UKSSSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
On which date did India's coal production cross one billion tonnes in the financial year 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 20 March 2025
The Ministry of Coal said production crossed 1 BT on 20 March 2025.
What was India's total coal production in FY 2023-24, which was surpassed in March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 997.83 MT
The 1 BT milestone came 11 days ahead of the previous fiscal's production of 997.83 million tonnes.
According to the Ministry of Coal in March 2025, about what share of India's electricity is generated by coal-based plants?
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Correct answer: D — About 74%
Around 74% of India's electricity is generated by coal-based power plants; coal is about 55% of the energy mix.
Consider the following statements made by the Ministry of Coal when coal output crossed 1 billion tonnes in March 2025: 1. Coal accounts for about 55% of India's energy mix. 2. India's coal imports rose during April–December 2024 compared with the previous year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The ministry said coal is about 55% of the energy mix, and that coal imports declined by 8.4% in April–December 2024, saving about $5.43 billion.
What was the total value of the capital acquisition proposals cleared by the Defence Acquisition Council on 20 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Over ₹54,000 crore
The DAC accorded AoN to eight proposals amounting to over ₹54,000 crore.
The DAC on 20 March 2025 approved upgrading the engines of T-90 tanks from 1000 HP to:
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Correct answer: B — 1350 HP
AoN was accorded for 1350 HP engines to upgrade the present 1000 HP engines of T-90 tanks.
Which aircraft systems did the DAC clear for the Indian Air Force on 20 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Airborne Early Warning & Control (AEW&C) systems
For the IAF, the DAC accorded AoN for Airborne Early Warning & Control aircraft systems.
Consider the following statements about the DAC decisions of 20 March 2025: 1. Varunastra, cleared for the Navy, is an indigenous ship-launched anti-submarine torpedo developed by the Naval Science & Technological Laboratory. 2. The engine upgrade cleared for the Army was for Arjun main battle tanks. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Varunastra is an indigenously developed ship-launched anti-submarine torpedo from NSTL. The 1350 HP engine upgrade was for T-90 tanks, not Arjun.
Which company won MeitY's Indian Web Browser Development Challenge, announced on 20 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Zoho
Zoho won the challenge; Team PING and Team Ajna were the runners-up.
Which organisation conducted the Indian Web Browser Development Challenge for MeitY?
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Correct answer: A — C-DAC Bengaluru
The challenge was conducted by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Bengaluru.
Which team was the first runner-up in the Indian Web Browser Development Challenge announced in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Team PING
Team PING was the first runner-up and Team Ajna the second; Jio Vishwakarma received a special mention.
How many net members did EPFO add in January 2025, as per payroll data released on 20 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 17.89 lakh
EPFO added 17.89 lakh net members in January 2025; 8.23 lakh were new subscribers.
What share of EPFO's new subscribers in January 2025 were aged 18–25?
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Correct answer: A — About 57%
4.70 lakh new subscribers, or 57.07% of the total, were in the 18–25 age group.
From which date did the PFRDA regulations operationalising the Unified Pension Scheme, notified in March 2025, come into effect?
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Correct answer: C — 1 April 2025
The PFRDA regulations, notified by gazette dated 19 March 2025, came into effect on 1 April 2025.
Under the Unified Pension Scheme, the full assured payout is what share of the average basic pay of the last 12 months before superannuation?
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Correct answer: B — 50%
The full assured payout is 50% of the 12-month average basic pay immediately before superannuation, payable after at least 25 years of qualifying service.
What is the minimum guaranteed monthly payout under the Unified Pension Scheme for a subscriber who superannuates after at least 10 years of qualifying service?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,000
A minimum guaranteed payout of ₹10,000 a month applies when superannuation is after 10 or more years of qualifying service.
Consider the following statements about the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS): 1. Besides 10% to the employee's individual corpus, the government contributes an additional 8.5% to a pool corpus. 2. The family payout under UPS is 60% of the subscriber's payout. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PFRDA's comparison gives UPS contributions as 10% (employee) + 10% (Government) + 8.5% (pool corpus), and family benefits as 60% of the subscriber's payout. Both statements are correct.
What was the name of the SpaceX Dragon spacecraft that brought Sunita Williams and the Crew-9 astronauts back to Earth in March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Freedom
NASA says the Dragon spacecraft Freedom splashed down off Tallahassee, Florida, returning Crew-9; it was Freedom's fourth flight.
Crew-9 splashed down at 5:57 pm EDT on 18 March 2025. What was this time in Indian Standard Time?
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Correct answer: C — 3:27 am IST, 19 March 2025
NASA's timeline puts splashdown at 21:57 GMT on 18 March; adding 5 hours 30 minutes gives 3:27 am IST on 19 March 2025.
How many days did Sunita Williams and Butch Wilmore spend in space on the mission that ended with the Crew-9 splashdown in March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 286 days
NASA says Williams and Wilmore spent 286 days in space; 171 days was the figure for Hague and Gorbunov, and 608 days is Williams' career total.
Off the coast of which city did NASA's SpaceX Crew-9 splash down on 18 March 2025 (EDT)?
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Correct answer: D — Tallahassee, Florida
Crew-9 splashed down in the Gulf of America off the coast of Tallahassee, Florida.
Consider the following statements about the return of Sunita Williams in March 2025: 1. Williams and Butch Wilmore had reached the International Space Station in June 2024 aboard Boeing's Starliner on its Crew Flight Test. 2. The Crew-9 return was the first flight of the Dragon spacecraft Freedom. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Williams and Wilmore launched on Starliner on 5 June 2024 and reached the station on 6 June. Crew-9 was Freedom's fourth flight; it earlier flew Crew-4, Axiom Mission 2 and Axiom Mission 3.
Under SEBI's DigiLocker circular of 19 March 2025, what are the persons called whom a DigiLocker user can appoint to get read-only access to the account after the user's death?
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Correct answer: B — Data Access Nominees
Users can appoint Data Access Nominees, who get read-only access to the DigiLocker account after the user's demise.
Under SEBI's March 2025 framework for DigiLocker, which entities serve as the primary source for verifying a user's death and triggering notifications to the nominees?
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Correct answer: D — KYC Registration Agencies (KRAs)
SEBI-regulated KYC Registration Agencies will be the primary source for verifying and triggering notifications to Data Access Nominees.
Up to what transaction value are UPI person-to-merchant payments of small merchants covered under the incentive scheme approved by the Cabinet on 19 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2,000
Only UPI P2M transactions of up to ₹2,000 for small merchants are covered under the scheme.
At what rate is the incentive paid on eligible low-value BHIM-UPI person-to-merchant transactions under the 2024-25 scheme?
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Correct answer: B — 0.15% of transaction value
The incentive is 0.15% of transaction value for small-merchant transactions up to ₹2,000. 0.30% is the MDR cap NPCI sets for UPI P2M, and 0.90% is RBI's debit card MDR cap.
Consider the following statements about the BHIM-UPI P2M incentive scheme approved in March 2025: 1. 80% of a bank's admitted claim for each quarter is paid without any condition. 2. 10% of the claim is paid only if the acquiring bank's system uptime is above 99.5%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
80% of the admitted claim is disbursed unconditionally; of the remaining 20%, 10% depends on technical decline below 0.75% and 10% on system uptime above 99.5%. Both statements are correct.
What is the total outlay of the revised Rashtriya Gokul Mission approved by the Cabinet on 19 March 2025 for 2021-22 to 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — ₹3,400 crore
With an additional ₹1,000 crore, the revised RGM has a total outlay of ₹3,400 crore for the 15th Finance Commission cycle.
Under the revised Rashtriya Gokul Mission (March 2025), what support is given to farmers who take loans to buy high genetic merit IVF heifers?
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Correct answer: B — 3% interest subvention
A 3% interest subvention is provided on loans taken by farmers from milk unions, financial institutions or banks to buy HGM IVF heifers. The 35% assistance is for Heifer Rearing Centres.
Which organisation is the implementation partner for C-DOT's 'Samarth' incubation programme launched on 19 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Software Technology Parks of India (STPI)
C-DOT selected Software Technology Parks of India (STPI), under MeitY, as the implementation partner for Samarth.
Up to how much grant can each startup selected under C-DOT's 'Samarth' incubation programme (March 2025) receive?
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Correct answer: B — ₹5 lakh
Selected startups can get a grant of up to ₹5 lakh each.
Component B of the revised National Programme for Dairy Development, 'Dairying through Cooperatives', is implemented with the cooperation of which country?
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Correct answer: D — Japan
Component B continues dairy development through cooperation with the Government of Japan and JICA in nine states.
What is the total budget of the revised National Programme for Dairy Development approved by the Cabinet on 19 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹2,790 crore
The revised NPDD was enhanced by ₹1,000 crore to a total of ₹2,790 crore for 2021-22 to 2025-26.
Under which Article of the Constitution did the Election Commission say on 18 March 2025 that the right to vote can only be given to a citizen of India, while deciding on EPIC-Aadhaar linking?
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Correct answer: D — Article 326
The ECI said that as per Article 326 of the Constitution, voting right can only be given to a citizen of India, while Aadhaar only establishes identity.
Under which law's Sections 23(4), 23(5) and 23(6) will the linking of EPIC with Aadhaar be done, as decided by the ECI on 18 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Representation of the People Act, 1950
The ECI decided the linking will be done as per Article 326 and Sections 23(4), 23(5) and 23(6) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
Where did the Election Commission of India hold its meeting with the Union Home Secretary, MeitY Secretary and UIDAI CEO on EPIC-Aadhaar linking on 18 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Nirvachan Sadan, New Delhi
The meeting was held at Nirvachan Sadan, New Delhi, the ECI headquarters.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's decision of 18 March 2025 on EPIC-Aadhaar linking: 1. The Commission held that Aadhaar establishes both identity and citizenship of a person. 2. The linking is to be in line with the Supreme Court judgement in WP (Civil) No. 177/2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
The ECI said Aadhaar only establishes identity, while voting rights under Article 326 are only for citizens, so statement 1 is wrong. The linking will follow the Supreme Court judgement in WP (Civil) No. 177/2023.
With which Bengaluru-based indigenous Generative AI company did UIDAI partner in March 2025 to bring AI voice interactions and fraud alerts to Aadhaar services?
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Correct answer: D — Sarvam AI
UIDAI partnered with Bengaluru-based Sarvam AI, an indigenous full-stack GenAI company, with the agreement effective from 18 March 2025.
In how many languages will the AI voice interaction and fraud detection under the UIDAI–Sarvam AI agreement (March 2025) be available at launch?
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Correct answer: B — 10
The deployment allows voice interaction and fraud detection in 10 languages, with more to be added in coming months.
Consider the following statements about the UIDAI–Sarvam AI agreement effective 18 March 2025: 1. The GenAI stack is hosted on-premise within an air-gapped UIDAI infrastructure, so no data leaves UIDAI. 2. Sarvam AI will own the solution, with UIDAI holding a licence to use it. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The custom GenAI stack is hosted on-premise in an air-gapped UIDAI environment. The ownership of the solution is with UIDAI, not Sarvam AI, so statement 2 is wrong.
In their phone call on 18 March 2025, Vladimir Putin agreed to Donald Trump's proposal for a 30-day halt on strikes on which targets?
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Correct answer: D — Energy infrastructure
The Kremlin said Trump proposed that the parties mutually refrain from strikes on energy infrastructure for 30 days, and Putin immediately ordered Russian troops to comply.
After the Trump–Putin call of 18 March 2025, the White House said technical negotiations would begin on a maritime ceasefire in which sea?
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Correct answer: A — Black Sea
The White House said the movement to peace would begin with an energy and infrastructure ceasefire and technical negotiations on a maritime ceasefire in the Black Sea.
Consider the following statements about the Trump–Putin phone call of 18 March 2025: 1. Putin accepted the full 30-day ceasefire across the front line proposed by the US. 2. The broader 30-day truce sought by the US had already been accepted by Ukraine. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Putin agreed only to a 30-day halt on strikes on energy infrastructure and set conditions for any wider ceasefire, so statement 1 is wrong. Reuters reported that the blanket 30-day truce sought by the US had been accepted by Ukraine.
The IndiaAI Hackathon on Mineral Targeting, launched with the Geological Survey of India in March 2025, covers a pre-defined area in which two states?
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Correct answer: B — Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Participants are to identify new exploration areas within a pre-defined 39,000 sq km area in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
Under which MeitY initiative was the National Innovation Challenge for Drone Application and Research (NIDAR) launched on 18 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — SwaYaan
NIDAR was launched under 'SwaYaan — Capacity Building for Human Resource Development in Unmanned Aircraft Systems'.
Which two domains are the autonomous drones in the NIDAR challenge (March 2025) meant to address?
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Correct answer: A — Disaster management and precision agriculture
NIDAR teams build collaborative autonomous drones for disaster management (scout and deliver) and precision agriculture (scan and spray).
Which country's Prime Minister, Christopher Luxon, held talks with PM Narendra Modi in New Delhi on 17 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — New Zealand
Christopher Luxon, Prime Minister of New Zealand, was on an official visit to India from 16 to 20 March 2025 and held talks with PM Modi on 17 March.
The Authorised Economic Operator Mutual Recognition Arrangement (AEO-MRA) signed during the India–New Zealand talks of 17 March 2025 was between New Zealand Customs Service and which Indian body?
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Correct answer: A — Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs
The AEO-MRA was signed between the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) and the New Zealand Customs Service.
According to the India–New Zealand Joint Statement of 17 March 2025, people of Indian origin make up about what share of New Zealand's population?
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Correct answer: B — 6%
The joint statement noted that the Indian diaspora makes up about 6% of New Zealand's population.
Consider the following outcomes of PM Christopher Luxon's visit to India (March 2025): 1. New Zealand joined the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI). 2. New Zealand became a member of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI). 3. India and New Zealand signed a free trade agreement. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
New Zealand joined IPOI and became a CDRI member. On trade, the leaders only welcomed the launch of negotiations on a comprehensive FTA — no agreement was signed.
Who assumed charge as the CEO of the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) on 17 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Shivkumar Kalyanaraman
Dr Shivkumar Kalyanaraman assumed charge as ANRF CEO, taking over from acting CEO Prof. Abhay Karandikar.
Before becoming CEO of ANRF in March 2025, Dr Shivkumar Kalyanaraman held which position?
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Correct answer: D — Chief Technology Officer, Energy Industry, Asia, Microsoft
The ministry noted that he was earlier Chief Technology Officer, Energy Industry, Asia, at Microsoft.
What gross merchandise value (GMV) milestone for FY 2024-25 did the Government e Marketplace (GeM) cross, as announced on 17 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹5 lakh crore
GeM crossed ₹5 lakh crore GMV for FY 2024-25 more than 18 days before the financial year ended.
GeM's ₹5 lakh crore GMV milestone (March 2025) came less than 50 days after it crossed ₹4 lakh crore. On which date was the ₹4 lakh crore mark crossed?
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Correct answer: B — 23 January 2025
GeM crossed ₹4 lakh crore GMV on 23 January 2025 and ₹5 lakh crore less than 50 days later.
What was India's annual WPI-based inflation rate (provisional) for February 2025, released on 17 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2.38%
Annual WPI inflation for February 2025 was 2.38% (provisional) over February 2024.
In India's Wholesale Price Index (base 2011-12), which major group carries the largest weight, as listed in the February 2025 release?
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Correct answer: B — Manufactured Products (64.23%)
Manufactured Products carry the largest weight at 64.23%, followed by Primary Articles (22.62%) and Fuel & Power (13.15%); together these three major groups make up 100%.
What were India's estimated total exports (merchandise and services) during April–February 2024-25, as released on 17 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — $750.53 billion
Total exports in April–February 2024-25 were estimated at $750.53 billion, up 6.24% from $706.43 billion a year earlier.
By what percentage did India's exports of electronic goods grow in February 2025 over February 2024, as per the Commerce Ministry data of 17 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 26.46%
Electronic goods exports increased by 26.46%, from $3 billion in February 2024 to $3.79 billion in February 2025.
Who was the chief guest and delivered the inaugural keynote address at Raisina Dialogue 2025 in New Delhi on 17 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — New Zealand PM Christopher Luxon
New Zealand Prime Minister Christopher Luxon was the chief guest and delivered the inaugural keynote address at Raisina Dialogue 2025.
Raisina Dialogue 2025, which opened in New Delhi on 17 March 2025, was which edition of the conference?
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Correct answer: C — 10th
Raisina Dialogue 2025 was the 10th edition of India's flagship conference on geopolitics and geoeconomics.
Tulsi Gabbard, who called on PM Narendra Modi in New Delhi on 17 March 2025, holds which US post?
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Correct answer: A — Director of National Intelligence
Tulsi Gabbard is the US Director of National Intelligence.
Consider the following statements about Tulsi Gabbard's India visit of 17 March 2025: 1. The PMO described it as the first high-level visit to India from the US in President Trump's second term. 2. She also met Defence Minister Rajnath Singh in New Delhi. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: PM Modi noted it was the first high-level visit to India from the US in Trump's second term, and Rajnath Singh met her the same day.
The launch of India–New Zealand FTA negotiations on 16 March 2025 was marked by a meeting between Piyush Goyal and which New Zealand minister?
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Correct answer: B — Todd McClay
The launch was marked by a meeting between Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal and New Zealand's Minister for Trade and Investment Todd McClay in New Delhi.
India and New Zealand's earlier trade negotiations, which stalled in 2015 after nine rounds, were for which agreement?
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Correct answer: D — Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA)
India and New Zealand began negotiating a Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) in April 2010; the talks stalled in 2015 after nine rounds.
According to India's Commerce Ministry, the India–New Zealand FTA negotiations launched in March 2025 aim mainly to:
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Correct answer: B — Enhance supply chain integration and improve market access
The ministry said the negotiations aim to achieve balanced outcomes that enhance supply chain integration and improve market access.
Who won the men's singles title at Indian Wells (BNP Paribas Open) on 16 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Jack Draper
Britain's Jack Draper beat Denmark's Holger Rune 6-2, 6-2 for his first ATP Masters 1000 title.
Whom did 17-year-old Mirra Andreeva beat in the Indian Wells women's final on 16 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Aryna Sabalenka
Andreeva came back to beat world No. 1 Aryna Sabalenka 2-6, 6-4, 6-3.
Consider the following statements about the Indian Wells 2025 finals: 1. Mirra Andreeva became the tournament's youngest women's champion since Serena Williams in 1999. 2. Jack Draper had already won two Masters 1000 titles before Indian Wells 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct (AP, Reuters). Statement 2 is wrong: Indian Wells 2025 was Draper's first Masters 1000 final and title.
Who won the women's singles title at the All England Open Badminton Championships on 16 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — An Se-young
South Korea's An Se-young beat China's Wang Zhiyi 13-21, 21-18, 21-18 in the final in Birmingham.
Consider the following statements about the All England Open 2025 singles finals: 1. Shi Yuqi's win was his second All England title, after his first in 2018. 2. The tournament was held at the O2 Arena, London. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the All England Open 2025 was held at the Utilita Arena, Birmingham.
Which RBI digital initiatives were recognised with the Digital Transformation Award 2025 by Central Banking, London?
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Correct answer: B — Pravaah and Sarthi
The RBI was honoured for its in-house digital initiatives Pravaah and Sarthi.
The Digital Transformation Award 2025 won by the Reserve Bank of India (March 2025) was conferred by:
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Correct answer: C — Central Banking, London
The award was conferred by Central Banking, London, UK.
Who won the 2025 Formula 1 Australian Grand Prix, the season opener, at Albert Park on 16 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Lando Norris
McLaren's Lando Norris won from pole, 0.895 seconds ahead of Max Verstappen, with George Russell third.
In which city is the Albert Park circuit, venue of the 2025 Formula 1 season-opening Australian Grand Prix?
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Correct answer: A — Melbourne
The Australian Grand Prix is held at the Albert Park Grand Prix Circuit in Melbourne.
Consider the following statements about the 2025 Australian Grand Prix (16 March 2025): 1. Lando Norris started the race from pole position. 2. George Russell finished second, ahead of Max Verstappen. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Norris converted pole into victory. Statement 2 is wrong: Max Verstappen (Red Bull) finished second, 0.895 s behind Norris, and George Russell (Mercedes) was third.
The US air strikes ordered by President Trump on 15 March 2025 targeted which group in Yemen?
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Correct answer: B — Houthis
Trump ordered strikes on Iran-backed Houthi rebels in Yemen over their attacks on shipping.
Which city, struck by US air strikes on 15 March 2025, is the capital of Yemen held by the Houthis?
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Correct answer: C — Sanaa
Trump said he ordered strikes on Yemen's capital Sanaa and other Houthi-held areas.
Consider the following statements about the US strikes on Yemen's Houthis on 15 March 2025: 1. The Houthis had begun attacking military and commercial ships after the Israel–Hamas war started in October 2023. 2. The operation was carried out jointly by the US and the UK. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct (AP). Statement 2 is wrong: a US official said the 15 March operation was conducted solely by the United States.
Which city hosted the Special Olympics World Winter Games 2025, where India won 33 medals?
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Correct answer: D — Turin, Italy
The Special Olympics World Winter Games were held in Turin, Italy, from 8 to 15 March 2025.
What was India's medal break-up at the Special Olympics World Winter Games Turin 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 8 gold, 18 silver, 7 bronze
India won 33 medals: 8 gold, 18 silver and 7 bronze.
Consider the following statements about India at the Special Olympics World Winter Games 2025: 1. India won the most medals in snowshoeing and alpine skiing, 10 each. 2. The next Special Olympics World Games, to which the flag was handed over at the closing, will be held in Santiago in 2027. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: India won 10 medals each in snowshoeing and alpine skiing, and the closing ceremony handed the Special Olympics flag to Santiago 2027.