SF Prep

India Current Affairs Quiz — All time

Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.

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8050 news · 18848 MCQs
Score: 0 / 0 attempted · 78 questions
Cabinet continues ₹300 targeted LPG subsidy for Ujjwala beneficiaries in 2025-26
Q1

What targeted subsidy per 14.2-kg LPG cylinder will PMUY beneficiaries get in 2025-26 under the Cabinet decision of 8 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — ₹300

PMUY beneficiaries will get a targeted subsidy of ₹300 per 14.2-kg cylinder for up to 9 refills a year.

Q2 Advanced

Up to how many refills a year are covered by the PMUY targeted subsidy for 2025-26?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 9

The ₹300 subsidy applies to up to 9 refills per year (pro-rated for 5-kg cylinders).

Q3 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana as of 2025: 1. It was launched in May 2016 to give deposit-free LPG connections to adult women from poor households. 2. India imports about 60% of its LPG requirement. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. PMUY was launched in May 2016 to provide deposit-free LPG connections to adult women of poor households, and India imports about 60% of its LPG requirement.

IndiaAI and National Cancer Grid launch CATCH grant programme for AI in cancer care
Q4

The CATCH Grant Program launched by IndiaAI and the National Cancer Grid in August 2025 supports AI innovations in which area?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Cancer screening, diagnosis and treatment

CATCH (Cancer AI & Technology Challenge) supports AI innovations in cancer screening, diagnosis and treatment.

Parliament clears Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025
Q5

The Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025, which cleared Parliament on 7 August 2025, replaces which part of the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Part XIV

The Bill replaces Part XIV of the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958 with new legislation aligned with global cabotage norms.

Q6 Advanced

What coastal cargo target by 2030 did the Shipping Minister link to the Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 230 million metric tonnes

Sarbananda Sonowal said the legislation is central to increasing India's coastal cargo share to 230 million metric tonnes by 2030.

Q7 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025: 1. It mandates the formulation of a National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan. 2. It provides for a National Database for Coastal Shipping. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. The Bill mandates a National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan and provides for a National Database for Coastal Shipping with real-time, regularly updated data.

Q8 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025: 1. It was passed by the Rajya Sabha before the Lok Sabha. 2. It comprises six chapters and 42 clauses. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill first, on 3 April 2025, and the Rajya Sabha passed it on 7 August 2025. Statement 2 is correct: the Bill has six chapters and 42 clauses.

ECI notifies Vice-Presidential Election 2025 schedule; poll, if needed, on 9 September
Q9

On which date was the poll, if necessary, scheduled for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 9 September 2025

The ECI fixed 9 September 2025 as the date on which a poll shall, if necessary, be taken.

Q10 Advanced

Who was appointed Returning Officer for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Secretary-General, Rajya Sabha

Shri P.C. Mody, Secretary-General, Rajya Sabha, was appointed the Returning Officer for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025.

Q11 Advanced

What security deposit must each candidate make for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — ₹15,000

Every candidate has to deposit a sum of ₹15,000 (Rupees Fifteen Thousand only).

Q12 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025 schedule: 1. The last date for withdrawal of candidatures was 25 August 2025. 2. Nomination papers had to be accompanied by a certified copy of the candidate's entry in the electoral roll of the Parliamentary constituency where the candidate is registered. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. 25 August 2025 was fixed as the last date for withdrawal, and each nomination paper had to be accompanied by a certified copy of the candidate's electoral roll entry for the Parliamentary constituency where the candidate is registered.

PM inaugurates M.S. Swaminathan Centenary Conference; first Food and Peace Award goes to Nigeria's Prof. Adenle
Q13

The first M.S. Swaminathan Award for Food and Peace, presented on 7 August 2025, went to a scientist from which country?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Nigeria

The Prime Minister congratulated Professor Adenle of Nigeria, the first recipient of the award.

Q14 Advanced

What was the theme of the M.S. Swaminathan Centenary International Conference held in August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Evergreen Revolution, The Pathway to Biohappiness

The theme of the conference was 'Evergreen Revolution, The Pathway to Biohappiness', reflecting Professor Swaminathan's ideas.

Q15 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the M.S. Swaminathan Award for Food and Peace: 1. It was launched by the M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation and The World Academy of Sciences. 2. It is meant only for Indian agricultural scientists. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the award was launched by the MSSRF and The World Academy of Sciences (TWAS). Statement 2 is incorrect: it recognises individuals from developing countries who have contributed to food security, climate justice, equity and peace.

NCERT adds chapters on Sam Manekshaw, Brigadier Mohammad Usman and Major Somnath Sharma
Q16

A chapter on which officer, India's first to be conferred the rank of Field Marshal, was added to the NCERT syllabus in 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Sam Manekshaw

A chapter on Field Marshal Sam Manekshaw, India's first officer to be conferred the rank of Field Marshal, was added in Class VIII (Urdu).

Q17 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the new NCERT chapters announced in August 2025: 1. Brigadier Mohammad Usman was a posthumous recipient of the Param Vir Chakra. 2. The chapter on Major Somnath Sharma has been added in the Class VIII English textbook. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: Brigadier Mohammad Usman received the Maha Vir Chakra (posthumously), while Major Somnath Sharma received the Param Vir Chakra (posthumously). Statement 2 is correct: the chapter on Major Somnath Sharma is in Class VIII (English).

CDS releases declassified Joint Doctrines for Cyberspace and Amphibious Operations
Q18

Declassified Joint Doctrines for which two areas were released by the CDS on 7 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Cyberspace Operations and Amphibious Operations

General Anil Chauhan released the declassified Joint Doctrines for Cyberspace Operations and Amphibious Operations.

Q19 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the joint doctrines released in August 2025: 1. The Joint Doctrine for Cyberspace Operations integrates offensive and defensive cyber capabilities across the three Services. 2. The Joint Doctrine for Amphibious Operations deals only with naval forces. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the cyberspace doctrine integrates offensive and defensive cyber capabilities and enables synchronised operations across the three Services. Statement 2 is incorrect: the amphibious doctrine integrates maritime, air and land forces.

11th National Handloom Day: 24 master weavers get Sant Kabir and National Handloom Awards
Q20

National Handloom Day is observed on 7 August to commemorate the launch of which movement in 1905?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Swadeshi Movement

National Handloom Day is celebrated annually on 7 August to commemorate the launch of the Swadeshi Movement in 1905.

Q21 Advanced

In which city was the first National Handloom Day inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2015?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Chennai

The first National Handloom Day was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Chennai in 2015.

Q22 Advanced

Consider the following statements made on the 11th National Handloom Day: 1. The handloom sector employs over 35 lakh people, more than 70% of them women. 2. The Sant Kabir and National Handloom Awards were conferred on 24 master weavers. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. The handloom sector employs over 35 lakh people with more than 70% women, and the Sant Kabir and National Handloom Awards went to 24 master weavers, including six women and one Divyang artisan.

Indian aquanauts dive to 4,025 m and 5,002 m in the Atlantic aboard French submersible Nautile
Q23

What was the maximum depth reached by an Indian aquanaut during the Indo-French deep dives in the Atlantic in August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 5,002 m

Cdr (Retd) Jatinder Pal Singh reached 5,002 m, while Raju Ramesh reached 4,025 m, India's deepest-ever dives.

Q24 Advanced

The Indian aquanauts' record dives of August 2025 were made aboard Nautile, a submersible belonging to which institution?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — IFREMER (France)

The dives were a collaborative activity with IFREMER (France), the French marine research institute, aboard its submersible Nautile.

Q25 Advanced

Consider the following statements about India's Samudrayaan mission, as described in August 2025: 1. It aims to send three aquanauts to a depth of 6,000 m in the submersible MATSYA-6000 by 2027. 2. MATSYA-6000 is being developed by the National Institute of Oceanography, Goa. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: Samudrayaan aims to send three aquanauts to 6,000 m in MATSYA-6000 by 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect: MATSYA-6000 is being developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.

Q26 Advanced

Consider the following statements about MATSYA-6000: 1. It is designed for an operational endurance of 12 hours and an emergency endurance of up to 96 hours. 2. It completed wet trials at L&T Shipyard, Kattupalli, in early 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. MATSYA-6000 is designed for 12 hours of operational and up to 96 hours of emergency endurance, and completed wet trials at L&T Shipyard, Kattupalli, Tamil Nadu, in January–February 2025.

RBI MPC keeps repo rate unchanged at 5.50%, retains neutral stance
Q27

At what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee keep the policy repo rate in its August 2025 meeting?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 5.50%

The MPC unanimously voted to keep the policy repo rate unchanged at 5.50%.

Q28 Advanced

What CPI inflation did the RBI's MPC project for 2025-26 in August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 3.1%

Considering all factors, CPI inflation for 2025-26 was projected at 3.1%.

Q29 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the RBI's monetary policy decision of August 2025: 1. The standing deposit facility rate remained at 5.25% and the marginal standing facility rate at 5.75%. 2. The MPC changed its stance from neutral to accommodative. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the SDF rate stayed at 5.25% and the MSF rate and Bank Rate at 5.75%. Statement 2 is incorrect: all members decided to continue with the neutral stance.

Q30 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the RBI's August 2025 policy: 1. The MPC projected real GDP growth for 2025-26 at 6.5%. 2. The decision to keep the repo rate unchanged was taken by a 4–2 majority. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: real GDP growth for 2025-26 was projected at 6.5%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the MPC voted unanimously to keep the repo rate unchanged.

PM Modi dedicates Kartavya Bhavan-3 on Kartavya Path to the nation
Q31

Kartavya Bhavan-3, inaugurated by the Prime Minister on 6 August 2025, is located on which road in New Delhi?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Kartavya Path

The Prime Minister addressed the inauguration programme of Kartavya Bhavan-3 at Kartavya Path, New Delhi.

Q32 Advanced

According to the Prime Minister at the Kartavya Bhavan inauguration, about how much does the government spend every year on rent for scattered ministry offices?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — ₹1,500 crore

The Prime Minister said the annual expenditure on rent for ministries operating from rented buildings is about ₹1,500 crore.

Q33 Advanced

At the inauguration of Kartavya Bhavan-3 on 6 August 2025, the Prime Minister said ministries were operating from about how many different locations across Delhi?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 50

50 locations, many in rented buildings, costing about ₹1,500 crore a year in rent.

Rajya Sabha passes Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025, repealing 1925 Act
Q34

The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025, passed by the Rajya Sabha on 6 August 2025, repeals an Act of which year?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1925

The Bill repeals the century-old Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925.

Q35 Advanced

Which internationally accepted set of maritime rules does the Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025 adopt?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Hague-Visby Rules

The Bill adopts the Hague-Visby Rules, a globally accepted maritime standard also followed by countries like the United Kingdom.

Q36 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the maritime bills of 6 August 2025: 1. The Lok Sabha passed the Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025 on the same day the Rajya Sabha passed the Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025. 2. The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025 was introduced in the Rajya Sabha by Minister of State Shantanu Thakur. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. On 6 August 2025 the Lok Sabha cleared the Merchant Shipping Bill and the Rajya Sabha passed the Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, which was introduced by MoS Shantanu Thakur.

Assam launches Nijut Moina 2.0 to support girls' higher education
Q37

Nijut Moina 2.0, launched on 6 August 2025 to support girls' higher education, is a scheme of which state?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Assam

Assam Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma launched Mukhya Mantrir Nijut Moina 2.0 at Gauhati University.

Q38 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Nijut Moina 2.0: 1. A postgraduate girl student gets ₹2,500 a month for 10 months in a year. 2. Only girls from families below the poverty line are eligible. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: PG-level students get ₹2,500 a month for 10 months. Statement 2 is incorrect: girls from all families, irrespective of economic condition, are eligible.

Q39 Advanced

About how many girls are to benefit in 2025 under Assam's Nijut Moina 2.0, launched on 6 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 4 lakh

4 lakh girls, up from about 1.6 lakh the previous year.

India and Russia hold 11th session of Working Group on Modernization and Industrial Cooperation
Q40

Who co-chaired the 11th session of the India–Russia Working Group on Modernization and Industrial Cooperation from the Indian side in August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Secretary, DPIIT

The session was co-chaired from the Indian side by Amardeep Singh Bhatia, Secretary, DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Defence Acquisition Council clears proposals worth about ₹67,000 crore
Q41

What was the approximate total value of the proposals cleared by the Defence Acquisition Council on 5 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — About ₹67,000 crore

The DAC chaired by Rajnath Singh approved proposals amounting to a total cost of about ₹67,000 crore.

Q42 Advanced

Which procurement cleared for the Indian Navy by the DAC in August 2025 is meant for detection, classification and neutralisation of threats in anti-submarine warfare missions?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Compact Autonomous Surface Craft

The Compact Autonomous Surface Craft will give the Navy the capability to detect, classify and neutralise threats in anti-submarine warfare missions.

Q43 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the DAC approvals of 5 August 2025: 1. The SAKSHAM/SPYDER Weapon System of the Air Force is to be upgraded for integration with the Integrated Air Command and Control System. 2. AoN for Medium Altitude Long Endurance (MALE) RPAs was accorded only for the Indian Air Force. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the SAKSHAM/SPYDER upgrade is for integration with the Integrated Air Command and Control System. Statement 2 is incorrect: AoN for MALE RPAs was accorded for all three Services.

Q44 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the DAC approvals of 5 August 2025: 1. AoN was accorded for the procurement of additional S-400 squadrons. 2. AoN was accorded for the sustenance of the C-17 and C-130J fleets. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: the S-400 approval was for a comprehensive annual maintenance contract, not new squadrons. Statement 2 is correct: AoN was accorded for sustenance of the C-17 and C-130J fleets.

India and the Philippines establish a Strategic Partnership during President Marcos's State Visit
Q45

During the State Visit of Philippine President Ferdinand R. Marcos Jr. in August 2025, India and the Philippines elevated their ties to which level?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Strategic Partnership

On 5 August 2025, the two countries signed a Declaration establishing a Strategic Partnership between India and the Philippines.

Q46 Advanced

The India–Philippines Strategic Partnership established in August 2025 is guided by a Plan of Action covering which period?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 2025-2029

The declaration states that the Strategic Partnership is guided by the Plan of Action (2025-2029), adopted on 5 August 2025.

Q47 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the India–Philippines Strategic Partnership declaration of August 2025: 1. It marks the 75th anniversary of diplomatic relations, established in 1949, and recalls the Treaty of Friendship signed on 11 July 1952. 2. It reiterates both countries' strong support for ASEAN Centrality. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. The declaration celebrates 75 years of diplomatic relations established in 1949, emphasises the Treaty of Friendship of 11 July 1952, and reiterates strong support for ASEAN Centrality.

Q48 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the outcomes of the Philippine President's State Visit to India in August 2025: 1. India extended a gratis e-tourist visa facility to Filipino nationals for one year from August 2025. 2. India and the Philippines signed a Free Trade Agreement during the visit. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: a gratis e-tourist visa facility was extended to Filipino nationals for one year from August 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: the two sides only adopted Terms of Reference for negotiations on a Preferential Trade Agreement.

Q49 Advanced

During the Philippine President's visit in August 2025, a Statement of Intent on cooperation in the peaceful uses of outer space was signed between the Philippine Space Agency and which Indian body?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Indian Space Research Organisation

The list of outcomes includes a Statement of Intent between the Indian Space Research Organisation and the Philippine Space Agency on cooperation on the peaceful uses of outer space.

Maharashtra Cabinet approves Startup, Entrepreneurship and Innovation Policy 2025
Q50

The Maharashtra Startup, Entrepreneurship and Innovation Policy 2025 aims to recognise how many startups over five years?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 50,000

The policy aims to support 1.25 lakh entrepreneurs and recognise 50,000 startups over five years.

Q51 Advanced

Under Maharashtra's Startup Policy 2025, a 300-acre 'Maharashtra Innovation City' is proposed at which location?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Navi Mumbai

The policy provides for a new 300-acre Maharashtra Innovation City in Navi Mumbai.

Q52 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Maharashtra Startup, Entrepreneurship and Innovation Policy 2025: 1. The Chief Minister's ₹500 crore Maha-Fund will support 25,000 early-stage entrepreneurs selected from a pool of 5 lakh youth. 2. Each state department must reserve 5% of its annual funds for innovation and entrepreneurship. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the ₹500 crore Maha-Fund will assist 25,000 early-stage entrepreneurs chosen from 5 lakh youth through a three-stage process. Statement 2 is incorrect: departments must reserve 0.5% of their annual funds.

Flash flood and debris slide devastate Dharali in Uttarkashi, Uttarakhand
Q53

Dharali, devastated by a flash flood and debris slide on 5 August 2025, is in which district of Uttarakhand?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Uttarkashi

Dharali village lies in Uttarkashi district; the flash flood followed a sharp rise in the Kheer Ganga river.

Q54 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Dharali disaster of 5 August 2025: 1. The flash flood followed a sharp rise in the water level of the Kheer Ganga river. 2. IMD data from Harsil showed rainfall of over 100 mm per hour, confirming a cloudburst. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the Dharali market area was hit after the Kheer Ganga's water level rose. Statement 2 is incorrect: an IMD scientist said Harsil recorded only 8 mm between 8:30 am and 4:30 pm, which does not meet the cloudburst criterion of 100 mm or more per hour.

Satyapal Malik, last Governor of the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir, dies at 79
Q55

Satyapal Malik, who died on 5 August 2025, was the last Governor of which erstwhile state?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Jammu and Kashmir

Satyapal Malik served as the last Governor of the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir from August 2018 to October 2019.

Q56 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Satyapal Malik (died August 2025): 1. He served as Union Minister of State for Parliamentary Affairs and Tourism in 1990. 2. His tenure as Governor of Jammu and Kashmir coincided with the abrogation of Article 370. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct. Malik was Union Minister of State for Parliamentary Affairs and Tourism in 1990, and his 2018–19 tenure in Jammu and Kashmir coincided with the abrogation of Article 370.

Maharashtra Cabinet approves 105-km freight corridor from Vadhavan Port to Samruddhi Expressway
Q57

The freight corridor approved by the Maharashtra Cabinet in August 2025 will connect Vadhavan Port to the Samruddhi Expressway at which place?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Bharvir

The 105-km corridor will link Vadhavan Port in Palghar to the Samruddhi Expressway at Bharvir in Nashik district.

Q58 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Vadhavan–Samruddhi freight corridor approved in August 2025: 1. It will be implemented by the National Highways Authority of India. 2. Vadhavan Port, its starting point, is in Palghar district. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: the corridor will be implemented by the Maharashtra State Road Development Corporation (MSRDC). Statement 2 is correct: the corridor starts at the upcoming Vadhavan Port in Palghar.

Inaugural India–New Zealand Defence Strategic Dialogue held in New Delhi
Q59

The inaugural India–New Zealand Defence Strategic Dialogue, held in New Delhi on 5 August 2025, was constituted under an MoU signed in which month?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — March 2025

The dialogue was constituted under an MoU signed between the two countries in March 2025.

Q60 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the inaugural India–New Zealand Defence Strategic Dialogue (August 2025): 1. It was held in Wellington. 2. It was co-chaired by the defence ministers of the two countries. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2

Neither statement is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect: the dialogue was held in New Delhi. Statement 2 is incorrect: it was co-chaired by Joint Secretary (International Cooperation) Amitabh Prasad and New Zealand's Head of International Branch Kathleen Pearce.

PM GatiShakti: 293 infrastructure projects worth ₹13.59 lakh crore evaluated through Network Planning Group
Q61

As per the government's reply of August 2025, how many infrastructure projects have been evaluated through the Network Planning Group mechanism under PM GatiShakti?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 293

So far, 293 infrastructure projects amounting to ₹13.59 lakh crore have been evaluated through the NPG mechanism.

Q62 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan, as stated in August 2025: 1. It has a specific and separate fund allocation in the Union Budget. 2. 36 States/UTs have been onboarded on the platform. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan has no specific or separate fund allocation. Statement 2 is correct: 36 States/UTs have been onboarded on PMGS NMP.

JNCASR study identifies the miR-7a–Klf4 axis as a potential therapeutic target in Alzheimer's disease
Q63 Advanced

A JNCASR study reported in August 2025 identified which microRNA–protein axis as regulating neuroinflammation and ferroptosis in Alzheimer's disease?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — miR-7a–Klf4

The researchers found a significant increase in miR-7a, which targets Klf4; the miR-7a–Klf4 axis regulates neuroinflammation and ferroptosis.

Indian Navy's Eastern Fleet ships conclude Manila port call after exercise with Philippine Navy
Q64 Advanced

Which Indian Navy ships concluded a port call at Manila and exercised with the Philippine Navy in early August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — INS Delhi, INS Shakti and INS Kiltan

INS Delhi, INS Shakti and INS Kiltan of the Eastern Fleet concluded the Manila port call and held a bilateral maritime exercise with Philippine Navy ships on 3–4 August 2025.

IASST Guwahati decodes the venom of the glossy black scorpion Heterometrus bengalensis
Q65 Advanced

The first comprehensive venom profile of the black scorpion Heterometrus bengalensis, reported in August 2025, was prepared by scientists of an institute located in which city?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Guwahati

The study was conducted by the Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST), Guwahati, an autonomous institute of DST.

Lalit Kala Akademi's 64th National Exhibition of Art opens with award-winning works on sale for the first time
Q66

What was introduced for the first time at the Lalit Kala Akademi's 64th National Exhibition of Art in August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Award-winning artworks made available for sale

Award-winning artworks made available for sale: in a first in the event's history, the Akademi opened award-winning works to buyers, aligned with the National Mission on Cultural Mapping.

India beat England by six runs at The Oval to draw the Test series 2-2
Q67

By what margin did India beat England in the fifth Test at The Oval on 4 August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 6 runs

India won by 6 runs, its closest Test victory by runs, to draw the series 2-2.

Q68

What was the final result of the 2025 England–India Test series for the Anderson-Tendulkar Trophy?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Series drawn 2-2

Series drawn 2-2: India's six-run win at The Oval levelled the five-match series.

Q69 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Oval Test of August 2025: 1. It was India's first-ever Test victory at The Oval. 2. Shubman Gill's 754 runs are the most by any batter in a Test series between England and India. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: it was India's third Test win at The Oval, after 1971 and 2021. Statement 2 is correct: no batter has scored more runs in an England–India series than Gill's 754, which passed Graham Gooch's 752 from 1990.

Q70 Advanced

Who took five wickets in England's second innings and was Player of the Match in India's six-run win at The Oval in August 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Mohammed Siraj

Mohammed Siraj took 5 for 104, bowling Gus Atkinson with a yorker to seal the win, and was named Player of the Match.

Army Chief inaugurates 'Agnishodh', the Indian Army Research Cell at IIT Madras
Q71

'Agnishodh', the Indian Army Research Cell inaugurated by the Army Chief on 4 August 2025, is located at which institution?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — IIT Madras

Agnishodh, the Indian Army Research Cell, was established on the IIT Madras campus and inaugurated by General Upendra Dwivedi.

Q72 Advanced

The Army's 'Agnishodh' research cell (August 2025) specifically advances which of the Army Chief's Five Pillars of Transformation?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Modernisation and Technology Infusion

Agnishodh specifically advances the pillar of Modernisation and Technology Infusion, integrating academic research with operational applications.

Pariksha Pe Charcha 2025 gets Guinness World Record for most registrations on a citizen engagement platform in one month
Q73

Pariksha Pe Charcha 2025 earned a Guinness World Record for how many valid registrations received in one month?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 3.53 crore

The record recognises 3.53 crore valid registrations received for the 8th edition on the MyGov platform.

Q74 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Guinness World Record conferred on Pariksha Pe Charcha in August 2025: 1. Pariksha Pe Charcha has been organised by the Ministry of Education in collaboration with MyGov since 2018. 2. The record was for the largest live television audience for an educational programme. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: PPC has been organised by the Ministry of Education with MyGov since 2018. Statement 2 is incorrect: the record was for the most people registered on a Citizen Engagement Platform in one month.

Q75

The Guinness World Record conferred on Pariksha Pe Charcha in August 2025 recognised registrations for which edition of the programme?

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Correct answer: D — 8th

8th edition (PPC 2025), with 3.53 crore valid registrations on MyGov.

DoT cuts telecom security test evaluation fees by up to 95% under ComSec
Q76

Under the revised ComSec fee structure effective 1 August 2025, what is the security test evaluation fee for Group A telecom equipment?

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Correct answer: A — ₹10,000

Fees for Group A equipment dropped to ₹10,000 from ₹2,00,000 under the revised ComSec structure.

Q77 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the DoT's ComSec changes announced in August 2025: 1. Optical Line Terminals and Optical Networking Terminals are under mandatory security testing. 2. Government R&D institutes such as C-DOT and CDAC are fully exempted from security test evaluation fees for applications until 31 March 2028. Which of the above is/are correct?

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Correct answer: B — 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: Optical Line Terminals and Optical Networking Terminals are subject to voluntary security certification. Statement 2 is correct: C-DOT, CDAC and other government R&D institutes are fully exempted for applications until 31 March 2028.

Q78

By up to what percentage did the Department of Telecommunications cut security test evaluation fees under the ComSec scheme, as announced on 4 August 2025?

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Correct answer: C — 95%

95%; fees that earlier ranged from ₹2,00,000 to ₹3,50,000 now range from ₹10,000 to ₹50,000.