Teaching Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
At the North-East regional review meeting of the Fisheries Ministry in May 2026, fisheries projects worth about ₹32.15 crore were inaugurated/launched in which State?
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Correct answer: B — Mizoram
The meeting was held in Aizawl, and projects worth about ₹32.15 crore under PMMSY and FIDF were inaugurated and their foundation laid in Mizoram.
In May 2026, Union Home Minister Amit Shah e-inaugurated women's barracks at the BSF's Sanchu Post. In which district is this post located?
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Correct answer: A — Bikaner
The women's barracks were e-inaugurated at Sanchu Post in Bikaner, Rajasthan.
As stated by the Home Minister at Sanchu Post in May 2026, the BSF's operational jurisdiction has been expanded:
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Correct answer: D — From 15 km to 50 km
Amit Shah said the government has expanded the BSF's operational jurisdiction from 15 to 50 kilometres.
Consider the following statements made by the Home Minister at Sanchu Post (May 2026): 1. Piped drinking water is being provided to 180 BSF outposts in Rajasthan. 2. Anti-drone systems will be deployed along the border within the next six months. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both were stated: piped drinking water to 180 BSF outposts in Rajasthan, and anti-drone systems along the border within six months.
Which aircraft does the IAF's Suryakiran Aerobatic Team fly, as stated at its 30th anniversary in May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Hawk Mk-132
The team flies the Hawk Mk-132 aircraft in its red-and-white livery.
The Suryakiran Aerobatic Team, which marked 30 years on 26 May 2026, was formed in which year and at which station?
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Correct answer: C — 1996, Bidar
The team was formed in 1996 at Bidar, where its 30th anniversary was celebrated at Air Force Station Bidar.
While reviewing Ebola preparedness in May 2026, the Union Health Minister said India had not reported any case of which Ebola disease?
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Correct answer: B — Bundibugyo Ebola disease
Nadda stated that India has not reported any case of Bundibugyo Ebola disease till date.
Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 Ebola outbreak in parts of Africa: 1. WHO declared it a Public Health Emergency of International Concern. 2. The Africa CDC declared a Public Health Emergency of Continental Security. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
WHO declared a PHEIC and the Africa CDC declared a Public Health Emergency of Continental Security (PHECS).
The new series of the All-India Index of Industrial Production (IIP), to be launched on 1 June 2026, will have which base year?
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Correct answer: C — 2022-23
The TAC-IIP report covers revision of the IIP base year from 2011-12 to 2022-23.
Which method will the new IIP series adopt for linking the 2011-12 series with the 2022-23 series?
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Correct answer: D — Geometric Mean method
The new series will adopt the Geometric Mean method for linking, with linking factors computed for the General Index and Sectoral Indices.
Consider the following statements about the new IIP series (base 2022-23): 1. Its scope includes Rare Earth Minerals and Water Supply. 2. It is aligned with the National Industrial Classification (NIC-2008). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The new series adds Minor Minerals, Rare Earth Minerals, Gas Supply, Water Supply and Sewerage & Waste Management, and is aligned with NIC-2025, not NIC-2008.
What was India Post's revenue in FY 2025-26, as stated by the MoS for Communications in May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹15,373 crore
India Post's revenue rose to ₹15,373 crore in 2025-26, a single-year increase of ₹2,100 crore; it was about ₹11,500 crore in 2016.
As per India Post (May 2026), how many girls are enrolled under the Sukanya Samriddhi scheme?
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Correct answer: C — 3.8 crore
India Post said 3.8 crore girls are enrolled under the Sukanya Samriddhi scheme.
How many public health technologies did ICMR transfer to industry at the 'Medical Innovations Patent Mitra: I2I Connect' event in May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 41
ICMR transferred 41 public health technologies to industry at the event.
The May 2026 ICMR event saw India's first-ever transfer to industry of inactivated biomaterials of which two viruses?
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Correct answer: D — Kyasanur Forest Disease and Chandipura
India witnessed the first-ever transfer of inactivated KFD (Kyasanur Forest Disease) and Chandipura virus biomaterials to industry partners.
The Election Commission of India organised the May 2026 workshop on 'Risk Management and Electoral Resilience' in collaboration with which organisation?
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Correct answer: D — International IDEA
ECI organised the workshop with International IDEA under India's Chairship Programme 2026.
How many countries were represented among the 32 participants of the ECI workshop on Risk Management and Electoral Resilience (May 2026)?
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Correct answer: B — 12
The 32 participants represented Election Management Bodies of 12 countries.
What is the overarching theme of India's BRICS 2026 Chairship under which the first Tourism Working Group meeting was held in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability
The meeting advanced tourism cooperation under the overarching theme 'Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability'.
Where will the BRICS Tourism Ministers' Meeting be held in August 2026 under India's chairship?
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Correct answer: B — Jaipur
The 2nd TWG meeting (19–20 August 2026) and the BRICS Tourism Ministers' Meeting (21–22 August 2026) will both be held in Jaipur, Rajasthan.
ALMM List-II, whose 1 June 2026 deadline MNRE decided not to extend across the board, applies to:
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Correct answer: B — Solar PV cells
The decision concerns ALMM List-II for solar PV cells.
The Department of Expenditure's Office Memorandum of 29.04.2026, considered by MNRE, suggested time extensions of what duration based on specific situations?
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Correct answer: C — Not less than two months and not more than four months
The OM advised treating the West Asia situation as war and suggested extensions of not less than two months and not more than four months, case by case.
How many mineral blocks were auctioned in FY 2025-26, a record for a single financial year, as per the Ministry of Mines (May 2026)?
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Correct answer: C — 212
A record 212 mineral blocks were auctioned in FY 2025-26; 108 were auctioned in FY 2015-16 to 2020-21 and 364 in FY 2021-22 to 2024-25.
Of the mineral blocks auctioned in FY 2025-26, how many were critical and strategic mineral blocks?
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Correct answer: D — 22
The record FY 2025-26 tally includes the auction of 22 critical and strategic mineral blocks.
Under the LPG (Regulation of Supply and Distribution) Amendment Order, 2026, a consumer who obtains a PNG connection may apply to terminate the LPG connection within how many days?
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Correct answer: D — 30 days
Consumers may apply for termination of the LPG connection within 30 days of obtaining a PNG connection.
What is the purpose of the 'transfer voucher' introduced by the LPG control order amendment of May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Future restoration of an LPG connection in a non-PNG area
Consumers with PNG connections may obtain a transfer voucher for future restoration of their LPG connection in a non-PNG area.
The National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment (NeSDA), whose 2025 portal was launched in May 2026, is based on which index?
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Correct answer: B — Online Service Index of the UN e-Government Survey
NeSDA is based on the Online Service Index (OSI) of the UN e-Government Survey, customised for the Indian federal structure.
Consider the following statements about NeSDA: 1. It is a biennial assessment framework. 2. It was developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
NeSDA is a biennial framework developed by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), not MeitY.
Who won the Falta Assembly constituency in West Bengal after the repoll counted on 24 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Debangshu Panda
BJP's Debangshu Panda won with 1,49,666 votes, per ECI's result page.
Which party's candidate finished second in the Falta repoll result of May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — CPI(M)
CPI(M)'s Sambhu Nath Kurmi was second with 40,645 votes; Congress was third and the TMC fourth.
Consider the following statements about the Falta (AC 144) result of 24 May 2026: 1. The winning margin was more than one lakh votes. 2. The Trinamool Congress candidate finished third. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct (margin 1,09,021). Statement 2 is wrong: the TMC's Jahangir Khan finished fourth with 7,783 votes, behind Congress.
The UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2026, held on 24 May 2026, was conducted at:
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Correct answer: A — 2,072 venues in 83 cities
UPSC conducted the examination at 2,072 examination venues in 83 examination centres (cities).
As per UPSC's provisional data, roughly what share of applicants appeared in the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2026?
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Correct answer: C — About 67%
Nearly 5.49 lakh of 8,19,732 applicants, about 67%, appeared; about 61% had appeared in 2025.
The real-time face authentication system used by UPSC for the first time in the Civil Services Prelims 2026 was developed through:
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Correct answer: B — National e-Governance Division (NeGD), MeitY
UPSC said the indigenously developed system through NeGD of MeitY worked across all 2,072 venues.
Consider the following statements about the UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2026: 1. The Indian Forest Service (Preliminary) Examination 2026 was held along with it. 2. More candidates applied for it than for the 2025 examination. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The IFS (Prelims) 2026 was held along with it. 8,19,732 applied in 2026 against nearly 9.5 lakh in 2025, so statement 2 is wrong.
Which party won the most seats in Cyprus's parliamentary election held on 24 May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Democratic Rally (DISY)
The centre-right Democratic Rally (DISY) came first with 17 seats, ahead of AKEL.
Consider the following statements about the Cyprus parliamentary election of 24 May 2026: 1. DISY won 17 seats. 2. ELAM won eight seats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
DISY won 17 seats and the far-right ELAM won eight seats.
Which party moved into third place in the Cyprus parliamentary election of May 2026, described as a far-right party?
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Correct answer: D — ELAM
The far-right ELAM made gains and became the third-largest party in the legislature.
Experts from which two IITs were deputed in May 2026 to help CBSE fix technical glitches in its post-result re-evaluation services portal?
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Correct answer: C — IIT Madras and IIT Kanpur
Dharmendra Pradhan directed that professors and technical experts from IIT Madras and IIT Kanpur assist CBSE.
Which edition of Fit India Sundays on Cycle was held on 24 May 2026 to mark Commonwealth Games Day?
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Correct answer: B — 75th
The 75th edition of Fit India Sundays on Cycle commemorated Commonwealth Games Day at more than 8,000 locations.
What was the theme of the Ahmedabad edition of Fit India Sundays on Cycle on Commonwealth Games Day 2026?
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Correct answer: D — A New Icon for a Fitter India – Pedalling to 2030
The Ahmedabad edition was themed 'A New Icon for a Fitter India – Pedalling to 2030'.
The national celebration of Commonwealth Games Day 2026, led by Sports Minister Mansukh Mandaviya, was held at:
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Correct answer: C — Sabarmati Riverfront, Ahmedabad
Mandaviya led the national celebrations from the Sabarmati Riverfront in Ahmedabad, the host city of the 2030 Commonwealth Games.
Which of the following is NOT among the five dispensing systems added to the scope of Government Approved Test Centres (GATCs) in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Electric vehicle charging stations
The five added categories are petrol/diesel, CNG, LPG, LNG and hydrogen dispensers; EV charging stations are not among them.
Under the amended GATC Rules (May 2026), what is the verification fee for CNG, LPG, LNG and hydrogen dispensers?
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Correct answer: C — ₹10,000 per nozzle
The fee is ₹10,000 per nozzle for CNG, LPG, LNG and hydrogen dispensers, and ₹5,000 per nozzle for petrol and diesel dispensers.
Consider the following statements about the amendment to the Legal Metrology (Government Approved Test Centre) Rules, 2013 (May 2026): 1. State Governments are empowered to notify additional categories of weights and measures for verification through GATCs. 2. The verification fee for petrol and diesel dispensers is ₹10,000 per nozzle. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
States can notify additional categories; the fee for petrol and diesel dispensers is ₹5,000 per nozzle, not ₹10,000.
What ex-gratia did the Prime Minister announce from the PMNRF for the next of kin of each person who died in the Karwar district mishap on 24 May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2 lakh
PM Modi announced ₹2 lakh from the PMNRF for the next of kin of each deceased and ₹50,000 for the injured; the Karnataka CM announced ₹5 lakh separately.
The drowning of shellfish collectors on 24 May 2026 took place near Shirali in which taluk of Uttara Kannada district, Karnataka?
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Correct answer: D — Bhatkal
The incident took place near Shirali in Bhatkal taluk of Uttara Kannada district.
NMDC's summer camps for about 1,700 tribal children (20 May – 15 June 2026) are being held in villages of which district?
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Correct answer: D — Dantewada
NMDC launched the summer camps across 17 villages in Dantewada district of Dakshin Bastar, Chhattisgarh.
NMDC is running its 2026 summer camps for tribal children in Dakshin Bastar in partnership with which organisation?
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Correct answer: B — WOSCA
The camps are executed in partnership with WOSCA, an organisation working in education and community development.
From which date will the VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 commence, with MGNREGS continuing until then?
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Correct answer: B — 1 July 2026
The Ministry said Mahatma Gandhi NREGS will continue till the commencement of the VB–G RAM G Act on 1 July 2026.
What MGNREGS labour budget was approved for June 2026 ahead of the switch to the VB–G RAM G Act?
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Correct answer: C — Over 45 crore persondays
An adequate labour budget of over 45 crore persondays was approved for June 2026.
Consider the following statements about the preparations for the VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 (May 2026): 1. Mother sanctions of ₹26,971 crore were issued under Mahatma Gandhi NREGS. 2. States were asked to prepare their shelf of works on the e-Gram Swaraj portal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
₹26,971 crore of mother sanctions were issued. The shelf of works is to be prepared through the Yuktdhara portal, not e-Gram Swaraj, so statement 2 is wrong.
The BHAVYA Scheme, whose guidelines DPIIT released in May 2026, aims to develop:
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Correct answer: D — 100 industrial parks with about ₹33,660 crore
The Scheme provides for 100 industrial parks over 2026-27 to 2031-32 with an outlay of about ₹33,660 crore.
Which body has been designated the Project Management Agency for the BHAVYA Scheme?
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Correct answer: A — National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation (NICDC)
The guidelines designate NICDC as the Project Management Agency for implementation and monitoring.
Over which period will the BHAVYA Scheme be implemented?
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Correct answer: B — 2026-27 to 2031-32
The 100 parks are to be developed over six years, 2026-27 to 2031-32.
Consider the following statements about the BHAVYA Scheme guidelines: 1. The minimum land requirement for a park is 25 acres in hilly states, north-eastern states, Union Territories and smaller states. 2. Up to 50 industrial parks will be taken up in the first phase through a challenge-based competitive selection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: 25 acres (100 acres in non-hilly states) is the minimum, and up to 50 parks are taken up first through challenge-based selection.
How many candidates were conferred DNB, DrNB, Diploma and FNB qualifications at the 23rd NBEMS convocation (23 May 2026)?
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Correct answer: C — 26,396
26,396 candidates were conferred DNB, DrNB, Diploma and FNB qualifications; 137 toppers received gold medals.
Consider the following statements made at the 23rd NBEMS convocation (May 2026): 1. NBEMS launched 11 new academic courses. 2. The number of medical colleges in India has increased from 387 to 718. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
11 new courses were launched. Medical colleges increased from 387 to 818, not 718, so statement 2 is wrong.
During his Canada visit of 25–27 May 2026, Piyush Goyal was to meet which Canadian Minister of International Trade to review India–Canada CEPA?
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Correct answer: D — Maninder Sidhu
PIB: Goyal will meet Mr Maninder Sidhu, Minister of International Trade; Mark Carney is the Prime Minister and Anita Anand the Foreign Minister.
As per the Commerce Ministry, what was the value of India's exports to Canada in FY2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — USD 4.67 billion
Bilateral trade was around USD 8 billion: India's exports USD 4.67 billion and imports USD 3.28 billion.
Consider the following statements: 1. India had a trade surplus with Canada in FY2025-26. 2. Piyush Goyal's May 2026 visit to Canada was scheduled from 25 to 30 May. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Exports (USD 4.67 bn) exceeded imports (USD 3.28 bn), so India had a surplus. The visit was from 25 to 27 May, so statement 2 is wrong.
What National Health Mission resource envelope for FY 2026-27 was conveyed to West Bengal on 23 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — ₹3,505.59 crore
A resource envelope of ₹3,505.59 crore was conveyed, of which a first sanction of ₹527.58 crore was released.
Union Health Minister J.P. Nadda reviewed West Bengal's healthcare systems on 23 May 2026 in a meeting with which Chief Minister?
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Correct answer: D — Suvendu Adhikari
PIB: Nadda chaired the review meeting with West Bengal Chief Minister Suvendu Adhikari.
Which US Cabinet official called on Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 23 May 2026 as Secretary of State?
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Correct answer: D — Marco Rubio
PIB: US Secretary of State Marco Rubio called on Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 23 May 2026.
Consider the following statements about US Secretary of State Marco Rubio's call on PM Modi (23 May 2026): 1. Rubio shared the US perspective on regional and global issues, including the situation in West Asia. 2. PM Modi asked Rubio to convey his warm greetings to President Trump. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are in the PIB release: Rubio shared the US view including on West Asia, and the PM asked him to convey greetings to President Trump.
'Suryastra', flagged off at Shirdi on 23 May 2026, is:
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Correct answer: A — India's first 300 km Universal Rocket Launching System
PIB: India's first 300 km Universal Rocket Launching System 'Suryastra' was flagged off at the event.
The private-sector Defence Manufacturing Complex inaugurated by Rajnath Singh on 23 May 2026 belongs to which company and is located where?
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Correct answer: B — NIBE Group, Shirdi
The complex of NIBE Group was inaugurated at Shirdi, Maharashtra.
Consider the following statements about the event at Shirdi on 23 May 2026: 1. Indigenous TNT and RDX plant technologies were unveiled. 2. NIBE Group and Black Sky exchanged an MoU in the field of satellite assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are in the PIB release: TNT and RDX plant technologies were unveiled, and an MoU on satellite assembly was exchanged between NIBE Group and Black Sky.
Which edition of the Rozgar Mela was held on 23 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 19th
PIB: the Prime Minister distributed the letters at the 19th Rozgar Mela on 23 May 2026.
How many appointment letters were distributed at the Rozgar Mela on 23 May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — More than 51,000
More than 51,000 appointment letters were distributed to newly appointed youth.
Who won the Suranjan Das Trophy for the best all-round student test pilot of the 48th Flight Test Course at AFTPS (May 2026)?
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Correct answer: D — Sqn Ldr KK Singh
The Suranjan Das Trophy went to Sqn Ldr KK Singh; Sqn Ldr Aditya Jamdagni won the CAS Trophy and Wg Cdr Abhinav Kumar the Maharaja Hanumanth Singh Sword.
The 48th Flight Test Course that graduated from AFTPS Bengaluru on 23 May 2026 comprised:
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Correct answer: A — 11 test pilots and 6 flight test engineers
Eleven test pilots and six flight test engineers, 17 officers in all, graduated.
Consider the following statements about the 48th Flight Test Course graduation (May 2026): 1. The chief guest, Air Chief Marshal AP Singh, is an alumnus of the 17th Flight Test Course. 2. The graduates will join the Aviation Wing of the Aircraft and Systems Testing Establishment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are in the PIB release: the CAS is a 17th FTC alumnus, and the graduates join the Aviation Wing of ASTE.