UP Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
As of 22 July 2025, how many unorganised workers had registered on the e-Shram portal?
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Correct answer: D — Over 30.95 crore
PIB (28 July 2025): as of 22 July 2025, over 30.95 crore unorganised workers had registered on e-Shram.
Consider the following statements about the e-Shram portal: 1. It was launched on 26 August 2021 to create a National Database of Unorganised Workers seeded with Aadhaar. 2. The e-Shram 'One-Stop-Solution' was launched on 21 October 2024 and 14 Central schemes have been integrated with it so far. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB: e-Shram was launched on 26 August 2021 for an Aadhaar-seeded NDUW; the One-Stop-Solution was launched on 21 October 2024 and 14 schemes have been integrated. Both correct.
Under MNRE's amendment of 28 July 2025, the ALMM requirement for solar PV cells becomes mandatory:
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Correct answer: C — One month after the ALMM list for solar PV cells is published
PIB (28 July 2025): ALMM for solar PV cells will be mandatory only one month after publication of the ALMM list for cells; the 1 June 2026 date for commissioned projects is unchanged.
As per MNRE (July 2025), India's domestic solar manufacturing capacity stands at:
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Correct answer: B — 91 GW modules and 27 GW cells
PIB: domestic solar manufacturing currently stands at 91 GW of solar PV modules and 27 GW of solar PV cells.
As per kharif sowing data as on 25 July 2025, rice area was 245.13 lakh hectare. By how much was this higher than a year earlier?
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Correct answer: A — 28.97 lakh hectare
PIB (28 July 2025): rice area was 245.13 lakh ha against 216.16 lakh ha in 2024-25, an increase of 28.97 lakh ha.
Which kharif crop group showed a decline in area coverage as on 25 July 2025 compared with a year earlier?
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Correct answer: D — Oilseeds
PIB: oilseeds area fell by 3.83 lakh ha (soybean down 4.68), while rice, pulses and coarse cereals rose.
As per the Commerce Ministry (28 July 2025), India's leather and footwear exports to the UK under CETA are likely to double in three years to:
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Correct answer: C — USD 1 billion
PIB: India's leather and footwear exports to the UK are likely to double to USD 1 billion in three years. USD 8.7 billion is the size of the UK's leather and footwear market.
Which GI products were cited by the Commerce Ministry as gaining visibility in the UK market under the India-UK CETA?
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Correct answer: B — Kolhapuri footwear and Mojari
PIB: CETA is expected to boost the visibility of GI products like Kolhapuri footwear and Mojari in the UK's USD 8.7 billion leather and footwear market.
The Central Reserve Police Force, which marks its Raising Day on 27 July, was originally raised in 1939 under what name?
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Correct answer: C — Crown Representative's Police
CRPF: the force was established as the Crown Representative's Police in 1939 and renamed CRPF after independence.
Consider the following statements about the CRPF: 1. It was raised at Neemuch, Madhya Pradesh. 2. It was renamed the Central Reserve Police Force by an Act dated 28 December 1949. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
CRPF: the force was raised at Neemuch, MP, as the Crown Representative's Police; on 28 December 1949 it was renamed CRPF by an Act of Parliament (CRPF Act, 1949, Act No. 66 of 1949). Both correct.
With which country/territory does India have a Mutual Recognition Agreement (MRA) for organic products, as stated by APEDA in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Taiwan
PIB (27 July 2025): NPOP crop standards are recognised by the European Commission and Switzerland and accepted by Great Britain; there is an MRA for organic products with Taiwan.
Consider the following statements about the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP): 1. It was launched in 2001 by the Department of Commerce, with APEDA as its Secretariat. 2. Grower group certification under it began in 2005 for small and marginal farmers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB: NPOP was launched in 2001 by the Department of Commerce, APEDA is its Secretariat, and grower group certification was launched in 2005. Both correct.
As mentioned in Mann Ki Baat (27 July 2025), UNESCO recognised 12 Maratha forts as World Heritage Sites. How are they distributed?
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Correct answer: B — 11 in Maharashtra and 1 in Tamil Nadu
PIB (Mann Ki Baat, 27 July 2025): UNESCO has recognised 12 Maratha forts as World Heritage Sites, eleven in Maharashtra and one in Tamil Nadu.
As per Mann Ki Baat (27 July 2025), Indian students at the International Mathematical Olympiad held in Australia won:
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Correct answer: A — 3 gold, 2 silver and 1 bronze
PIB: in the International Mathematical Olympiad held in Australia, Indian students won 3 gold, 2 silver and 1 bronze medal.
The 'Gyan Bharatam Mission', highlighted in the 124th Mann Ki Baat, aims to:
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Correct answer: D — Digitise ancient manuscripts
PIB: under the Gyan Bharatam Mission, announced in this year's Budget, ancient manuscripts will be digitised.
On 26 July 2025, PM Modi attended which anniversary of Maldives' independence as Guest of Honour?
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Correct answer: A — 60th
PIB (26 July 2025): the PM attended the 60th anniversary celebrations of the independence of Maldives as Guest of Honour.
Where in Male did PM Modi and President Muizzu witness the Maldives Independence Day parade on 26 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Republic Square
PIB: the PM, accompanied by President Muizzu, witnessed the Independence Day parade at Republic Square.
Consider the following statements about PM Modi's participation in Maldives' Independence Day on 26 July 2025: 1. He is the first Indian Prime Minister to attend the Maldives' Independence Day celebrations. 2. He is the first foreign Head of State or Government to be hosted by President Mohamed Muizzu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
PIB: this is the first time an Indian PM attended the Independence Day celebrations in Maldives, and Modi is the first foreign leader at the level of Head of State or Government hosted by President Muizzu. Both correct.
The year 2025, in which PM Modi attended Maldives' Independence Day, also marks how many years of diplomatic relations between India and Maldives?
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Correct answer: D — 60 years
PIB: the year 2025 also marks 60 years of the establishment of diplomatic relations between India and Maldives.
The Independence Day parade in Male attended by PM Modi on 26 July 2025 showcased which force, along with other local units?
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Correct answer: A — Maldivian National Defence Forces
PIB: the celebrations showcased a parade by the Maldivian National Defence Forces and other local units.
TEMA India Ltd's facility commissioned on 26 July 2025 is India's first private test facility for:
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Correct answer: D — Upgradation of depleted heavy water
PIB (26 July 2025): TEMA India commissioned the country's first private test facility for the upgradation of depleted heavy water.
Consider the following statements about the TEMA India facility (July 2025): 1. It was built under technology transfer from BARC and a purchase order from NPCIL. 2. Its first consignment of distillation column sections is meant for Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors. 3. Before this, such testing infrastructure existed only with NPCIL. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB: the facility was built under BARC technology transfer and an NPCIL purchase order, and the modules are for PHWRs. Until now the testing infrastructure existed solely within BARC, not NPCIL, so statement 3 is wrong.
The first consignment from TEMA India's depleted heavy water test facility, commissioned on 26 July 2025, comprised distillation column sections for PHWRs including which units?
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Correct answer: C — Kaiga Units 5 & 6
Kaiga Units 5 & 6; the first consignment had eight distillation column sections.
What was the value of the Line of Credit extended by India to Maldives during PM Modi's State Visit in July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹4,850 crore
PIB List of Outcomes: extension of a Line of Credit of INR 4,850 crore to Maldives.
Which Indian entity signed a network-to-network agreement with the Maldives Monetary Authority on UPI in July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — NPCI International Payment Limited (NIPL)
PIB List of Outcomes: Network-to-Network Agreement between India's NPCI International Payment Limited (NIPL) and Maldives Monetary Authority (MMA) on UPI in Maldives.
The India-Maldives Joint Vision whose implementation PM Modi and President Muizzu reviewed on 25 July 2025 is titled:
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Correct answer: C — Comprehensive Economic and Maritime Security Partnership
PIB (25 July 2025): the leaders took stock of the India-Maldives Joint Vision for a 'Comprehensive Economic and Maritime Security Partnership', adopted during President Muizzu's State Visit to India in October 2024.
Consider the following outcomes of PM Modi's State Visit to Maldives (July 2025): 1. Launch of India-Maldives Free Trade Agreement negotiations. 2. An MoU on recognition of the Indian Pharmacopoeia by Maldives. 3. An amendatory agreement reducing Maldives' annual debt repayment obligations on GoI-funded Lines of Credit. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB List of Outcomes lists the launch of IMFTA negotiations, the MoU on recognition of Indian Pharmacopoeia, and the amendatory agreement on reducing annual debt repayment obligations. All correct.
How many social housing units in Hulhumale, built under India's Buyers' Credit facilities, were handed over during PM Modi's Maldives visit (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 3,300
PIB List of Outcomes: handing-over of 3,300 social housing units in Hulhumale under India's Buyers' Credit facilities.
The Air Defence Fire Control Radars contracted from BEL on 25 July 2025 were procured under which category?
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Correct answer: C — Buy (Indian-IDDM)
PIB (25 July 2025): procurement under the Buy (Indian-Indigenously Designed Developed and Manufactured) category.
What is the minimum indigenous content of the Air Defence Fire Control Radars ordered from BEL in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 70%
PIB: with minimum 70% indigenous content, the radars will detect all forms of air-borne threats.
Which body administers the Atal Pension Yojana, whose gross enrolments crossed 8 crore in July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — PFRDA
PIB (25 July 2025): APY, a flagship social security scheme administered by PFRDA, surpassed 8 crore gross enrolments.
What is the eligible entry age for the Atal Pension Yojana?
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Correct answer: B — 18-40 years
PIB: APY is open to all Indian citizens between 18-40 years, except those who are or have been income tax payers.
The India-Maldives commemorative stamps released on 25 July 2025 depict the Indian 'Uru' boat, handcrafted in the boatyards of:
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Correct answer: C — Beypore, Kerala
PIB (25 July 2025): the stamps depict the Indian boat Uru, a large wooden dhow handcrafted in the historic boatyards of Beypore, Kerala, and the Maldivian Vadhu Dhoni.
Which building in Male, constructed with India's financial assistance, was jointly inaugurated by PM Modi and President Muizzu on 25 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Defence building
PIB (25 July 2025): the leaders jointly inaugurated the eleven-storey Ministry of Defence building of Maldives in Male, built with India's financial assistance.
Under what name did the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme come into effect from 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana
PIB (25 July 2025): the ELI Scheme will come into effect from 1 August 2025 as the 'PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PM-VBRY)'.
What is the outlay of the PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana?
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Correct answer: C — ₹99,446 crore
PIB: with an outlay of ₹99,446 crore, PM-VBRY aims to incentivise the creation of more than 3.5 crore jobs over 2 years.
Consider the following statements about PM-VBRY: 1. Part A offers first-time EPFO-registered employees one month's EPF wage up to ₹15,000 in two instalments. 2. Part B gives employers up to ₹3,000 per month for two years for each additional employee with sustained employment of at least six months. 3. Benefits apply to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (25 July 2025): Part A gives one month EPF wage up to ₹15,000 in two instalments; Part B gives employers up to ₹3,000/month for two years per additional employee sustained for six months; benefits apply to jobs created between 1 Aug 2025 and 31 Jul 2027. All correct.
Who signed the India-UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement on behalf of India on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Piyush Goyal
PIB (24 July 2025): the agreement was signed by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal and UK Secretary of State for Business and Trade Jonathan Reynolds, in the presence of the two Prime Ministers.
Under the India-UK CETA, zero-duty access is available on what share of tariff lines?
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Correct answer: A — 99%
PIB: zero-duty access on 99% of tariff lines, covering nearly 100% of the trade value.
The signing of the India-UK CETA on 24 July 2025 followed the conclusion of negotiations announced on:
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Correct answer: D — 6 May 2025
PIB (24 July 2025): the signing of the India-UK CETA follows the successful conclusion of negotiations announced on 6 May 2025.
Consider the following statements about the India-UK CETA (July 2025): 1. India-UK bilateral trade stands at nearly USD 56 billion, with a goal to double it by 2030. 2. The Double Contribution Convention will exempt Indian workers and their employers from UK social security contributions for three years. 3. The agreement was signed by the two Prime Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB: trade is nearly USD 56 billion with a goal to double by 2030, and the DCC will exempt Indian workers and employers from UK social security contributions for three years. The agreement was signed by Piyush Goyal and Jonathan Reynolds in the presence of the two PMs, so 3 is wrong.
Which UK minister signed the India-UK CETA on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jonathan Reynolds, Secretary of State for Business and Trade
PIB: the agreement was signed by Jonathan Reynolds, Secretary of State for Business and Trade; Rachel Reeves was present.
Where did PM Modi and UK PM Keir Starmer hold talks on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Chequers, Buckinghamshire
PIB (24 July 2025): PM Modi was received by PM Starmer at the UK Prime Minister's country residence at Chequers in Buckinghamshire.
Which document, steering the India-UK Comprehensive Strategic Partnership for the next ten years, was adopted on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — India-UK Vision 2035
PIB: the two leaders adopted the India-UK Vision 2035, which will steer the relationship for the next ten years.
Where did PM Modi call on King Charles III on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sandringham Estate
PIB (24 July 2025): PM Modi called on King Charles III at Sandringham Estate, the summer residence of His Majesty.
Consider the following statements about the Modi-Starmer talks of 24 July 2025: 1. The leaders welcomed the finalisation of a Defence Industrial Roadmap. 2. The two sides agreed to negotiate a Double Contribution Convention that will come into effect along with CETA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB (24 July 2025): the leaders welcomed the finalisation of a Defence Industrial Roadmap, and the two sides agreed to negotiate a Double Contribution Convention which will come into effect along with CETA. Both correct.
As of July 2025, India's bid to host the 2036 Olympics is in which phase with the IOC's Future Host Commission?
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Correct answer: C — Continuous Dialogue
PIB (24 July 2025): IOA has submitted a letter of intent to IOC; the bid is now in the 'Continuous Dialogue' phase with the Future Host Commission of IOC.
Which body submitted India's letter of intent to the IOC to host the 2036 Olympic Games?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Olympic Association
PIB: bidding to host the Olympic Games is the responsibility of the Indian Olympic Association (IOA), which has submitted a letter of intent to IOC.
Which Indian Navy ships arrived at Da Nang, Vietnam, on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — INS Delhi, Shakti and Kiltan
PIB: INS Delhi, Shakti and Kiltan of the Eastern Fleet arrived at Tien Sa Port, Da Nang, Vietnam on 24 July 2025.
The Indian Navy ships that visited Da Nang in July 2025 belong to which fleet?
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Correct answer: C — Eastern Fleet
PIB: the ships of the Eastern Fleet were under RAdm Susheel Menon, Flag Officer Commanding Eastern Fleet.
Who presented India's third Voluntary National Review at the UN High-Level Political Forum on 23 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Suman Bery
PIB: NITI Aayog Vice Chairman Suman Bery presented India's Third VNR on 23 July 2025 at the HLPF.
The High-Level Political Forum on SDGs, where India presented its VNR in July 2025, is convened by which UN body?
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Correct answer: C — Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)
PIB: the VNR was presented at the Ministerial Segment of the HLPF on SDGs convened by the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations.
According to India's VNR 2025, around how many people are estimated to have escaped multidimensional poverty?
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Correct answer: B — 248 million
PIB: around 248 million individuals are estimated to have escaped Multidimensional Poverty.
Consider the following statements about India's VNR 2025: 1. It is India's third submission to the HLPF. 2. Its preparation was steered by NITI Aayog. 3. It describes India as the second-largest start-up ecosystem in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB: the VNR marks India's third submission to the HLPF and was steered by NITI Aayog; it describes India as the third-largest (not second-largest) start-up ecosystem. So 3 is wrong.
India's Digital Public Infrastructure highlighted in the VNR 2025 is grounded in the 'JAM' trinity. What does JAM stand for?
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Correct answer: C — Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile
PIB: the report highlights India's leadership in Digital Public Infrastructure grounded in the Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile (JAM) trinity.
How many Anganwadi-cum-Crèches had the Ministry of Women and Child Development approved under the Palna Scheme, as stated on 23 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 14,599
PIB (23 July 2025): the Ministry approved 14,599 Anganwadi-cum-Crèches under the Palna Scheme.
The Palna Scheme is implemented under which vertical of Mission Shakti?
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Correct answer: D — Samarthya
PIB: the Palna Scheme was introduced under the Samarthya vertical of Umbrella Mission Shakti for all States and UTs w.e.f. 1 April 2022.
Who assumed charge as Chairperson of the National Financial Reporting Authority on 23 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nitin Gupta
PIB (24 July 2025): Nitin Gupta, IRS (IT:86) (Retd.), assumed charge as Chairperson, NFRA on 23 July 2025.
Before heading NFRA, Nitin Gupta served as Chairman of which body from June 2022 to June 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Central Board of Direct Taxes
PIB: Nitin Gupta earlier served as Chairman, Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) from June 2022 to June 2024.
NFRA, whose new Chairperson and Full-Time Members took oath on 23 July 2025, functions under which Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of Corporate Affairs
PIB (Ministry of Corporate Affairs, 24 July 2025): the Secretary, Ministry of Corporate Affairs administered the oaths to the NFRA Chairperson and Full-Time Members at a ceremony held in the Ministry on 23.07.2025.
Which category of intellectual property recorded the highest growth in filings between 2020-21 and 2024-25, as per the Commerce Ministry (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — Geographical Indications
PIB (22 July 2025): GI saw the highest growth at 380%, followed by Designs (266%) and Patents (180%).
By what percentage did total IP filings by Indian citizens rise from 2020-21 to 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 44%
PIB: IP filings increased by 44%, from 4,77,533 in 2020-21 to 6,89,991 in 2024-25.
Preparations for Census 2027 began with a gazette notification expressing the Government's intent to conduct the Population Census. That notification is dated:
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Correct answer: D — 16 June 2025
PIB (MHA, 22 July 2025): the preparation for Census 2027 started with the publication of the gazette notification dated 16.06.2025.
Which portal will be used for management and monitoring of Census 2027 activities, as discussed at the July 2025 conference?
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Correct answer: C — CMMS (Census Management and Monitoring System)
PIB: the conference discussed management and monitoring of census activities through the Census Management and Monitoring System (CMMS) portal.
What was the gross NPA ratio of public sector banks as of 31 March 2025, as per the Finance Ministry (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 2.58%
PIB (22 July 2025): gross NPAs of PSBs reduced from 9.11% (March 2021) to 2.58% (March 2025); 3.47% was March 2024.
As part of NPA recovery measures, the pecuniary jurisdiction of Debt Recovery Tribunals was raised from ₹10 lakh to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹20 lakh
PIB: the pecuniary jurisdiction of DRTs was increased from ₹10 lakh to ₹20 lakh to let them focus on high-value cases.
Where was the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission launched by the Prime Minister on 1 July 2023?
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Correct answer: C — Shahdol, Madhya Pradesh
PIB (22 July 2025): the mission was inaugurated on 1 July 2023 by the Prime Minister at Shahdol, Madhya Pradesh.
As of July 2025, how many people had been screened under the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission?
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Correct answer: A — 6 crore
PIB: 6 crore individuals have been screened against the target of 7 crore; 2.6 crore is the number of health cards distributed.
Consider the following statements about the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission: 1. It aims to eliminate sickle cell anaemia in India by 2047. 2. It targets universal screening of 7 crore people aged 0-40 years in affected tribal areas by FY 2025-26. 3. Screening uses validated Point-of-Care Testing kits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (22 July 2025): the mission aims at elimination by 2047 and universal screening of 7 crore people aged 0-40 in affected tribal areas by FY 2025-26, using validated POCT kits. All correct.
Bharat NCX 2025, the National Cybersecurity Exercise that began on 21 July 2025, is conducted by the National Security Council Secretariat in collaboration with which institution?
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Correct answer: C — Rashtriya Raksha University
PIB (NSCS): the exercise is conducted by the NSCS in collaboration with Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU).
What is the theme of the National Cybersecurity Exercise Bharat NCX 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Enhancing the Operational Preparedness of Indian Cyberspace
PIB (NSCS): Bharat NCX 2025 introduces the focused theme 'Enhancing the Operational Preparedness of Indian Cyberspace'.
According to EPFO's provisional payroll data, what was the net addition of members in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 20.06 lakh
PIB (Labour): EPFO recorded a net addition of 20.06 lakh members in May 2025, the highest since April 2018; 9.42 lakh was the number of new subscribers.
Which state led net payroll additions in EPFO's May 2025 data, with 20.33 percent of the total?
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Correct answer: D — Maharashtra
PIB: Maharashtra led by adding 20.33% of net payroll during the month.
By how much did the Index of Eight Core Industries grow in June 2025 over June 2024 (provisional)?
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Correct answer: B — 1.7 percent
PIB (Commerce and Industry): the combined ICI increased by 1.7 percent (provisional) in June 2025; 1.2 percent was the final figure for May 2025.
The eight core industries together carry what share of the weight of items in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
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Correct answer: C — 40.27 percent
PIB: the Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the IIP.
After Phase-IV amalgamation under 'One State-One RRB', how many Regional Rural Banks remain with effect from 1 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 28
PIB (Finance): Phase-IV amalgamation reduced RRBs from 43 to 28 w.e.f. 1 May 2025, in 26 states and 2 UTs.
Consider the following statements about the consolidation of Regional Rural Banks: 1. Phase-I amalgamation (2005-2010) reduced the number of RRBs from 196 to 82. 2. Phase-IV amalgamation reduced the number of RRBs from 56 to 43. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB: Phase-I cut RRBs from 196 to 82, so 1 is correct. The 56-to-43 reduction was Phase-III (by end-March 2021); Phase-IV cut them from 43 to 28, so 2 is wrong.
What rank did India secure among 110 countries at the 66th International Mathematical Olympiad (IMO) 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 7th
7th, matching its best-ever rank of 1998 and 2001; India was 4th in 2024.
Consider the following statements about India's performance at the International Mathematical Olympiad 2025: 1. It was only the second time that India won three gold medals at the IMO, the first being in 1998. 2. India's team score of 193 out of 252 was the highest ever achieved by an Indian IMO team. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. India also won two silver and one bronze.
Which institution is the nodal agency that selects and trains Indian students for the International Mathematical Olympiad and other international Olympiads?
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Correct answer: D — Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education (HBCSE)
Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education (HBCSE), Mumbai, a national centre of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research.
Where was the 66th International Mathematical Olympiad (IMO) 2025 held?
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Correct answer: A — Sunshine Coast, Australia
Sunshine Coast, Australia; 630 students took part, including 69 female contestants.