Phase-IV amalgamation reduced the number of RRBs from 56 to 43. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB: Phase-I cut RRBs from 196 to 82, so 1 is correct. The 56-to-43 reduction was Phase-III (by end-March 2021); Phase-IV cut them from 43 to 28, so 2 is wrong.
SAIL has supplied over 31,000 tonnes of steel to which under-construction tunnel that will link Srinagar and Leh via Dras and Kargil?
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Correct answer: B — Zojila Tunnel
PIB (Steel): SAIL is the single largest steel supplier to the Zojila Tunnel, which will provide all-weather connectivity between Srinagar and Leh via Dras and Kargil.
The Uttarakhand Investment Festival 2025, addressed by Amit Shah on 19 July 2025, was organised to mark the realisation of investment worth how much in the state?
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Correct answer: D — Over Rs 1 lakh crore
PIB (MHA): the festival was organised on the realisation of over Rs 1 lakh crore of investment in Uttarakhand; Rs 3.56 lakh crore was the value of MoUs at the 2023 Global Investors Summit.
At the Uttarakhand Investment Festival 2025, Amit Shah inaugurated and laid foundation stones for state government works worth how much?
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Correct answer: A — Rs 1,271 crore
PIB (MHA): Shah inaugurated and laid foundation stones of various Uttarakhand Government development works worth Rs 1,271 crore.
According to Amit Shah, MoUs worth how much were reported at Uttarakhand's 2023 Global Investors Summit?
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Correct answer: B — Rs 3.56 lakh crore
PIB (MHA): Shah said that at the 2023 Global Investors Summit, Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami informed him that the state had received MoUs worth Rs 3.56 lakh crore.
According to Union Minister Dr Jitendra Singh (Patna, 19 July 2025), around how many startups in India are women-led?
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Correct answer: C — 76,000
PIB (DoPT): Dr Jitendra Singh said around 76,000 startups in India today are women-led, a large number of them from Tier 2 and Tier 3 towns.
Which app did Dr Jitendra Singh launch at the 'Viksit Bihar' women's participation conference in Patna on 19 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jeevika E-Learning Management System App
PIB (DoPT): the minister launched the Jeevika E-Learning Management System App, aimed at providing accessible learning for women.
The Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers and Rural Labourers (CPI-AL/RL) released in July 2025 uses which base year?
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Correct answer: B — 2019=100
PIB (Labour): the Labour Bureau has revised the base year of CPI-AL and CPI-RL to 2019=100.
Consider the following statements about CPI-AL and CPI-RL for June 2025: 1. Both indices stood at 134 points. 2. The revised series covers 20 states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Labour): CPI-AL and CPI-RL for June 2025 stand at 134 points each, so 1 is correct; the revised series covers 34 states/UTs as against 20 states in the old series, so 2 is wrong.
Urja Varta 2025, held at Bharat Mandapam on 17 July 2025, was organised by which body?
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Correct answer: B — Directorate General of Hydrocarbons
PIB (MoPNG): Urja Varta 2025 was organised by the DGH under the patronage of the MoPNG.
At Urja Varta 2025, the Petroleum Minister said India had expanded its crude oil import sources from:
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Correct answer: D — 27 to 40 countries
PIB (MoPNG): Shri Puri stated that India had proactively expanded its crude import sources from 27 to 40 countries.
Consider the following statements about Urja Varta 2025: 1. It was the first edition of the upstream oil and gas conclave. 2. The India Hydrocarbon Outlook 2024-25 released there is the 32nd edition of DGH's flagship report. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
PIB (MoPNG): the event was the second edition of Urja Varta, so 1 is wrong; the India Hydrocarbon Outlook 2024-25 is the 32nd edition of DGH's flagship report, so 2 is correct.
In which city did L&T hand over the first set of LCA Mk1A wing assemblies to HAL on 17 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Coimbatore
PIB (MoD): the first set of wing assemblies for LCA Mk1A, produced by L&T, was handed over to HAL in Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu on July 17, 2025.
As per the L&T official at the handover, how many LCA Mk1A wing sets will L&T supply annually initially, and to what level does it plan to scale up?
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Correct answer: C — 4 sets, scaling up to 12
PIB (MoD): L&T's Arun Ramchandani said L&T is set to supply four wing sets annually, with plans to scale up to 12 sets per annum.
Match the LCA Mk1A structural module with its private-sector supplier as listed by the Ministry of Defence: 1. Centre fuselage assembly 2. Fin & rudder assemblies 3. Air intake assemblies
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Correct answer: B — 1-VEM Technologies, 2-Tata Advanced Systems, 3-Lakshmi Machine Works
PIB (MoD): the LCA Tejas Division has received Air Intake Assemblies from Lakshmi Machine Works, Rear fuselage from Alpha Tocol, Fin & Rudder from Tata Advanced Systems and Centre Fuselage from VEM Technologies.
The Department of Posts signed an MoU on 17 July 2025 with which body for KYC verification of mutual fund investors?
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Correct answer: C — Association of Mutual Funds in India
PIB (Ministry of Communications): the Department of Posts and the Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI) signed the MoU in Mumbai on July 17, 2025.
Under the DoP–AMFI MoU of 17 July 2025, KYC verification services will be provided through a network of over how many post offices?
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Correct answer: D — 1.64 lakh
PIB (Ministry of Communications): DoP will provide KYC verification and document collection services through its network of over 1.64 lakh post offices.
Which ministry initiated the formulation of the Automotive Mission Plan 2047 (AMP 2047), whose sub-committees held their inaugural meeting in July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Heavy Industries
PIB (MHI): the Ministry of Heavy Industries has initiated the formulation of AMP 2047; the Road Transport, Commerce and Power ministries were among those represented at the meeting.
The CCEA on 16 July 2025 allowed NLC India Limited to invest how much in its subsidiary NLC India Renewables Limited, exempt from Navratna investment guidelines?
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Correct answer: B — ₹7,000 crore
PIB (CCEA): the exemption enables NLCIL to invest Rs 7,000 crore in its wholly owned subsidiary NIRL. (₹7,500 crore and ₹20,000 crore relate to NTPC's delegation approved the same day.)
The NLCIL investment approved on 16 July 2025 was also exempted from which ceiling stipulated by the Department of Public Enterprises for CPSE investment in JVs and subsidiaries?
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Correct answer: C — 30% of net worth
PIB (CCEA): the investment is further exempted from the 30% net worth ceiling stipulated by DPE for overall investment by CPSEs in JVs and subsidiaries.
The enhanced delegation granted to NTPC by the CCEA on 16 July 2025 for renewable energy investment raised the limit to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹20,000 crore
PIB (CCEA): NTPC's investment in NGEL and onward in NREL and other JVs/subsidiaries was allowed beyond the earlier approved limit of Rs 7,500 crore up to Rs 20,000 crore.
NTPC's enhanced investment delegation approved in July 2025 is aimed at achieving how much renewable energy capacity by 2032?
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Correct answer: B — 60 GW
PIB (CCEA): the delegation is for RE capacity addition to achieve 60 GW renewable energy capacity by 2032. (32 GW by 2047 is NLCIL's target.)
The ADEETIE scheme for energy efficiency in MSMEs was launched on 15 July 2025 at which place?
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Correct answer: A — Panipat, Haryana
PIB (Ministry of Power): the ADEETIE scheme was launched at a national roll-out event at Arya (P.G.) College, Panipat, Haryana.
The ADEETIE scheme, with an outlay of ₹1,000 crore, is being implemented by which body?
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Correct answer: C — Bureau of Energy Efficiency
PIB (Ministry of Power): the ADEETIE scheme, with a budgetary outlay of ₹1,000 crore, is an initiative of the Ministry of Power and is being implemented by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
Under the ADEETIE scheme, what interest subvention is provided on loans for energy-efficiency projects?
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Correct answer: D — 5% for micro and small enterprises; 3% for medium enterprises
PIB (Ministry of Power): the scheme envisages interest subvention of 5% for Micro and Small Enterprises and 3% for Medium Enterprises on loans.
As per the PLFS monthly bulletin for June 2025, the unemployment rate (CWS) for persons aged 15 years and above was:
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Correct answer: D — 5.6%
PIB (MoSPI): the unemployment rate in CWS among persons aged 15 and above remained the same at 5.6% in May 2025 and June 2025.
Consider the following statements about the PLFS bulletin for June 2025: 1. The Labour Force Participation Rate (CWS, 15+) declined from May 2025 to June 2025. 2. LFPR in urban areas was higher than in rural areas in June 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MoSPI): LFPR was 54.2% in June against 54.8% in May, so 1 is correct; rural LFPR was 56.1% and urban 50.4%, so 2 is wrong.
As per the PLFS bulletin for June 2025, the overall Worker Population Ratio (CWS, 15+) at the country level was:
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Correct answer: A — 51.2%
PIB (MoSPI): the overall WPR at the country level was 51.2% in June 2025 against 51.7% in May; 53.3% was rural WPR and 46.8% urban WPR.
India's combined merchandise and services exports for April–June 2025 were estimated at:
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Correct answer: D — US$ 210.31 billion
PIB (Commerce): cumulative exports during April–June 2025 are estimated at US$ 210.31 billion, compared to US$ 198.52 billion in April–June 2024. (US$ 112.17 billion was merchandise only.)
Which merchandise export category recorded the sharpest growth (46.93%) in June 2025, according to the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Electronic Goods
PIB (Commerce): electronic goods exports increased by 46.93% from US$ 2.82 billion in June 2024 to US$ 4.15 billion in June 2025; pharma rose 5.95%, engineering 1.35%, marine 13.33%.
Consider the following statements about India's trade data released on 15 July 2025: 1. Merchandise exports for April–June 2025 grew faster than combined merchandise and services exports. 2. India's overall trade deficit (merchandise + services) in June 2025 narrowed compared to June 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
PIB (Commerce): merchandise exports grew 1.92% against 5.94% for combined exports, so 1 is wrong; the June trade balance was –US$ 3.51 billion against –US$ 7.30 billion in June 2024, so 2 is correct.
What was India's year-on-year headline CPI inflation for June 2025, as released by MoSPI on 14 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2.10%
MoSPI: year-on-year inflation rate based on All India CPI for June 2025 is 2.10%.
Consider the following statements about CPI data for June 2025: 1. Headline inflation was the lowest since January 2019. 2. All-India food inflation (CFPI) was negative at -1.06%. 3. The CPI series uses 2012 as the base year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as per MoSPI: 2.10% was the lowest year-on-year inflation since January 2019, CFPI was -1.06%, and the base is 2012=100.
By how many basis points did headline CPI inflation in June 2025 fall compared with May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 72 basis points
MoSPI: headline inflation in June 2025 was 72 basis points lower than May 2025 (205 bps was the fall in food inflation).