UKPSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Who led the Indian all-party delegation that met Russian think tanks such as the Valdai Discussion Club in May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Kanimozhi Karunanidhi
The delegation to the Russian Federation was led by MP Kanimozhi Karunanidhi.
Which Supreme Court Judge delivered the keynote address at the DFS colloquium of DRAT Chairpersons and DRT Presiding Officers in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Justice S.V.N. Bhatti
Justice S.V.N. Bhatti, Judge of the Supreme Court, delivered the keynote address.
The DFS colloquium of May 2025 discussed effective implementation of the DRT Regulations of which year?
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Correct answer: D — 2024
Deliberations included effective implementation of the DRT Regulations, 2024.
At the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025, what did the Prime Minister say 'EAST' stands for in the government's policy for the region?
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Correct answer: B — Empower, Act, Strengthen, Transform
The PM said EAST means 'Empower, Act, Strengthen and Transform'.
According to the Prime Minister's address at the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025, what is the length of the Northeast Gas Grid?
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Correct answer: A — 1,600 km
The PM cited the establishment of a 1,600-km-long Northeast Gas Grid.
Consider the following statements made at the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025: 1. The Kaladan Multimodal Transit Project will link Kolkata Port to Myanmar's Sittwe Port, with a trade route through Mizoram. 2. Guwahati, Imphal and Agartala are being developed as Multi-Modal Logistics Hubs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are from the PM's address as published by PIB.
Rule 49M of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, mentioned in ECI's May 2025 instructions on mobile deposit facility, relates to:
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Correct answer: D — Secrecy of voting within the polling station
ECI said Rule 49M, which ensures secrecy of voting within the polling station, will continue to be strictly enforced.
Consider the following statements about ECI's instructions of 23 May 2025: 1. Voters may carry mobile phones inside the polling station if the phones are switched off. 2. Booths set up by candidates for issuing unofficial identity slips can now be set up just beyond 100 metres of a polling station. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: phones are allowed within 100 m only switched off and must be deposited; they cannot be carried inside. Statement 2 is correct.
Under ECI's May 2025 mobile deposit instructions, who can exempt certain polling stations from the provision based on adverse local circumstances?
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Correct answer: C — Returning Officer
The Returning Officer can exempt certain polling stations based on adverse local circumstances.
The Ministry of Education's 2025 enforcement drive to make areas around educational institutions tobacco-free was to run during which period?
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Correct answer: A — 31 May to 26 June 2025
The drive runs from 31 May (World No Tobacco Day) to 26 June 2025 (International Day Against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking). 22 May–21 July is the period of the MyGov quiz.
Which provision of the Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act (COTPA), 2003 bans the sale of tobacco products within 100 yards of educational institutions, as cited by the Ministry of Education in May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Section 6(b)
The Ministry asked States to enforce Section 6(b) of COTPA, 2003.
According to the Global Youth Tobacco Survey (GYTS-2), 2019, cited by the Ministry of Education, what share of Indian students aged 13–15 were using tobacco in some form?
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Correct answer: D — 8.5%
GYTS-2 (2019) found 8.5% of Indian students aged 13–15 using tobacco in some form.
Under the revised norms of assistance to National Sports Federations (May 2025), what minimum share of their annual budget must NSFs earmark for grassroots development?
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Correct answer: C — 20%
NSFs must earmark at least 20% of their annual budget for grassroots development.
Under the revised NSF assistance norms of May 2025, NSFs with an annual budget of how much or more must appoint a High-Performance Director?
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Correct answer: B — ₹10 crore
NSFs with an annual budget of ₹10 crore and above must appoint a High-Performance Director.
Under the revised NSF assistance norms (May 2025), what monthly dietary allowance will probable group athletes get for non-camp days?
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Correct answer: D — ₹10,000
Each probable group athlete gets ₹10,000 per month for non-camp days.
Instructors from which of the following institutes were NOT part of the joint team that summited Mount Everest on 23 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ABVIMAS, Manali
The joint team had instructors from NIM Uttarkashi, HMI Darjeeling and JIM&WS Pahalgam.
Consider the following statements about the joint Everest expedition of 2025: 1. It was flagged off by Raksha Rajya Mantri Sanjay Seth from New Delhi on 26 March 2025. 2. It was organised to commemorate 75 years of the Himalayan Mountaineering Institute, Darjeeling. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the expedition commemorated 60 years of NIM Uttarkashi.
As part of acclimatisation before the Everest summit, the joint team of 2025 summited which peak on 18 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Mt Lobuche
The team summited Mt Lobuche (6,119 m) on 18 April 2025.
As per provisional ESIC payroll data, how many new employees were added under the ESI Scheme in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 16.33 lakh
16.33 lakh new employees were added in March 2025; 15.43 lakh was the February figure.
Consider the following statements about ESIC payroll data for March 2025: 1. About 49% of the new employees were aged up to 25 years. 2. 31,514 new establishments were registered under the ESI Scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: 7.96 lakh (about 49%) were aged up to 25, and 31,514 new establishments were registered.
How many candidates finally qualified in the CDS (II) Examination, 2024 for the Officers Training Academy, Chennai courses, as per the UPSC result of May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 574
574 candidates qualified: 510 for the men's course and 64 for the women's course. 276 is the number of vacancies for men.
According to the Department of Fisheries (May 2025), what has been the total investment in the fisheries sector since 2015 through schemes such as PMMSY, FIDF, Blue Revolution and PM-MKSSY?
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Correct answer: B — ₹38,572 crore
The release cites the highest-ever investment of ₹38,572 crore since 2015.
Consider the following statements about the Fisheries Secretaries Conference 2025: 1. It reviewed PMMSY, FIDF and PM-MKSSY. 2. It was held in Visakhapatnam. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: it was held in New Delhi on 23 May 2025.
How many Kirti Chakras were conferred at Phase-I of the Defence Investiture Ceremony 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Six (four posthumous)
Six Kirti Chakras, including four posthumous, were conferred.
Consider the following statements about Phase-I of the Defence Investiture Ceremony 2025: 1. 33 Shaurya Chakras, including seven posthumous, were conferred. 2. The ceremony was held at the Manekshaw Centre, New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the ceremony was held at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
What is the theme of the International Day for Biological Diversity 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Harmony with Nature and Sustainable Development
The theme for IDB 2025 is 'Harmony with Nature and Sustainable Development'.
Consider the following statements: 1. The national-level celebration of the International Day for Biological Diversity 2025 was held at Udaipur. 2. The MoEFCC campaign ahead of World Environment Day 2025 is titled 'One Nation, One Mission: End Plastic Pollution'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per MoEFCC releases of 22 May 2025.
Which city is to receive the largest number of electric buses (about 4,500) in the current phase of PM E-DRIVE, as announced in May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Bengaluru
About 4,500 e-buses are to go to Bengaluru, 2,800 to Delhi, 2,000 to Hyderabad, 1,000 to Ahmedabad and 600 to Surat.
As approved by the Union Cabinet, how much of the PM E-DRIVE outlay is earmarked for the procurement of e-buses, and how many e-buses does it support?
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Correct answer: B — ₹4,391 crore for 14,028 e-buses
The Cabinet release provides ₹4,391 crore for 14,028 e-buses; ₹10,900 crore is the total scheme outlay over two years.
Under PM E-DRIVE, which agency handles demand aggregation of e-buses in the nine cities with population above 40 lakh?
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Correct answer: D — Convergence Energy Services Limited (CESL)
As per the Cabinet release, demand aggregation is done by CESL in nine cities with more than 40 lakh population.
Who led the all-party Indian delegation that arrived in Abu Dhabi on 22 May 2025 as the first stop of a four-nation outreach?
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Correct answer: B — Shrikant Eknath Shinde
The delegation to the UAE was led by MP Dr. Shrikant Eknath Shinde.
Who led the all-party Indian delegation that visited Japan from 22 to 24 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sanjay Kumar Jha
The delegation to Japan was led by MP Sanjay Kumar Jha.
Consider the following statements about the all-party delegation's visit to Japan in May 2025: 1. On 22 May the delegation met Japan's Foreign Minister Takeshi Iwaya. 2. The delegation called for giving effect to the UN Security Council press statement of 25 April 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the release on the visit.
What percentage of reservation in the allotment of Central Government housing was announced for persons with disabilities in May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 4%
A 4% reservation in allotment of Central Government housing will be provided to persons with disabilities.
Consider the following statements about the reservation for persons with disabilities in Central Government housing (May 2025): 1. The Office Memorandum was issued by the Directorate of Estates. 2. It was issued in alignment with the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry.
The 'Ideas4LiFE' initiative of the Environment Ministry, whose 21 winning ideas were announced in May 2025, was launched in association with:
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Correct answer: A — UNICEF YuWaah
Ideas4LiFE was launched through ideas4life.in in association with UNICEF YuWaah.
Under the 'Ideas4LiFE' initiative, how many winning ideas were announced in May 2025, and from how many entries?
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Correct answer: D — 21 ideas from 1,384 entries
21 ideas — the top three in each of the seven Mission LiFE themes — were selected from 1,384 entries.
Under its partnership with Aditya Birla Capital announced in May 2025, what role will India Post Payments Bank play?
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Correct answer: B — It will provide referral services for Aditya Birla Capital's loan products
IPPB will provide referral services for ABCL's loan solutions to its existing customers.
BPR&D's National Hackathon on CCTV Solutions for Law Enforcement (2025) is being organised in association with:
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Correct answer: C — NCRB and CyberPeace Foundation
BPR&D is organising it with NCRB and CyberPeace Foundation.
Which platform did India invite BRICS nations to contribute to at the 9th BRICS Industry Ministers' Meeting in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — BRICS Startup Knowledge Hub
India invited all BRICS nations to contribute to and benefit from the BRICS Startup Knowledge Hub, launched by India under the BRICS Start-Up Forum.
As highlighted by India at the 9th BRICS Industry Ministers' Meeting, what share of India's total exports in 2023–24 came from MSMEs?
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Correct answer: D — 45.73%
India said MSMEs contributed 45.73% of the country's total exports in 2023–24.
The iGOT Karmayogi platform, which crossed 1 crore registered users in May 2025, is operated and managed by:
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Correct answer: A — Karmayogi Bharat
iGOT Karmayogi is operated and managed by Karmayogi Bharat.
Consider the following statements about iGOT Karmayogi (May 2025): 1. The platform had about 3 lakh users onboarded up to January 2023. 2. A majority of its registered users are from central government ministries and departments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: over 60% of registered users are from States and UTs.
The 'Financial Fraud Risk Indicator' (FRI) introduced by DoT in May 2025 classifies mobile numbers into which risk categories?
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Correct answer: C — Medium, High and Very High
FRI classifies a mobile number as associated with Medium, High or Very High risk of financial fraud.
The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator is an output of a tool developed under which DoT platform?
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Correct answer: A — Digital Intelligence Platform (DIP)
FRI comes from a multi-dimensional analytical tool developed as part of DoT's Digital Intelligence Platform.
India assumed the chairmanship of the Asian Productivity Organization (APO) for 2025–26 at its 67th Governing Body Meeting held in:
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Correct answer: B — Jakarta
The 67th Governing Body Meeting was held in Jakarta, Indonesia, from 20 to 22 May 2025.
Through which body under DPIIT do Indian professionals participate in APO capacity-building programmes?
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Correct answer: C — National Productivity Council
Over 100 Indian professionals take part in APO programmes each year through the National Productivity Council under DPIIT.
Consider the following statements about the 15th BRICS Trade Ministers' Meeting (May 2025): 1. It was held under the BRICS Presidency of Brazil. 2. India will assume the BRICS Presidency in 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Brazil held the presidency, and India prepares to assume it in 2026.
Which of the following was NOT one of the three annexures to the Joint Declaration endorsed at the 15th BRICS Trade Ministers' Meeting?
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Correct answer: D — BRICS Framework on Critical Minerals Supply Chains
The three annexures were on WTO reform, Data Economy Governance, and Trade and Sustainable Development.
As per EPFO's provisional payroll data, how many net members were added in March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 14.58 lakh
EPFO added 14.58 lakh net members in March 2025; 7.54 lakh were new subscribers. (16.33 lakh is ESIC's March figure.)
In EPFO's March 2025 payroll data, what share of new subscribers belonged to the 18–25 age group?
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Correct answer: B — 58.94%
4.45 lakh new subscribers aged 18–25 made up 58.94% of all new subscribers.
'Heart Lamp', the winner of the International Booker Prize 2025, was originally written in which language?
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Correct answer: B — Kannada
Heart Lamp by Banu Mushtaq was translated from Kannada by Deepa Bhasthi.
Consider the following statements about the International Booker Prize 2025: 1. Heart Lamp is the first collection of short stories to win the prize. 2. Banu Mushtaq is the first Indian author to win the International Booker Prize. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Mushtaq is the second Indian author to win, after Geetanjali Shree in 2022.
Who translated Banu Mushtaq's 'Heart Lamp', becoming the first Indian translator to win the International Booker Prize?
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Correct answer: C — Deepa Bhasthi
Deepa Bhasthi translated Heart Lamp and became the first Indian translator to win the prize. (Polly Barton and Asa Yoneda translated other 2025 longlisted/shortlisted books; Sana Goyal was a 2025 judge.)
How is the £50,000 prize money of the International Booker Prize distributed?
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Correct answer: D — Equally between the author and the translator
The prize money is divided equally between the author and the translator.
By how much did the combined Index of Eight Core Industries grow (provisional) in April 2025 over April 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 0.5%
The ICI grew 0.5% in April 2025; 4.5% was the 2024–25 cumulative growth and 3.5% the growth in coal.
The eight core industries together account for what share of the weight of items in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
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Correct answer: B — 40.27%
The eight core industries make up 40.27% of the weight of items in the IIP.
World Metrology Day 2025 marked the 150th anniversary of the Metre Convention. Where was the Metre Convention signed?
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Correct answer: C — Paris
The Metre Convention was signed in Paris on 20 May 1875.
As announced on World Metrology Day 2025, India has become which country in the world to be authorised to issue OIML certificates?
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Correct answer: A — 13th
India became the 13th country authorised to issue OIML (International Organization of Legal Metrology) certificates.
Under the North East Apprenticeship Pilot Scheme launched in May 2025, what additional support will apprentices from the region receive?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1,500 per month for one year over the NAPS stipend
Over 26,000 youth will get an additional ₹1,500 per month for one year, over and above the regular NAPS stipend.
Consider the following statements about the North East Apprenticeship Pilot Scheme (May 2025): 1. The additional support applies only to apprentices training within the North Eastern Region. 2. An MoU between NSDC and Welspun Living Limited was exchanged for a textile-sector pilot. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the support applies to apprentices from the NE training both within and outside the region. Statement 2 is correct.
'Depot Darpan', launched by the Department of Food and Public Distribution in May 2025, is:
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Correct answer: C — A self-assessment and monitoring portal for food grain depots
Depot Darpan is a digital self-assessment and monitoring portal for food grain depots; Anna Mitra is the app and Anna Sahayata the grievance system.
Under Depot Darpan, food grain depots are graded on what ratio of operational performance to infrastructure standards?
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Correct answer: D — 60:40
Depots are assessed on a 60:40 ratio of operational performance and infrastructure standards.