India Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Which company led the consortium selected by IN-SPACe in August 2025 to build India's first PPP-based Earth Observation constellation?
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Correct answer: B — Pixxel
IN-SPACe selected a consortium led by Pixxel, with Piersight Space, SatSure Analytics India and Dhruva Space, under its EO-PPP model.
How many satellites will the Earth Observation constellation awarded under IN-SPACe's EO-PPP model in August 2025 comprise?
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Correct answer: A — 12
The Pixxel-led consortium will deploy a constellation of 12 satellites carrying optical, hyperspectral and SAR sensors, investing over ₹1,200 crore.
Which city hosted the 18th International Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics (IOAA) in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Mumbai
The 18th IOAA was held in Mumbai from 11 to 21 August 2025, organised by HBCSE-TIFR; PM Modi addressed it through a video message.
Which Supreme Court bench passed the order of 11 August 2025 directing that stray dogs in Delhi-NCR be moved to shelters?
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Correct answer: B — Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan
The order in the suo motu case 'In Re: City Hounded by Strays, Kids Pay Price' was passed by a bench of Justices J.B. Pardiwala and R. Mahadevan.
In its order of 11 August 2025, the Supreme Court asked authorities to start by creating shelters for about how many stray dogs?
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Correct answer: C — 5,000
The court directed the authorities to begin by creating shelters for about 5,000 dogs and to report within eight weeks.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's stray dogs order of 11 August 2025: 1. The court directed that dogs picked up should not be released back onto the streets. 2. The directions applied only to the New Delhi Municipal Council area. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the court directed that the stray dogs picked up must not be released back. Statement 2 is incorrect: the directions covered the NCT of Delhi, Noida, Ghaziabad, Gurugram and Faridabad.
As per the Supreme Court's order of 11 August 2025, dogs in shelters are to be sterilised, dewormed and immunised in line with which rules?
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Correct answer: D — Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023
The court directed that the dogs be sterilised, dewormed and immunised as per the Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023.
Who headed the Select Committee whose recommendations were incorporated in the Income-Tax (No. 2) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Baijayant Panda
The revised Income-Tax Bill incorporated most of the recommendations of the Select Committee headed by Baijayant Panda.
The Income-Tax (No. 2) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha in August 2025 seeks to replace which law?
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Correct answer: B — Income-Tax Act, 1961
The revised Income-Tax Bill aims to replace the six-decade-old Income-Tax Act, 1961.
Consider the following statements about the tax bills passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025: 1. Both bills were passed by voice vote without debate. 2. The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 extends tax exemptions to subscribers of the Old Pension Scheme. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: both bills were passed by voice vote without any debate amid Opposition protests. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill extends tax exemptions to subscribers of the Unified Pension Scheme.
The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025 provides tax exemptions to subscribers of which scheme?
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Correct answer: D — Unified Pension Scheme
The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 aims to provide tax exemptions to subscribers of the Unified Pension Scheme and also changes block assessment for income tax search cases.
The Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025 passed by Parliament on 11 August 2025 replaces the Merchant Shipping Act of which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1958
The bill replaces the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958, which had 561 sections.
Consider the following statements about the Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025: 1. The Act it replaces had 561 sections. 2. The new Bill is structured into 16 parts and 325 clauses. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Merchant Shipping Act, 1958 had 561 sections, and the new Bill offers a streamlined framework of 16 parts and 325 clauses.
The Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025 aligns India's domestic laws with the conventions of which international body?
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Correct answer: D — International Maritime Organisation
The bill aims to align domestic laws with international best practices and International Maritime Organisation (IMO) conventions.
The Cooperative Election Authority, which held its first consultative meeting with states on 11 August 2025, was notified under which Act?
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Correct answer: B — Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002
The CEA was notified on 11 March 2024 under Section 45 of the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002, as amended in 2023.
Who chaired the first consultative meeting of the Cooperative Election Authority with State Cooperative Election Authorities on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Devendra Kumar Singh
The meeting was chaired by Devendra Kumar Singh, Chairperson of the Cooperative Election Authority.
Which edition of the High-Level Meeting between the Indian Coast Guard and the Sri Lanka Coast Guard was held in New Delhi on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 8th
The 8th High-Level Meeting between the ICG and SLCG was held in New Delhi on 11 August 2025.
In which year was the Memorandum of Understanding between the Indian Coast Guard and the Sri Lanka Coast Guard signed, under which the August 2025 visit took place?
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Correct answer: C — 2018
The SLCG delegation visited India from 10 to 14 August 2025 under the framework of the MoU signed between the ICG and SLCG in 2018.
Political parties are registered with the Election Commission of India under which provision?
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Correct answer: C — Section 29A of the RP Act, 1951
Political parties, including RUPPs, are registered with the ECI under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
How many registered unrecognised political parties did the ECI delist in the first round on 9 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 334
In the first round, the ECI delisted 334 RUPPs on 9 August 2025, reducing listed RUPPs from 2,854 to 2,520; 476 more were identified in the second round.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's RUPP delisting exercise of August 2025: 1. Registration guidelines provide for delisting a party that does not contest elections continuously for six years. 2. After the first round, the number of listed RUPPs rose to 2,854. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: a party that does not contest elections continuously for six years is taken off the list. Statement 2 is incorrect: the first round reduced listed RUPPs from 2,854 to 2,520.
From which place did Union Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan digitally transfer PMFBY claim payouts on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Jhunjhunu, Rajasthan
Shivraj Singh Chouhan transferred the crop insurance payouts under PMFBY directly to farmers' bank accounts from Jhunjhunu, Rajasthan.
About how much was disbursed under PMFBY to nearly 35 lakh farmers on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹3,900 crore
Around ₹3,900 crore was disbursed to the accounts of nearly 35 lakh farmers under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana.
How many Type-VII multi-storey flats for MPs did PM Modi inaugurate at Baba Kharak Singh Marg on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 184
PM Modi inaugurated 184 newly constructed Type-VII multi-storey flats for Members of Parliament at BKS Marg, New Delhi.
The four towers of the MPs' housing complex inaugurated at BKS Marg in August 2025 are named after rivers. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: D — Narmada
The four towers are named Kosi, Krishna, Godavari and Hooghly; there is no tower named Narmada.
Who is the Chief of the Australian Army who began a four-day visit to India on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Lt Gen Simon Stuart
Lieutenant General Simon Stuart, Chief of the Australian Army, visited India from 11 to 14 August 2025 and called on COAS General Upendra Dwivedi.
Where were the World Lion Day 2025 celebrations of the Environment Ministry and Gujarat government held?
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Correct answer: C — Barda Wildlife Sanctuary
World Lion Day 2025 was celebrated at Barda Wildlife Sanctuary in Devbhumi Dwarka district, Gujarat.
According to the Environment Minister on World Lion Day 2025, what is India's Asiatic lion population in 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 891
Bhupender Yadav said India's lion population has grown to 891 in 2025, up from 674 in 2020.
Consider the following statements about Asiatic lion conservation, as highlighted on World Lion Day 2025: 1. Project Lion was announced by the Prime Minister on 15 August 2020. 2. The lion population was 674 in 2020. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Project Lion was announced in the Independence Day address of 15 August 2020, and the population has risen from 674 in 2020 to 891 in 2025.
What is the scientific name of the Asiatic lion?
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Correct answer: A — Panthera leo persica
The Asiatic lion's scientific name is Panthera leo persica, as noted by the Environment Minister on World Lion Day 2025.
The Bangalore Metro Yellow Line inaugurated by PM Modi on 10 August 2025 runs between which two points?
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Correct answer: B — RV Road (Ragigudda) and Bommasandra
The Yellow Line of Bangalore Metro Phase-2 runs from RV Road (Ragigudda) to Bommasandra, over 19 km with 16 stations.
Bangalore Metro Phase-3, whose foundation stone was laid on 10 August 2025, is also known as which line?
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Correct answer: C — Orange Line
The Prime Minister laid the foundation stone of Bangalore Metro's Phase-3, namely the Orange Line, worth over ₹15,610 crore.
Consider the following statements about the Bengaluru metro projects of 10 August 2025: 1. The Yellow Line has a route length of over 19 km with 16 stations. 2. Metro Phase-3 will have 31 underground stations. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Yellow Line covers over 19 km with 16 stations. Statement 2 is incorrect: Phase-3 will have a route length of more than 44 km with 31 elevated stations.
Which of the following was NOT among the three Vande Bharat Express trains flagged off by PM Modi from Bengaluru on 10 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bengaluru–Mysuru
The three trains were Bengaluru–Belagavi, Nagpur (Ajni)–Pune and Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Katra–Amritsar; no Bengaluru–Mysuru Vande Bharat was flagged off.
What milestone did UIDAI mark for Aadhaar Face Authentication on 10 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 200 crore transactions
UIDAI celebrated 200 crore Aadhaar Face Authentication transactions on 10 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about Aadhaar Face Authentication: 1. It reached 100 crore transactions in January 2025. 2. The rise from 100 crore to 200 crore transactions took more than a year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Face Authentication transactions doubled to 100 crore in January 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: the count doubled from 100 crore to 200 crore in less than six months.
Who was the CEO of the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) when Aadhaar Face Authentication crossed 200 crore transactions in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bhuvnesh Kumar
Bhuvnesh Kumar.
The 'Brahma–BEML Rail Manufacturing Hub', whose foundation stone was laid on 10 August 2025, is coming up in which state?
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Correct answer: A — Madhya Pradesh
The hub is being set up at Umaria village of Obedullaganj, in the Vidisha Parliamentary Constituency of Madhya Pradesh.
What is the investment in the Brahma–BEML Rail Manufacturing Hub whose foundation stone was laid in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,800 crore
The foundation stone was laid for the ₹1,800 crore Brahma–BEML Rail Manufacturing Hub, which will make Vande Bharat and metro coaches along with defence products.
Who won the men's long jump at the inaugural Indian Open World Athletics Continental Tour Bronze event in Bhubaneswar on 10 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Murali Sreeshankar
Murali Sreeshankar won with a season-best 8.13 m on his final attempt; Shahnavaz Khan was second with 8.04 m.
Consider the following statements about the athletics meet held in Bhubaneswar on 10 August 2025: 1. It was the inaugural World Athletics Continental Tour Bronze event held in India. 2. It was held at Kalinga Stadium. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Indian Open was the inaugural World Athletics Continental Tour Bronze event in India, held at Kalinga Stadium, Bhubaneswar.
Who won the men's 200 m in 20.77 seconds at the Indian Open, the World Athletics Continental Tour Bronze event held in Bhubaneswar on 10 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Animesh Kujur
Animesh Kujur; Annu Rani won the women's javelin with 62.01 m.
Where was the Khelo India ASMITA Football League 2025-26 for under-13 girls inaugurated on 10 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jalgaon
MoS Raksha Khadse inaugurated the league at the Godavari Engineering College Ground in Jalgaon, Maharashtra.
What was India's annual defence production in FY 2024-25, as announced by the Raksha Mantri on 9 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,50,590 crore
Annual defence production reached an all-time high of ₹1,50,590 crore in FY 2024-25.
By how much did India's defence production grow in FY 2024-25 over FY 2023-24?
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Correct answer: D — 18%
Production rose 18% over the ₹1.27 lakh crore recorded in FY 2023-24.
Consider the following statements about India's defence production in FY 2024-25: 1. The private sector's share of total production rose from 21% in FY 2023-24 to 23%. 2. Production by DPSUs grew faster than production by the private sector. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the private sector's share rose from 21% to 23%. Statement 2 is incorrect: DPSU production grew 16% while private-sector production grew 28%.
Consider the following statements about India's defence exports and production: 1. Defence exports reached a record ₹23,622 crore in FY 2024-25. 2. Defence production in FY 2019-20 was ₹79,071 crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Exports hit a record ₹23,622 crore in FY 2024-25 (up 12.04% from ₹21,083 crore), and production has risen 90% from ₹79,071 crore in FY 2019-20.
India's first-of-its-kind Animal Stem Cell BioBank, inaugurated on 9 August 2025, is located at which institute?
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Correct answer: B — NIAB, Hyderabad
The Animal Stem Cell BioBank and Laboratory was inaugurated at the National Institute of Animal Biotechnology (NIAB), Hyderabad.
Consider the following statements about the Animal Stem Cell BioBank at NIAB: 1. It will focus on regenerative medicine and cellular therapies for livestock. 2. Its expansion will be supported by the National Biopharma Mission of DBT–BIRAC. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The biobank will focus on regenerative medicine and cellular therapies for livestock, and will be expanded with support from the National Biopharma Mission of DBT–BIRAC.
How many Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) did the Election Commission delist on 9 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 334
The ECI delisted 334 RUPPs that were found non-compliant.
Before the August 2025 delisting, how many State Parties were registered with the Election Commission of India?
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Correct answer: B — 67
The ECI said there were 6 National Parties, 67 State Parties and 2,854 RUPPs registered with it.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's delisting of RUPPs in August 2025: 1. Delisted parties lose benefits under Sections 29B and 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. 2. A party aggrieved by the order can appeal to the Commission within 30 days. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Delisted parties cannot claim benefits under Sections 29B and 29C of the RP Act, 1951, and an aggrieved party may appeal to the Commission within 30 days of the order.
At which station did the first freight train to the Kashmir Valley arrive on 9 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Anantnag
The train, carrying cement from Punjab, reached the newly commissioned Anantnag Goods Shed.
The first freight train to the Kashmir Valley carried cement from a facility in which district of Punjab?
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Correct answer: D — Rupnagar
The cement rake was loaded at a cement facility in Rupnagar, Punjab.
Consider the following statements about the first freight train to the Kashmir Valley: 1. It carried cement in 21 wagons. 2. It ran before passenger services began on the full Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramulla Rail Link. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the rake had 21 wagons of cement. Statement 2 is incorrect: it came about two months after passenger services began on the full USBRL.
The Sanchar Saathi mobile app, which crossed 50 lakh downloads by August 2025, was launched by which department?
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Correct answer: B — Department of Telecommunications
The Sanchar Saathi app was introduced by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) on 17 January 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Sanchar Saathi initiative: 1. The Sanchar Saathi portal was launched before the mobile app, in May 2023. 2. Under the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator, mobile numbers are categorised by their association with financial fraud risk. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The portal was launched on 16 May 2023 and the app on 17 January 2025, and the FRI assesses and categorises mobile numbers by their association with financial fraud risk.
The Kakori Train Action, whose centenary was marked on 9 August 2025, was carried out by revolutionaries of which organisation?
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Correct answer: D — Hindustan Republican Association
The Kakori Train Action of 9 August 1925 was carried out by revolutionaries of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA).
Consider the following statements about the Kakori Train Action: 1. It took place near Lucknow on 9 August 1925. 2. Ram Prasad Bismil and Ashfaqulla Khan were among those later executed in 1927. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The action took place near Kakori, close to Lucknow, on 9 August 1925, and Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, Rajendra Lahiri and Roshan Singh were executed in 1927.
Which department notified the scheme for the National Awards for e-Governance (NAeG) 2026 in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) issued the scheme guidelines for the 23rd NAeG 2026.
How many awards will be conferred under the National Awards for e-Governance 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 16
A total of 16 awards, 10 Gold and 6 Silver, will be conferred across seven categories under NAeG 2026.
What is the central outlay for the four new components of Special Development Packages for Assam and Tripura approved on 8 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹4,250 crore
The Centre will provide ₹4,250 crore under the Central Sector Scheme of SDPs: ₹4,000 crore for Assam and ₹250 crore for Tripura.
The ₹250-crore Tripura component of the Special Development Packages approved in August 2025 follows a Memorandum of Settlement with which groups?
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Correct answer: C — NLFT and ATTF
The ₹250 crore is for development of tribals of Tripura under the MoS signed with the NLFT and ATTF (National Liberation Front of Twipra and All Tripura Tiger Force).
Consider the following statements about the Special Development Packages components approved in August 2025: 1. The Assam government will contribute ₹3,000 crore from its own resources. 2. The ₹500-crore component for the NCHAC area relates to a settlement with the Dimasa groups DNLA/DPSC. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Of the ₹7,250 crore total, ₹3,000 crore will be contributed by the Assam government, and ₹500 crore is for the NCHAC area inhabited by DNLA/DPSC groups.
Consider the following statements about the Memoranda of Settlement behind the new SDP components: 1. The settlement with the ULFA groups was signed in 2022. 2. The settlement with the NLFT/ATTF was signed in 2024. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the ULFA settlement was signed in 2023 (it was the Adivasi groups' settlement that was signed in 2022). Statement 2 is correct: the NLFT/ATTF settlement was signed in 2024.
How much compensation did the Union Cabinet approve in August 2025 for public sector OMCs' losses on domestic LPG?
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Correct answer: D — ₹30,000 crore
The Cabinet approved ₹30,000 crore as compensation to IOCL, BPCL and HPCL for under-recoveries on domestic LPG.
In how many tranches will the ₹30,000-crore LPG compensation to oil marketing companies be paid?
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Correct answer: B — 12
The compensation will be paid in 12 tranches, with distribution among the OMCs done by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
The MERITE scheme approved by the Union Cabinet in August 2025 relates to which sector?
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Correct answer: A — Technical education
MERITE stands for Multidisciplinary Education and Research Improvement in Technical Education and covers technical institutions.
Which international institution is providing a ₹2,100-crore loan for the MERITE scheme?
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Correct answer: C — World Bank
Of the ₹4,200-crore outlay of MERITE, ₹2,100 crore is a loan from the World Bank.
Consider the following statements about the MERITE scheme: 1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with cost-sharing between the Centre and States. 2. It is expected to support about 275 government and government-aided technical institutions. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: MERITE is a Central Sector Scheme, with funds transferred from the Centre to participating entities through a Central Nodal Agency. Statement 2 is correct: about 275 government and government-aided technical institutions are expected to be supported.
The 4-lane Marakkanam–Puducherry project approved by the CCEA on 8 August 2025 is on which national highway?
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Correct answer: C — NH-332A
The project upgrades about 46 km of NH-332A from Marakkanam to Puducherry to four lanes.
The Marakkanam–Puducherry highway project approved in August 2025 will be developed on which mode?
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Correct answer: A — Hybrid Annuity Mode
The project will be developed on Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM) at a total capital cost of ₹2,157 crore.
Consider the following statements about the Marakkanam–Puducherry project: 1. It includes a greenfield, access-controlled Puducherry bypass. 2. It will connect with the minor port of Cuddalore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The project includes a greenfield, access-controlled Puducherry bypass, and the upgraded corridor will connect two railway stations, two airports and the minor port of Cuddalore.
What Gross Merchandise Value did the Government e Marketplace (GeM) record in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — ₹5.4 lakh crore
GeM recorded ₹5.4 lakh crore in Gross Merchandise Value in FY 2024-25.
Consider the following statements about GeM's 9th Foundation Day in August 2025: 1. The celebration was held on the theme 'Ease, Access and Inclusion'. 2. Caution money for sellers was doubled to curb non-performance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the theme was 'Ease, Access and Inclusion'. Statement 2 is incorrect: caution money for sellers was eliminated, not doubled.
Till when has the PM E-DRIVE scheme been extended, as announced in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 31 March 2028
The Ministry of Heavy Industries extended the PM E-DRIVE scheme by two years, from 31 March 2026 to 31 March 2028.
What is the total outlay of the PM E-DRIVE scheme, which was kept unchanged when the scheme was extended in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,900 crore
The scheme was originally notified on 29 September 2024 with an outlay of ₹10,900 crore, and the extension is within the same outlay.
Consider the following statements about the extension of the PM E-DRIVE scheme in August 2025: 1. Support for registered electric two-wheelers will also continue till 31 March 2028. 2. The extension is meant for e-trucks, e-buses and testing agencies. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the terminal date for registered e-2Ws, e-rickshaws and e-carts, and e-3Ws (L5) remains 31 March 2026. Statement 2 is correct: the extension to 31 March 2028 is for e-trucks, e-buses and testing agencies.