WBPSC WBCS Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What is the combined weight of the eight core industries in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
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Correct answer: B — 40.27%
PIB 2098037: the eight core industries comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight of items included in the IIP.
Which of the eight core industries recorded a decline in December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Natural gas
PIB 2098037: all core sectors except natural gas, which declined 1.8%, recorded positive growth in December 2024.
What was the Ground Level Agriculture Credit target set for FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — ₹27.5 lakh crore
PIB 2098065: the GLC target for FY 2024-25 is ₹27.5 lakh crore; ₹19.28 lakh crore was disbursed by 31.12.2024 and ₹25.48 lakh crore was the FY24 disbursement.
What sub-target for allied activities was included in the FY 2024-25 Ground Level Agriculture Credit target?
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Correct answer: B — ₹4.20 lakh crore
PIB 2098065: a dedicated sub-target of ₹4.20 lakh crore was set for allied activities such as dairy, poultry and fisheries.
On which virtual digital asset service provider did FIU-IND impose a ₹9.27 crore penalty in January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Bybit Fintech Limited
PIB 2098153: FIU-IND imposed a penalty of ₹9,27,00,000 on Bybit Fintech Limited, a VDA service provider.
Under which law did FIU-IND impose the January 2025 penalty on Bybit?
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Correct answer: C — Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
PIB 2098153: the penalty was imposed under Section 13 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 for violating Section 12(1) and the PML Rules.
What is the theme of the BRICS Youth Council Entrepreneurship Working Group Meeting hosted by India in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Youth Entrepreneurship for Sustainable Growth
PIB 2097834: the theme of the meeting (3–7 March 2025) is 'Youth Entrepreneurship for Sustainable Growth'.
What was the average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) in rural India in 2023-24, as per HCES 2023-24 (without imputation)?
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Correct answer: D — ₹4,122
PIB 2097601: average MPCE in 2023-24 was ₹4,122 (rural) and ₹6,996 (urban) without imputed values; with imputation ₹4,247 and ₹7,078.
Among major states, which state had the lowest urban–rural gap in average MPCE in 2023-24 according to HCES 2023-24?
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Correct answer: A — Kerala
PIB 2097601: the lowest urban–rural gap in 2023-24 was in Kerala (about 18%) and the highest in Jharkhand (around 83%).
Consider the following statements about HCES 2023-24: 1. The urban–rural gap in MPCE declined to 70% in 2023-24. 2. The Gini coefficient of consumption in rural areas declined to 0.237. 3. The Gini coefficient in urban areas rose compared to 2022-23. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097601: the urban–rural gap fell to 70% and rural Gini fell to 0.237; urban Gini also fell, from 0.314 to 0.284, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which Indian Navy sailboat crossed Point Nemo on 30 January 2025 during Navika Sagar Parikrama II?
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Correct answer: D — INSV Tarini
PIB 2098252: INSV Tarini, sailed by Lt Cdr Dilna K and Lt Cdr Roopa A, crossed Point Nemo at 0030 hrs IST on 30 January 2025.
Point Nemo, crossed by INSV Tarini in January 2025, is known as:
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Correct answer: A — The Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility
PIB 2098252: Point Nemo is the Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility, about 2,688 km from the nearest landmass.
Consider the following statements about Navika Sagar Parikrama II: 1. INSV Tarini was flagged off from Goa on 2 October 2024. 2. Point Nemo was crossed during the leg from Lyttelton to Port Stanley. 3. Water samples from Point Nemo are to be analysed by ISRO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2098252: the crew were flagged off from Goa on 2 October 2024 and crossed Point Nemo on the Lyttelton–Port Stanley leg; the samples will be analysed by the National Institute of Oceanography, not ISRO.
In how many Indian languages does the Sahitya Akademi give its main annual award, for which books were invited directly for the first time in 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 24
PIB 2097806: books in 24 Indian languages recognised by the Akademi were invited directly for the main award for 2025.
Books published in which period were eligible for the Sahitya Akademi Award 2025 under the new submission system?
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Correct answer: B — 2019 to 2023
PIB 2097806: books published between 1 January 2019 and 31 December 2023 could be sent by 28 February 2025.
Which State/UT's tableau was judged the best at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Uttar Pradesh
PIB 2097650: Uttar Pradesh's 'Mahakumbh 2025 – Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas' was first, Tripura second and Andhra Pradesh third; Gujarat topped the popular-choice poll.
Which contingent was judged the best marching contingent among the Services at Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jammu & Kashmir Rifles Contingent
PIB 2097650: the Jammu & Kashmir Rifles contingent was judged best among Services; the Signals contingent won the popular-choice poll.
Tripura's tableau, placed second at Republic Day Parade 2025, was based on which festival?
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Correct answer: A — Kharchi Puja
PIB 2097650: Tripura's tableau was 'Eternal Reverence: The worship of 14 Deities in Tripura – Kharchi Puja'.
About how many GPUs did the IndiaAI Mission's common computing facility have, as announced on 30 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 18,693
PIB 2097709: the IndiaAI Mission created a common computing facility of about 18,693 GPUs; computation begins with roughly 10,000 and the remaining 8,693 will be added.
After the government subsidy, what was the stated cost of AI compute per hour under the IndiaAI Mission?
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Correct answer: A — Less than ₹100 per hour
PIB 2097709: compute will cost less than ₹100 per hour after a 40% government subsidy, against 2.5–3 dollars per hour for global models.
Who assumed charge as the Controller of Warship Production & Acquisition of the Indian Navy on 30 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Vice Admiral Rajaram Swaminathan
PIB 2097791: Vice Admiral Rajaram Swaminathan assumed charge on 30 January 2025 from Vice Admiral B Sivakumar.
Vice Admiral Rajaram Swaminathan, who became Controller of Warship Production & Acquisition in January 2025, served for more than nine years on which aircraft carrier?
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Correct answer: A — INS Viraat
PIB 2097791: he worked onboard INS Viraat for more than nine years; he was also involved in acquiring Vikramaditya as Warship Production Superintendent in Russia.
Astronomers of which institute devised a method, reported in January 2025, to estimate the radial size of coronal mass ejections from single-point measurements?
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Correct answer: A — Indian Institute of Astrophysics
PIB 2097599: astronomers at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics, an autonomous institute of DST, devised the method.
How many people in India are threatened by Lymphatic Filariasis, as stated on World NTD Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 404 million
PIB 2097724: LF threatens 404 million people in India.
Which neglected tropical disease did the Health Ministry describe as 'at the cusp of elimination' in India on World NTD Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar)
PIB 2097724: VL or Kala-azar is at the cusp of elimination in India.
Which launch vehicle carried out ISRO's 100th launch from Sriharikota on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — GSLV-F15
ISRO: GSLV-F15 lifted off from the Second Launch Pad on 29 January 2025, the 100th launch from Sriharikota.
The NVS-02 satellite launched on 29 January 2025 belongs to which Indian system?
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Correct answer: A — NavIC
ISRO: NVS-02 is a navigation satellite of the NavIC series, India's independent regional navigation satellite system.
Consider the following statements about the GSLV-F15/NVS-02 mission: 1. It lifted off from the Second Launch Pad at Sriharikota. 2. It was the 17th launch of GSLV. 3. NVS-02 was raised to its designated orbital slot within a week of launch. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: GSLV-F15 lifted off from the Second Launch Pad and was the 17th GSLV launch; orbit raising could not be carried out because the oxidiser valves did not open.
What is the total outlay of the National Critical Mineral Mission approved by the Union Cabinet on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹34,300 crore
PIB 2097308: ₹16,300 crore government expenditure plus ₹18,000 crore expected investment by PSUs etc. makes ₹34,300 crore over seven years.
Over what period will the National Critical Mineral Mission's ₹34,300 crore outlay be spread?
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Correct answer: C — Seven years
PIB 2097308: the outlay of ₹34,300 crore is over seven years.
Consider the following statements about the National Critical Mineral Mission: 1. It was announced in the Union Budget 2024-25. 2. It proposes a national stockpile of critical minerals. 3. It excludes offshore exploration of critical minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097308: the mission was announced in the Budget on 23 July 2024 and proposes a stockpile; it will intensify exploration within the country and in its offshore areas.
What guarantee coverage does the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs, approved in January 2025, provide to lenders?
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Correct answer: B — 60%
PIB 2097455: NCGTC provides 60% guarantee coverage to member lending institutions for credit up to ₹100 crore.
Consider the following statements about MCGS-MSME: 1. Loans up to ₹100 crore are eligible for guarantee cover. 2. Equipment or machinery must be at least 75% of the project cost. 3. The guarantee is provided by SIDBI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097455: loans up to ₹100 crore are covered and equipment must be at least 75% of project cost; the guarantee is given by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC), not SIDBI.
According to ASUSE 2023-24, which state had the highest number of unincorporated sector establishments?
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Correct answer: C — Uttar Pradesh
PIB 2097316: Uttar Pradesh had the highest number of establishments, followed by West Bengal and Maharashtra.
By how much did the number of establishments in the unincorporated sector grow in ASUSE 2023-24 over 2022-23?
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Correct answer: B — 12.84%
PIB 2097316: establishments grew 12.84% (6.50 crore to 7.34 crore); workers grew 10.01% and GVA 16.52%.
Which state topped Gross Value Added in the unincorporated sector as per ASUSE 2023-24?
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Correct answer: C — Maharashtra
PIB 2097316: the top three states in GVA were Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat.
How much did the High-Level Committee chaired by the Union Home Minister approve for disaster mitigation on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹3,027.86 crore
PIB 2097448: the HLC approved ₹3,027.86 crore in total for drought, lightning and forest fire mitigation projects.
The forest fire risk management scheme approved on 29 January 2025 covers how many high-priority districts?
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Correct answer: C — 144
PIB 2097448: the forest fire scheme covers 144 high-priority districts in 19 states at ₹818.92 crore.
From which fund are the drought and lightning mitigation projects approved by the High-Level Committee in January 2025 to be financed?
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Correct answer: A — National Disaster Mitigation Fund
PIB 2097448: the HLC considered the lightning and drought proposals for funding from the National Disaster Mitigation Fund (NDMF).
What administered ex-mill price was fixed on 29 January 2025 for ethanol from C-heavy molasses for ESY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — ₹57.97 per litre
PIB 2097305: the price was fixed at ₹57.97 per litre, up from ₹56.58 per litre.
The Ethanol Supply Year (ESY) used under the Ethanol Blended Petrol Programme runs from:
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Correct answer: B — 1 November to 31 October
PIB 2097305: ESY is defined as the period from 1 November of a year to 31 October of the following year.
Consider the following statements about ethanol blending in India: 1. Average blending by public sector OMCs reached 14.60% in ESY 2023-24. 2. The 20% blending target has been advanced to ESY 2025-26. 3. OMCs plan to achieve 20% blending in ESY 2024-25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097305: blending averaged 14.60% in ESY 2023-24 and the 20% target was advanced to ESY 2025-26; OMCs plan 18%, not 20%, in ESY 2024-25.
According to a study by the Indian Institute of Geomagnetism reported in January 2025, the north magnetic pole has been drifting from:
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Correct answer: A — Canada towards Siberia
PIB 2097391: the north magnetic pole, which was in Canada till 1990, has drifted towards Siberia, moving at about 50 km per year by 2020.
The Occupational Shortage Index launched by the Labour Ministry on 29 January 2025 is based on which data source?
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Correct answer: D — Quarterly Periodic Labour Force Survey data
PIB 2097431: the OSI is based on ILO methodology and quarterly PLFS data.
Researchers of which institute reported electron confinement-induced plasmonic breakdown in metals in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research
PIB 2097003: the study was by JNCASR, Bengaluru, led by Prof. Bivas Saha.
'Vasudha', whose winner was announced on 28 January 2025, is a global startup challenge in which sector?
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Correct answer: A — Upstream oil and gas
PIB 2097144: Vasudha is the global startup challenge in the upstream oil and gas sector; Latin Energy Partners Inc., Paraguay won it.
Which institution won the hackathon announced alongside Avinya'25 and Vasudha in January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — IIT (ISM) Dhanbad
PIB 2097144: IIT (ISM) Dhanbad won the hackathon and IIT Guwahati was runner-up.
Which startup won Avinya'25, India's energy startup competition, in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — UrjanovaC Pvt Ltd
PIB 2097144: UrjanovaC Pvt Ltd won Avinya'25; Breathe ESG, AgriVijay, Apeiro Energy and UGreen Technology were runners-up.
Renew Exim DMCC, whose acquisition of up to 72.64% of ITD Cementation India was approved by CCI in January 2025, belongs to which group?
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Correct answer: B — Adani group
PIB 2097096: the acquirer is incorporated in Dubai and belongs to the Adani group.
ITD Cementation India Limited, whose acquisition was approved by CCI in January 2025, is mainly engaged in which business?
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Correct answer: B — Engineering and construction (EPC)
PIB 2097096: ITD Cementation India is an engineering and construction company undertaking heavy civil, infrastructure and EPC business.
How many registrations did the 8th edition of Pariksha Pe Charcha (2025) receive?
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Correct answer: B — 3.56 crore
PIB 2096983: PPC 2025 received 3.56 crore registrations; the 7th edition had 2.26 crore.
In which year did Pariksha Pe Charcha begin?
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Correct answer: B — 2018
PIB 2096983: since its beginning in 2018, PPC has grown into a nationwide movement.
Pariksha Pe Charcha 2025's nationwide 'Jan Andolan' activities began on 12 January 2025, which is observed as:
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Correct answer: D — National Youth Day
PIB 2096983: the activities were conducted from 12 January 2025 (National Youth Day).
What minimum efficiency does the Solar QCO 2025 set for poly-crystalline silicon PV modules?
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Correct answer: C — 17%
PIB 2097219: 17% for poly-crystalline silicon modules and 18% for mono-crystalline silicon and thin-film modules.
Under which law was the Solar Systems, Devices, and Components Goods Order, 2025 notified?
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Correct answer: C — Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016
PIB 2097219: the order was notified in the Gazette dated 27.01.2025 under the BIS Act, 2016.
Consider the following statements about the Solar QCO 2025: 1. It covers solar PV modules, inverters and storage batteries. 2. It comes into effect 180 days from the date of publication. 3. Products meant exclusively for export are also covered. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097219: the order covers modules, inverters and storage batteries and takes effect after 180 days; products exclusively for export are exempted.
Where did India and Oman sign the protocol amending their Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement on 27 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Muscat
Oman Ministry of Foreign Affairs (27 January 2025): the protocol was signed in Muscat.
Which session of the India-Oman Joint Commission Meeting did Piyush Goyal co-chair during his January 2025 visit to Oman?
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Correct answer: C — 11th
PIB 2097043: Goyal co-chaired the 11th Session of the India-Oman JCM with Qais bin Mohammed Al Yousef.
As announced in January 2025, roughly how many track kilometres of Indian Railways had been upgraded for speeds up to 130 kmph?
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Correct answer: A — Over 23,000
PIB 2096768: over 23,000 TKM were upgraded for 130 kmph; about 54,337 TKM were upgraded for 110 kmph.
Sections of which two major rail corridors prominently feature in the 130 kmph track upgrades?
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Correct answer: A — Golden Quadrilateral and Golden Diagonal
PIB 2096768: the upgrades prominently feature sections of the Golden Quadrilateral and Golden Diagonal networks.
As of 27 January 2025, what was the total area reported under Rabi crops?
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Correct answer: C — Over 655.88 lakh ha
PIB 2096743: Rabi crop sowing exceeded 655.88 lakh hectares as on 27 January 2025.
Which crop covered the largest Rabi area as of 27 January 2025, at 324.38 lakh hectares?
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Correct answer: B — Wheat
PIB 2096743: wheat covered 324.38 lakh ha, against 315.63 lakh ha a year earlier.
The Incubation & Innovation Complex (IICON) inaugurated at the North East Aroma Conclave 2025 belongs to which institute?
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Correct answer: D — CSIR-NEIST
PIB 2096771: Jitendra Singh inaugurated the IICON of CSIR-NEIST at the North East Aroma Conclave 2025.
Consider the following about CSIR-NEIST's work under the Aroma and Floriculture Missions: 1. Aromatic crops have been introduced over more than 5,000 hectares in the North East. 2. Over 10,000 farmers have benefited. 3. IICON offers 27 advanced technologies to startups and MSMEs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2096771: crops such as citronella and lemongrass cover more than 5,000 ha benefiting over 10,000 farmers, and IICON offers 27 advanced technologies.
What was the theme of the first-ever tri-services tableau at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Shashakt aur Surakshit Bharat
PIB 2096097: the tri-services tableau's theme was 'Shashakt aur Surakshit Bharat'; 'Raksha Kavach' was DRDO's and 'Viksit Bharat ki Ore Sadaiv Agrasar' the veterans' tableau.
Which naval destroyer was featured on the tri-services tableau at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: D — INS Visakhapatnam
PIB 2096097: the tableau displayed the Arjun MBT, Tejas MKII, ALH, destroyer INS Visakhapatnam and a remotely piloted aircraft.