Economy Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Independence Day address delivered by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 15 August 2025 was his which address from the Red Fort?
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Correct answer: D — 12th
PIB noted that the address on the 79th Independence Day marked Prime Minister Modi's 12th Independence Day address from the Red Fort.
Under the PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana announced on 15 August 2025, how much will newly employed youth receive?
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Correct answer: A — ₹15,000
Under the ₹1 lakh crore PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana, newly employed youth will receive ₹15,000; the scheme aims to benefit 3 crore young Indians.
In his 2025 Independence Day address, the Prime Minister linked 'Samudra Manthan' to the launch of which mission?
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Correct answer: C — National Deepwater Exploration Mission
Pointing to the large share of the budget spent on importing petrol, diesel and gas, the Prime Minister announced the launch of the National Deepwater Exploration Mission, described as 'Samudra Manthan'.
Consider the following statements about announcements in the Prime Minister's Independence Day address of 2025: 1. Work is underway on 10 new nuclear reactors as part of a plan to raise nuclear power capacity over tenfold by 2047. 2. Next-generation GST reforms were announced to be unveiled on Republic Day 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Prime Minister said work is underway on 10 new nuclear reactors to increase nuclear power capacity by over ten times by 2047. Statement 2 is incorrect: next-generation GST reforms were to be unveiled on Diwali, described as a Diwali gift.
Consider the following statements about the Prime Minister's Independence Day address of 2025: 1. A High-Power Demography Mission was announced to address demographic imbalance caused by infiltration and illegal migration in border areas. 2. The Prime Minister said India would roll out its first Made in India semiconductor chip by the end of the year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Prime Minister announced a High-Power Demography Mission to address demographic imbalance due to infiltration and illegal migration in border areas, and said the first Made in India chip would be rolled out by the end of the year.
To what level did S&P Global Ratings upgrade India's long-term sovereign credit rating on 14 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — BBB
S&P upgraded India's long-term sovereign credit rating to 'BBB' from 'BBB-', with a Stable outlook.
The S&P upgrade of India's sovereign rating in August 2025 was its first upgrade of India in how many years?
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Correct answer: A — 18
The Ministry of Finance said this was India's first sovereign upgrade by S&P in 18 years, the previous one being in 2007.
Consider the following statements about S&P's rating action on India in August 2025: 1. S&P assigned a Positive outlook along with the upgrade. 2. India's short-term rating was lowered from 'A-2' to 'A-3'. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is correct. The upgrade came with a Stable outlook, and the short-term rating was raised to 'A-2' from 'A-3'.
Consider the following statements about S&P's assessment of India in August 2025: 1. S&P's previous upgrade of India, in 2007, had elevated India to investment grade at 'BBB-'. 2. S&P projected India's GDP growth at 6.5% in FY26. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The previous upgrade in 2007 took India to investment grade at 'BBB-', and S&P projected GDP growth of 6.5% in FY26.
What was India's annual WPI-based inflation rate (provisional) for July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — -0.58%
The annual rate of inflation based on the all-India WPI was -0.58% (provisional) for July 2025, against -0.13% in June 2025.
Consider the following statements about WPI data for July 2025: 1. Inflation in manufactured products was negative. 2. The WPI Food Index recorded negative inflation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: manufactured products recorded inflation of 2.05%. Statement 2 is correct: the WPI Food Index was at -2.15%.
In the context of India–ASEAN trade, what does 'AITIGA' stand for?
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Correct answer: A — ASEAN–India Trade in Goods Agreement
AITIGA is the ASEAN–India Trade in Goods Agreement, whose review was taken up at the 10th Joint Committee meeting hosted by India from 10 to 14 August 2025.
Where is the next AITIGA Joint Committee meeting, after the 10th meeting in New Delhi, scheduled to be held?
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Correct answer: B — Jakarta
The next Joint Committee meeting is scheduled for 6–7 October 2025 in Jakarta, hosted by Malaysia.
The year 2025 marks how many years of the India–Singapore Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA)?
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Correct answer: C — 20
The India–Singapore CECA was signed in 2005, so 2025 marks 20 years of the agreement along with 60 years of diplomatic relations.
Consider the following statements about India–Singapore economic ties, as noted at the 4th JWGTI in August 2025: 1. Singapore is India's largest trading partner in ASEAN. 2. Singapore is India's largest source of FDI. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Singapore is India's largest trading partner in ASEAN, with trade of USD 34.26 billion in 2024–25. Statement 2 is incorrect: Singapore is India's second-largest source of FDI.
Consider the following statements about the Intellectual Property Office building inaugurated in Dwarka, New Delhi, on 13 August 2025: 1. It supports India's role as an International Searching Authority and International Preliminary Examining Authority under the Patent Cooperation Treaty. 2. The expansion project was undertaken by the National Buildings Construction Corporation (NBCC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The expansion, approved in 2018, was completed in 2025 at about ₹88 crore.
The expanded ISA building of the Intellectual Property Office inaugurated on 13 August 2025 can accommodate over how many personnel?
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Correct answer: B — 700
700; the old IPO building could accommodate 200.
Where is 'Bharat Steel', the Ministry of Steel's flagship international conference-cum-exhibition, scheduled to be held in April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
Bharat Steel is scheduled to be held on 16–17 April 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi; its logo, brochure and website were launched on 13 August 2025.
What was India's year-on-year CPI headline inflation for July 2025 (provisional), as released on 12 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1.55%
MoSPI data showed headline CPI inflation of 1.55% (provisional) for July 2025, 55 basis points lower than June 2025.
The July 2025 headline CPI inflation was the lowest year-on-year inflation since which month?
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Correct answer: C — June 2017
The 1.55% headline inflation for July 2025 was the lowest year-on-year inflation since June 2017; January 2019 is the reference point for food inflation.
Consider the following statements about India's CPI data for July 2025: 1. Food inflation measured by the CFPI was negative. 2. Rural inflation was higher than urban inflation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: CFPI-based food inflation was -1.76%, the lowest since January 2019. Statement 2 is incorrect: rural inflation was 1.18%, lower than urban inflation of 2.05%.
What is the base year of the Consumer Price Index series used for the July 2025 inflation data?
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Correct answer: D — 2012
The CPI numbers for rural, urban and combined released for July 2025 are on base 2012=100.
What was the combined outlay of the four semiconductor projects approved by the Union Cabinet on 12 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — About ₹4,600 crore
The Cabinet approved four semiconductor projects with a cumulative investment of about ₹4,600 crore, expected to create 2,034 skilled jobs.
India's first commercial compound fab for silicon carbide devices, approved in August 2025, will come up in which state?
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Correct answer: C — Odisha
SiCSem will set up India's first commercial compound fab for silicon carbide devices at Info Valley, Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
Consider the following statements about the semiconductor approvals of 12 August 2025: 1. With these approvals, the number of projects approved under the India Semiconductor Mission rose to 10. 2. The CDIL unit approved on this date is located in Andhra Pradesh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: approved ISM projects reached 10, with cumulative investment of about ₹1.60 lakh crore across six states. Statement 2 is incorrect: the CDIL unit is located in Punjab; the ASIP unit is in Andhra Pradesh.
SiCSem's silicon carbide fab approved in August 2025 is to be set up in collaboration with Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd. of which country?
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Correct answer: A — United Kingdom
SiCSem is setting up the compound semiconductor fab in collaboration with Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd., UK.
Who headed the Select Committee whose recommendations were incorporated in the Income-Tax (No. 2) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Baijayant Panda
The revised Income-Tax Bill incorporated most of the recommendations of the Select Committee headed by Baijayant Panda.
The Income-Tax (No. 2) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha in August 2025 seeks to replace which law?
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Correct answer: B — Income-Tax Act, 1961
The revised Income-Tax Bill aims to replace the six-decade-old Income-Tax Act, 1961.
Consider the following statements about the tax bills passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025: 1. Both bills were passed by voice vote without debate. 2. The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 extends tax exemptions to subscribers of the Old Pension Scheme. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: both bills were passed by voice vote without any debate amid Opposition protests. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill extends tax exemptions to subscribers of the Unified Pension Scheme.
The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025 provides tax exemptions to subscribers of which scheme?
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Correct answer: D — Unified Pension Scheme
The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 aims to provide tax exemptions to subscribers of the Unified Pension Scheme and also changes block assessment for income tax search cases.
What was India's annual defence production in FY 2024-25, as announced by the Raksha Mantri on 9 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,50,590 crore
Annual defence production reached an all-time high of ₹1,50,590 crore in FY 2024-25.
By how much did India's defence production grow in FY 2024-25 over FY 2023-24?
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Correct answer: D — 18%
Production rose 18% over the ₹1.27 lakh crore recorded in FY 2023-24.
Consider the following statements about India's defence production in FY 2024-25: 1. The private sector's share of total production rose from 21% in FY 2023-24 to 23%. 2. Production by DPSUs grew faster than production by the private sector. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the private sector's share rose from 21% to 23%. Statement 2 is incorrect: DPSU production grew 16% while private-sector production grew 28%.
Consider the following statements about India's defence exports and production: 1. Defence exports reached a record ₹23,622 crore in FY 2024-25. 2. Defence production in FY 2019-20 was ₹79,071 crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Exports hit a record ₹23,622 crore in FY 2024-25 (up 12.04% from ₹21,083 crore), and production has risen 90% from ₹79,071 crore in FY 2019-20.
How much compensation did the Union Cabinet approve in August 2025 for public sector OMCs' losses on domestic LPG?
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Correct answer: D — ₹30,000 crore
The Cabinet approved ₹30,000 crore as compensation to IOCL, BPCL and HPCL for under-recoveries on domestic LPG.
In how many tranches will the ₹30,000-crore LPG compensation to oil marketing companies be paid?
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Correct answer: B — 12
The compensation will be paid in 12 tranches, with distribution among the OMCs done by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
What Gross Merchandise Value did the Government e Marketplace (GeM) record in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — ₹5.4 lakh crore
GeM recorded ₹5.4 lakh crore in Gross Merchandise Value in FY 2024-25.
Consider the following statements about GeM's 9th Foundation Day in August 2025: 1. The celebration was held on the theme 'Ease, Access and Inclusion'. 2. Caution money for sellers was doubled to curb non-performance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the theme was 'Ease, Access and Inclusion'. Statement 2 is incorrect: caution money for sellers was eliminated, not doubled.
What additional tariff did the US impose on Indian goods through the executive order of 6 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 25%
The executive order imposed an additional 25% tariff on Indian goods over India's purchases of Russian oil, taking the combined rate to 50%.
How did India's Ministry of External Affairs describe the additional US tariffs in its statement of 6 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Unfair, unjustified and unreasonable
The MEA said: 'We reiterate that these actions are unfair, unjustified and unreasonable.'
Consider the following statements about India's response to the US tariff order of 6 August 2025: 1. India said its oil imports are based on market factors and aimed at the energy security of 1.4 billion people. 2. India said it would take all actions necessary to protect its national interests. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The MEA said India's imports are based on market factors to ensure the energy security of 1.4 billion people, and that India will take all actions necessary to protect its national interests.
At what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee keep the policy repo rate in its August 2025 meeting?
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Correct answer: C — 5.50%
The MPC unanimously voted to keep the policy repo rate unchanged at 5.50%.
What CPI inflation did the RBI's MPC project for 2025-26 in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 3.1%
Considering all factors, CPI inflation for 2025-26 was projected at 3.1%.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's monetary policy decision of August 2025: 1. The standing deposit facility rate remained at 5.25% and the marginal standing facility rate at 5.75%. 2. The MPC changed its stance from neutral to accommodative. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the SDF rate stayed at 5.25% and the MSF rate and Bank Rate at 5.75%. Statement 2 is incorrect: all members decided to continue with the neutral stance.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's August 2025 policy: 1. The MPC projected real GDP growth for 2025-26 at 6.5%. 2. The decision to keep the repo rate unchanged was taken by a 4–2 majority. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: real GDP growth for 2025-26 was projected at 6.5%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the MPC voted unanimously to keep the repo rate unchanged.
Who co-chaired the 11th session of the India–Russia Working Group on Modernization and Industrial Cooperation from the Indian side in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Secretary, DPIIT
The session was co-chaired from the Indian side by Amardeep Singh Bhatia, Secretary, DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
The Maharashtra Startup, Entrepreneurship and Innovation Policy 2025 aims to recognise how many startups over five years?
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Correct answer: B — 50,000
The policy aims to support 1.25 lakh entrepreneurs and recognise 50,000 startups over five years.
Under Maharashtra's Startup Policy 2025, a 300-acre 'Maharashtra Innovation City' is proposed at which location?
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Correct answer: C — Navi Mumbai
The policy provides for a new 300-acre Maharashtra Innovation City in Navi Mumbai.
Consider the following statements about the Maharashtra Startup, Entrepreneurship and Innovation Policy 2025: 1. The Chief Minister's ₹500 crore Maha-Fund will support 25,000 early-stage entrepreneurs selected from a pool of 5 lakh youth. 2. Each state department must reserve 5% of its annual funds for innovation and entrepreneurship. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the ₹500 crore Maha-Fund will assist 25,000 early-stage entrepreneurs chosen from 5 lakh youth through a three-stage process. Statement 2 is incorrect: departments must reserve 0.5% of their annual funds.
What were India's gross GST collections for July 2025, as per data released on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — About ₹1.96 lakh crore
Gross GST collections for July 2025 were ₹1,95,735 crore, about ₹1.96 lakh crore.
By what percentage did gross GST collections in July 2025 grow over July 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 7.5%
Gross GST collections grew 7.5%, from ₹1,82,075 crore in July 2024 to ₹1,95,735 crore in July 2025.
Consider the following statements about GST data for July 2025: 1. Refunds rose 66.8% to ₹27,147 crore. 2. Net GST revenue grew by more than 10% over July 2024. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: refunds rose 66.8% to ₹27,147 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: because of the surge in refunds, net GST revenue was ₹1,68,588 crore, up only 1.7%.
What was the gross GST revenue from imports in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹52,712 crore
Gross import revenue in July 2025 was ₹52,712 crore, up 9.7% from a year earlier.
Which of the following was NOT among the Centres of Excellence recognised under the National Critical Mineral Mission in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Madras
IIT Madras is not in the list. The four recognised IITs are those at Bombay, Hyderabad, Roorkee and the ISM campus in Dhanbad, along with CSIR-IMMT, CSIR-NML and NFTDC.
On which model will each Centre of Excellence under the National Critical Mineral Mission operate as a consortium?
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Correct answer: A — Hub & Spoke model
Each CoE will operate as a consortium on a Hub & Spoke model, with the hub institute bringing in industry and R&D or academic partners.
How many coal blocks were successfully auctioned in the 12th round of commercial coal auctions, as announced on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Seven
Seven coal blocks were successfully auctioned in the forward auctions held from 28 to 31 July 2025.
Consider the following statements about the 12th round of commercial coal auctions: 1. The auctioned blocks are located in Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh. 2. Since commercial coal mining began in 2020, a total of 131 coal blocks have been auctioned. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The seven blocks lie in Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh, and 131 coal blocks with 277.31 MTPA capacity have been auctioned since 2020.
What was the HSBC India Manufacturing PMI for July 2025, released on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 59.1
The HSBC India Manufacturing PMI stood at 59.1 in July 2025, a 16-month high.
Consider the following statements about India's manufacturing PMI for July 2025: 1. It signalled the strongest improvement in the sector since March 2024. 2. Business confidence rose to its highest level in three years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the July reading was the strongest improvement since March 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: business confidence fell to its lowest level in three years.
What reciprocal tariff rate did the US executive order of 31 July 2025 set for India?
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Correct answer: A — 25%
Annex I of Executive Order 14326 lists India at 25%.
From which date did the 25% US reciprocal tariff on Indian goods under the executive order of 31 July 2025 take effect?
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Correct answer: D — 7 August 2025
The order applies from 12:01 a.m. EDT seven days after 31 July 2025, i.e. 7 August 2025; Business Standard reported it took effect on 7 August.
Consider the following statements about Annex I of US Executive Order 14326 (31 July 2025): 1. Bangladesh is listed at 20%. 2. Japan is listed at 15%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per Annex I of the order.
The Central Sector Scheme 'Grant in aid to NCDC' approved by the Cabinet on 31 July 2025 has what outlay and period?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2,000 crore over four years, 2025-26 to 2028-29
The scheme has ₹2,000 crore for four years from 2025-26 to 2028-29, at ₹500 crore a year.
On the basis of the ₹2,000-crore grant approved on 31 July 2025, how much will NCDC be able to raise from the open market over four years?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20,000 crore
The Cabinet release says NCDC will be able to raise ₹20,000 crore from the open market.
'Saksham Niveshak', a 100-day campaign running from 28 July to 6 November 2025, was launched by which body?
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Correct answer: C — Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA)
IEPFA under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs launched the campaign.
Under the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025, whose key provisions took effect on 1 August 2025, the threshold for 'substantial interest' was raised from ₹5 lakh to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹2 crore
PIB (30 July 2025): the 'substantial interest' threshold was redefined from ₹5 lakh to ₹2 crore, a limit unchanged since 1968.
The maximum tenure of directors (other than the chairperson and whole-time director) in cooperative banks was raised from 8 years to 10 years to align with which Constitutional Amendment?
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Correct answer: C — 97th Amendment
PIB: the change aligns director tenures in cooperative banks with the 97th Constitutional Amendment.
Consider the following statements about the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. It contains 19 amendments across five legislations. 2. It was notified in the Gazette on 15 April 2025. 3. All its provisions came into force on the date of its notification. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: 19 amendments across five laws; notified 15 April 2025. Provisions come into force on dates appointed by the Centre; S.O. 3494(E) appointed 1 August 2025 for specific sections, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the amended law, public sector banks may transfer unclaimed shares, interest and bond redemption amounts to which fund, in line with companies under the Companies Act?
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Correct answer: D — Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF)
PIB: PSBs can now transfer unclaimed shares, interest and bond redemption amounts to the Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF), bringing them in line with companies.
As per telecom subscription data as on 30 June 2025, India's overall tele-density was about:
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Correct answer: D — 86.09%
PIB (29 July 2025): overall tele-density was 86.09% (urban 133.56%, rural 59.43%).
How many broadband subscribers did India have as on 30 June 2025, as per the Ministry of Communications?
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Correct answer: A — 979.71 million
PIB: total broadband subscribers were 979.71 million (935.02 million wireless + 44.69 million wireline). 1,218.36 million is total telephone subscribers.
Which office released the Revised Guidelines for Examination of Computer Related Inventions (CRIs), 2025 on 29 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks
PIB (29 July 2025): the Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks (CGPDTM) released the revised CRI Guidelines, 2025.
According to the Quick Estimate released on 28 July 2025, India's Index of Industrial Production grew by how much in June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1.5%
MoSPI/PIB (28 July 2025): IIP growth for June 2025 was 1.5%, against 1.2% (QE) in May 2025.
In the IIP for June 2025, which sector recorded positive growth?
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Correct answer: D — Manufacturing
PIB: sectoral growth in June 2025 was mining -8.7%, manufacturing 3.9% and electricity -2.6%. Only manufacturing grew.
Under the revised release calendar announced with the June 2025 data, the Quick Estimate of IIP will be released on:
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Correct answer: C — The 28th of every month (or next working day if a holiday)
PIB: as per the revised calendar, the Quick Estimate of IIP will now be released on the 28th of every month, or the next working day if the 28th is a holiday.
Consider the following statements about the IIP Quick Estimate for June 2025: 1. It was compiled on base year 2011-12=100. 2. The index stood at 153.3, against 151.0 in June 2024. 3. Mining output contracted by 2.6%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB: base 2011-12=100; index 153.3 against 151.0 in June 2024. Mining contracted 8.7%; the 2.6% fall was in electricity, so statement 3 is wrong.
As per kharif sowing data as on 25 July 2025, rice area was 245.13 lakh hectare. By how much was this higher than a year earlier?
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Correct answer: A — 28.97 lakh hectare
PIB (28 July 2025): rice area was 245.13 lakh ha against 216.16 lakh ha in 2024-25, an increase of 28.97 lakh ha.
Which kharif crop group showed a decline in area coverage as on 25 July 2025 compared with a year earlier?
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Correct answer: D — Oilseeds
PIB: oilseeds area fell by 3.83 lakh ha (soybean down 4.68), while rice, pulses and coarse cereals rose.
As per the Commerce Ministry (28 July 2025), India's leather and footwear exports to the UK under CETA are likely to double in three years to:
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Correct answer: C — USD 1 billion
PIB: India's leather and footwear exports to the UK are likely to double to USD 1 billion in three years. USD 8.7 billion is the size of the UK's leather and footwear market.
Which GI products were cited by the Commerce Ministry as gaining visibility in the UK market under the India-UK CETA?
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Correct answer: B — Kolhapuri footwear and Mojari
PIB: CETA is expected to boost the visibility of GI products like Kolhapuri footwear and Mojari in the UK's USD 8.7 billion leather and footwear market.