Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The ₹1 lakh crore Urban Challenge Fund announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 will finance up to what share of the cost of bankable projects?
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Correct answer: A — 25 per cent
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the fund will finance up to 25 per cent of the cost of bankable projects, with at least 50 per cent of the cost funded from bonds, bank loans and PPPs.
Until which year was the Jal Jeevan Mission extended in the Union Budget 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — 2028
PIB (1 Feb 2025): Jal Jeevan Mission extended until 2028, with the total budget outlay enhanced to ₹67,000 crore.
The Union Budget 2025-26 raised the FDI limit for the insurance sector from 74% to:
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Correct answer: A — 100 per cent
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the FDI limit for the insurance sector will be raised from 74 to 100 per cent.
Consider the following statements about the Union Budget 2025-26: 1. The enhanced insurance FDI limit is available only to companies that invest the entire premium in India. 2. The 'Grameen Credit Score' framework will be developed by the Reserve Bank of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB and Budget speech: the higher FDI limit is for companies investing the entire premium in India, so statement 1 is correct. The Grameen Credit Score framework will be developed by Public Sector Banks, not the RBI, so statement 2 is wrong. Answer: 1 only.
The Union Budget 2025-26 allocation for the Ministry of Defence was how much higher than the 2024-25 Budget Estimate?
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Correct answer: C — 9.53%
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the allocation of ₹6,81,210.27 crore is 9.53% more than the Budgetary Estimate of 2024-25. 13.45% is its share of the Union Budget.
How much did the Union Budget 2025-26 allocate for capital outlay on defence services?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1.80 lakh crore
PIB (1 Feb 2025): ₹1.80 lakh crore (₹1,80,000 crore), i.e. 26.43% of the total allocation, is for capital outlay on defence services; ₹1.12 lakh crore of the capital budget is earmarked for domestic procurement.
What is the motto of the Indian Coast Guard, which celebrated its 49th Raising Day on 1 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Vayam Rakshamah
PIB (1 Feb 2025): with its motto 'Vayam Rakshamah' (We Protect), the ICG has ensured the safety and security of India's maritime zones.
As of its 49th Raising Day on 1 February 2025, what was the Indian Coast Guard's force level?
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Correct answer: C — 151 ships and 76 aircraft
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the ICG now comprises 151 ships and 76 aircraft; 200 surface platforms and 100 aircraft is its 2030 target.
Who inaugurated the New Delhi World Book Fair 2025 on 1 February 2025?
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Correct answer: D — President Droupadi Murmu
PIB (1 Feb 2025): President Droupadi Murmu inaugurated the New Delhi World Book Fair 2025 in New Delhi.
Where will the 12.7 lakh metric ton urea plant announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 be set up?
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Correct answer: D — Namrup, Assam
Budget speech (para 23): a plant with annual capacity of 12.7 lakh metric tons will be set up at Namrup, Assam.
Under which Article of the Constitution did the President address both Houses assembled together on 31 January 2025, the first session of the year?
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Correct answer: D — Article 87(1)
PIB 2118954: this being the first session of the year, the President addressed both Houses assembled together in terms of Article 87(1) on 31 January 2025.
How many property cards had been issued under the SVAMITVA scheme, according to the President's address of 31 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 2.25 crore
PIB 2097836: under SVAMITVA, 2.25 crore property cards had been issued, about 70 lakh of them in the last six months.
What real GDP growth range did the Economic Survey 2024-25 project for FY26?
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Correct answer: B — 6.3–6.8%
PIB 2097919: the real GDP is projected to grow between 6.3 and 6.8 per cent in FY26; FY25 growth was estimated at 6.4%.
According to the Economic Survey 2024-25, the gross NPA ratio of scheduled commercial banks fell to a 12-year low of:
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Correct answer: A — 2.6%
PIB 2097919: GNPA of scheduled commercial banks declined to a 12-year low of 2.6 per cent.
The Economic Survey 2024-25 used the German term 'Mittelstand' to refer to which sector it wants to build up in India?
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Correct answer: A — Small and medium enterprises
PIB 2097919: the focus of reforms and Ease of Doing Business 2.0 is to create India's Mittelstand, i.e. India's SME sector.
Consider the following statements about the Economic Survey 2024-25: 1. It estimated FY25 real GDP growth at 6.4%. 2. It said forex reserves of USD 640.3 billion could cover 10.9 months of imports. 3. It reported retail inflation rising from 4.9% in FY24 to 5.4% in April–December 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097919: FY25 growth was 6.4% and forex of USD 640.3 billion covered 10.9 months of imports; retail inflation softened from 5.4% in FY24 to 4.9% in April–December 2024, so statement 3 reverses the figures.
Under the Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance Amendment Rules, 2025, which body grants final approval to an entity seeking to use Aadhaar authentication?
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Correct answer: D — Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
PIB 2098223: applications are examined by UIDAI and MeitY issues the approval based on UIDAI's recommendation.
Consider the following statements about the Aadhaar authentication amendment rules notified on 31 January 2025: 1. They were notified under the Aadhaar Act, 2016. 2. They allow non-government entities to use Aadhaar authentication for public-interest services. 3. Entities apply directly to the Reserve Bank of India for approval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2098223: the rules are under the Aadhaar Act, 2016 and open authentication to non-government entities; applications go to the concerned ministry or department, are examined by UIDAI and approved by MeitY, not the RBI.
The Large Area Additive Manufacturing (LAAM) System demonstrated in January 2025 was developed at the DRDO-Industry-Academia Centre of Excellence in which institute?
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Correct answer: C — IIT Hyderabad
PIB 2098098: the breakthrough was achieved at the DIA-CoE at IIT Hyderabad with DRDO's DRDL, Hyderabad.
Which technology is the DRDO–IIT Hyderabad LAAM System based on?
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Correct answer: D — Laser and blown-powder Directed Energy Deposition
PIB 2098098: the process is based on laser and blown-powder based Direct Energy Deposition technology with dual heads.
Which of the following was NOT among the four wetlands added to India's Ramsar list, as announced on 31 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary
PIB (2 Feb 2025) and TOI (31 Jan 2025): the four new sites were Sakkarakottai and Therthangal (Tamil Nadu), Khecheopalri (Sikkim) and Udhwa Lake (Jharkhand). Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary was already on the list (MoEFCC list, as on 30.01.2025), so Nanjarayan is NOT one of the four.
After the four additions announced on 31 January 2025, which State had the maximum number of Ramsar sites in India?
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Correct answer: A — Tamil Nadu
PIB (2 Feb 2025): Tamil Nadu continues to have the maximum number of Ramsar sites (20), followed by Uttar Pradesh (10).
Consider the following statements about the Ramsar Convention: 1. The Convention on Wetlands of International Importance was signed in 1971. 2. India has been a party to the Convention since 1982. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (2 Feb 2025): World Wetlands Day commemorates the signing of the Ramsar Convention in 1971, and India is a party to the Convention since 1982, so both statements are correct.
What is the name of the Indian Railways SuperApp introduced for beta testing on 31 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — SwaRail
PIB 2098305: the Ministry of Railways introduced the SuperApp 'SwaRail' for beta testing.
Which organisation developed the SwaRail SuperApp of Indian Railways?
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Correct answer: C — Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS)
PIB 2098305: the SuperApp was developed by the Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS).
Which new administrative department did the Assam Cabinet approve on 31 January 2025 to support startups?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Innovation, Incubation and Startup
Economic Times and Assam Tribune: the Cabinet approved creation of a new administrative department, the 'Department of Innovation, Incubation and Startup'.
Consider the following policies approved by the Assam Cabinet on 31 January 2025: 1. Assam Startup and Innovation Policy 2025 2. Assam Aerospace and Defence Manufacturing Policy 2025 3. Assam Action Plan on BioE3 Policy Which of the above were approved?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
Economic Times and Assam Tribune: the Cabinet approved all three, the Startup and Innovation Policy 2025, the Aerospace and Defence Manufacturing Policy 2025 and the BioE3 Action Plan.
Where were the 9th Asian Winter Games held in February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Harbin, China
PIB 2097997: the 9th Asian Winter Games were scheduled from 7 to 14 February 2025 in Harbin, China.
Under which scheme did the Government extend full financial support, for the first time, to Indian athletes at the 2025 Asian Winter Games?
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Correct answer: C — Assistance to National Sports Federations Scheme
PIB 2097997: full financial support is being extended for the first time under the Assistance to National Sports Federations (ANSF) Scheme.
On which festival day was the third Amrit Snan of Maha Kumbh 2025 scheduled (3 February 2025)?
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Correct answer: C — Basant Panchami
PIB 2098281: medical facilities were strengthened for the third Amrit Snan on Basant Panchami (3 February 2025), with 23 hospitals and 360 beds.
On which platform did the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation launch a new version of the SBM Academy in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — WhatsApp
PIB 2097805: DDWS launched the WhatsApp version of the SBM Academy at its meeting with 22 States and UTs.
What is the combined weight of the eight core industries in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
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Correct answer: B — 40.27%
PIB 2098037: the eight core industries comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight of items included in the IIP.
Which of the eight core industries recorded a decline in December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Natural gas
PIB 2098037: all core sectors except natural gas, which declined 1.8%, recorded positive growth in December 2024.
What was the Ground Level Agriculture Credit target set for FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — ₹27.5 lakh crore
PIB 2098065: the GLC target for FY 2024-25 is ₹27.5 lakh crore; ₹19.28 lakh crore was disbursed by 31.12.2024 and ₹25.48 lakh crore was the FY24 disbursement.
What sub-target for allied activities was included in the FY 2024-25 Ground Level Agriculture Credit target?
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Correct answer: B — ₹4.20 lakh crore
PIB 2098065: a dedicated sub-target of ₹4.20 lakh crore was set for allied activities such as dairy, poultry and fisheries.
On which virtual digital asset service provider did FIU-IND impose a ₹9.27 crore penalty in January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Bybit Fintech Limited
PIB 2098153: FIU-IND imposed a penalty of ₹9,27,00,000 on Bybit Fintech Limited, a VDA service provider.
Under which law did FIU-IND impose the January 2025 penalty on Bybit?
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Correct answer: C — Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
PIB 2098153: the penalty was imposed under Section 13 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 for violating Section 12(1) and the PML Rules.
What is the theme of the BRICS Youth Council Entrepreneurship Working Group Meeting hosted by India in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Youth Entrepreneurship for Sustainable Growth
PIB 2097834: the theme of the meeting (3–7 March 2025) is 'Youth Entrepreneurship for Sustainable Growth'.
What was the average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) in rural India in 2023-24, as per HCES 2023-24 (without imputation)?
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Correct answer: D — ₹4,122
PIB 2097601: average MPCE in 2023-24 was ₹4,122 (rural) and ₹6,996 (urban) without imputed values; with imputation ₹4,247 and ₹7,078.
Among major states, which state had the lowest urban–rural gap in average MPCE in 2023-24 according to HCES 2023-24?
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Correct answer: A — Kerala
PIB 2097601: the lowest urban–rural gap in 2023-24 was in Kerala (about 18%) and the highest in Jharkhand (around 83%).
Consider the following statements about HCES 2023-24: 1. The urban–rural gap in MPCE declined to 70% in 2023-24. 2. The Gini coefficient of consumption in rural areas declined to 0.237. 3. The Gini coefficient in urban areas rose compared to 2022-23. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097601: the urban–rural gap fell to 70% and rural Gini fell to 0.237; urban Gini also fell, from 0.314 to 0.284, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which Indian Navy sailboat crossed Point Nemo on 30 January 2025 during Navika Sagar Parikrama II?
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Correct answer: D — INSV Tarini
PIB 2098252: INSV Tarini, sailed by Lt Cdr Dilna K and Lt Cdr Roopa A, crossed Point Nemo at 0030 hrs IST on 30 January 2025.
Point Nemo, crossed by INSV Tarini in January 2025, is known as:
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Correct answer: A — The Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility
PIB 2098252: Point Nemo is the Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility, about 2,688 km from the nearest landmass.
Consider the following statements about Navika Sagar Parikrama II: 1. INSV Tarini was flagged off from Goa on 2 October 2024. 2. Point Nemo was crossed during the leg from Lyttelton to Port Stanley. 3. Water samples from Point Nemo are to be analysed by ISRO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2098252: the crew were flagged off from Goa on 2 October 2024 and crossed Point Nemo on the Lyttelton–Port Stanley leg; the samples will be analysed by the National Institute of Oceanography, not ISRO.
In how many Indian languages does the Sahitya Akademi give its main annual award, for which books were invited directly for the first time in 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 24
PIB 2097806: books in 24 Indian languages recognised by the Akademi were invited directly for the main award for 2025.
Books published in which period were eligible for the Sahitya Akademi Award 2025 under the new submission system?
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Correct answer: B — 2019 to 2023
PIB 2097806: books published between 1 January 2019 and 31 December 2023 could be sent by 28 February 2025.
The Pla Tangka Cooperative Society, approved by a state cabinet on 30 January 2025, is for women SHGs of which state?
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Correct answer: D — Meghalaya
The Hindu and The Shillong Times: the Meghalaya Cabinet approved the Pla Tangka Cooperative Society on 30 January 2025.
Meghalaya's Pla Tangka Cooperative Society model is inspired by which state's scheme?
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Correct answer: B — Stree Nidhi of Telangana
The Shillong Times and The Hindu: Meghalaya is the fourth state after Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana; the model is inspired by Telangana's Stree Nidhi.
Which State/UT's tableau was judged the best at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Uttar Pradesh
PIB 2097650: Uttar Pradesh's 'Mahakumbh 2025 – Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas' was first, Tripura second and Andhra Pradesh third; Gujarat topped the popular-choice poll.
Which contingent was judged the best marching contingent among the Services at Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jammu & Kashmir Rifles Contingent
PIB 2097650: the Jammu & Kashmir Rifles contingent was judged best among Services; the Signals contingent won the popular-choice poll.
Tripura's tableau, placed second at Republic Day Parade 2025, was based on which festival?
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Correct answer: A — Kharchi Puja
PIB 2097650: Tripura's tableau was 'Eternal Reverence: The worship of 14 Deities in Tripura – Kharchi Puja'.
About how many GPUs did the IndiaAI Mission's common computing facility have, as announced on 30 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 18,693
PIB 2097709: the IndiaAI Mission created a common computing facility of about 18,693 GPUs; computation begins with roughly 10,000 and the remaining 8,693 will be added.
After the government subsidy, what was the stated cost of AI compute per hour under the IndiaAI Mission?
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Correct answer: A — Less than ₹100 per hour
PIB 2097709: compute will cost less than ₹100 per hour after a 40% government subsidy, against 2.5–3 dollars per hour for global models.
'Mana Mitra', launched on 30 January 2025, is a WhatsApp-based governance initiative of which state?
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Correct answer: B — Andhra Pradesh
The Hindu and NDTV: the Andhra Pradesh government launched 'Mana Mitra' WhatsApp Governance, a first in the country.
How many civic services were made available in the first phase of Andhra Pradesh's 'Mana Mitra' WhatsApp Governance?
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Correct answer: B — 161
The Hindu and NDTV: 161 services are available in the first phase.
With which company did the Goa government lay the foundation for Centres of Excellence at government ITIs on 30 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Tata Technologies
The Goan and Live News Goa: CM Pramod Sawant laid the foundation stone for the Centre of Excellence project under Tata Technologies at ITI Altinho, with Tata Technologies contributing ₹165 crore.
Where was Odisha's first Automated Testing Station for vehicle fitness inaugurated in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Cuttack RTO
New Indian Express and OdishaTV: Odisha's first ATS was inaugurated at the Cuttack RTO on Thursday, 30 January 2025.
At how many more RTOs did Odisha plan to set up Automated Testing Stations after the first one at Cuttack?
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Correct answer: C — 21
New Indian Express and OdishaTV: the State plans ATS at 21 more RTOs, plus an additional centre in Cuttack.
Who assumed charge as the Controller of Warship Production & Acquisition of the Indian Navy on 30 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Vice Admiral Rajaram Swaminathan
PIB 2097791: Vice Admiral Rajaram Swaminathan assumed charge on 30 January 2025 from Vice Admiral B Sivakumar.
Vice Admiral Rajaram Swaminathan, who became Controller of Warship Production & Acquisition in January 2025, served for more than nine years on which aircraft carrier?
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Correct answer: A — INS Viraat
PIB 2097791: he worked onboard INS Viraat for more than nine years; he was also involved in acquiring Vikramaditya as Warship Production Superintendent in Russia.