Teaching Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Holy Relics of Lord Buddha were exhibited in October 2025 in which republic of the Russian Federation?
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Correct answer: D — Kalmykia
PIB: the relics returned to India after a week-long exposition (11–18 October 2025) in the Republic of Kalmykia, Russia; the delegation departed from Elista, its capital.
Who led the Indian delegation accompanying the Buddha relics to Kalmykia in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Manoj Sinha, Lieutenant Governor of J&K
PIB: the Indian delegation was led by Lieutenant Governor Manoj Sinha; UP Deputy CM Keshav Prasad Maurya inaugurated Vasudeo Kamath's art exhibition there.
Consider the following statements about the Buddha relics exposition in Kalmykia (October 2025): 1. It was organised by the Ministry of Culture with the International Buddhist Confederation, the National Museum and IGNCA. 2. Artist Vasudeo Kamath donated all 28 paintings displayed there to the National Museum in Elista. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the exposition was a collaborative effort of the Ministry of Culture, IBC, National Museum and IGNCA; Kamath donated all 28 paintings to the National Museum of Elista.
The Ministry of Mines' October 2025 amendment introducing intermediate timelines for auctioned mineral blocks was made to which rules?
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Correct answer: A — Mineral (Auction) Rules, 2015
PIB: the Ministry of Mines notified an amendment to the Mineral (Auction) Rules, 2015, introducing intermediary timelines from LoI to execution of the mining lease.
Under the amended mineral auction rules (October 2025), what penalty applies for delay beyond a prescribed intermediate timeline?
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Correct answer: B — Appropriation of 1% of the bank guarantee per month of delay
PIB: delay beyond the prescribed timelines attracts appropriation of the bidder's bank guarantee to the extent of 1% for each month or part of a month.
Consider the following statements about mineral block auctions as described by the Ministry of Mines in October 2025: 1. All 585 major mineral blocks auctioned since 2015 are critical mineral blocks. 2. For a mining lease auction, the total penalty-free timeline from LoI to lease execution is 7 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: of 585 major mineral blocks auctioned, 34 are critical mineral blocks auctioned by the Centre; the penalty-free timeline is 3 years for a mining lease and 7 years for a composite licence.
Of the ₹1,950.80 crore SDRF advance approved in October 2025, which state received the larger share?
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Correct answer: C — Maharashtra
PIB: Maharashtra was approved ₹1,566.40 crore and Karnataka ₹384.40 crore out of ₹1,950.80 crore.
As of 19 October 2025, how much had the Centre released to states under SDRF during 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — ₹13,603.20 crore to 27 states
PIB: the Centre released ₹13,603.20 crore to 27 states under SDRF; the other figures relate to NDRF (₹2,189.28 crore), SDMF (₹4,571.30 crore) and NDMF (₹372.09 crore).
Consider the following statements about disaster response funding and deployment in 2025: 1. The advance release to Karnataka and Maharashtra was the second instalment of the Central share of SDRF for 2025-26. 2. During the 2025 monsoon, NDRF teams were deployed in only 15 States/UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the ₹1,950.80 crore was the 2nd instalment of the Central share of SDRF; up to 199 NDRF teams were deployed in 30 States/UTs (15 is the number of states that received NDRF funds).
Under which Article of the Constitution does the Election Commission exercise the plenary powers used to appoint Central Observers?
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Correct answer: C — Article 324
PIB: the Commission appoints Central Observers under the plenary powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 20B of the RP Act, 1951.
Which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the appointment of observers by the Election Commission?
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Correct answer: A — Section 20B
PIB: Central Observers are appointed under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 20B of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Consider the following statements about observers for the Bihar elections 2025: 1. 121 General Observers were deployed for Phase 2. 2. 8 General and 8 Police Observers were deployed for the bye-elections in 8 Assembly constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: Phase 1 had 121 General Observers and Phase 2 had 122; 8 General and 8 Police Observers were deployed for the 8 bye-elections.
How many Anganwadi Centres have been made functional in PVTG areas under PM-JANMAN, according to the WCD Ministry (October 2025)?
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Correct answer: A — More than 2,000
PIB: more than 2000 Anganwadi Centres have been made functional in Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) areas under PM JANMAN.
At which event did the WCD Ministry receive its award for PM-JANMAN implementation in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — National Conclave on Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan
PIB: the felicitation took place during the National Conclave on 'Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan' at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, organised by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
The BrahMos Integration and Testing Facility Centre, from which the first batch of missiles was flagged off on 18 October 2025, is located in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Lucknow
PIB: the first batch was manufactured at the BrahMos Integration and Testing Facility Centre in Lucknow, a key part of the UP Defence Industrial Corridor.
According to the Raksha Mantri, approximately how many missile systems will the Lucknow BrahMos facility produce every year?
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Correct answer: A — 100
PIB: 'In terms of output, approximately 100 missile systems will be produced in the facility every year.'
Consider the following statements about the BrahMos Integration and Testing Facility Centre, Lucknow: 1. It was virtually inaugurated by the Raksha Mantri on 11 May 2025. 2. It is spread over 200 acres and was built at a total cost of Rs 1,000 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the facility was virtually inaugurated on 11 May 2025; it is spread over 200 acres but cost Rs 380 crore. Rs 1,000 crore was the investment in PTC Industries' Strategic Materials Technology Complex, also in Lucknow.
Which is described by the Government as India's first indigenously discovered antibiotic, developed by the Department of Biotechnology with Wockhardt?
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Correct answer: A — Nafithromycin
PIB: Dr Jitendra Singh said India has developed its first indigenously discovered antibiotic 'Nafithromycin', developed by DBT in collaboration with Wockhardt.
India's first successful indigenous clinical trial of gene therapy for haemophilia, announced in October 2025, was carried out at which institution?
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Correct answer: C — Christian Medical College, Vellore
PIB: the trial, supported by DBT, was done in a non-government hospital, Christian Medical College Vellore.
Consider the following statements made by Dr Jitendra Singh on 18 October 2025: 1. The Anusandhan National Research Foundation has an outlay of ₹50,000 crore over five years, of which ₹36,000 crore will come from non-government sources. 2. The findings of the indigenous haemophilia gene therapy trial were published in The Lancet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: ANRF has a total outlay of ₹50,000 crore over five years, ₹36,000 crore from non-government sources; the gene therapy findings were published in the New England Journal of Medicine.
Which provision of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 entitles employed voters to a paid holiday on polling day?
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Correct answer: B — Section 135B
PIB (ECI): as per Section 135B of the RP Act, 1951, every employed person entitled to vote in a Lok Sabha or State/UT Assembly election shall be granted a paid holiday on the day of poll.
Consider the following statements about the paid holiday on polling day for the Bihar elections, 2025, as clarified by the ECI: 1. Daily wage and casual workers are also entitled to a paid holiday. 2. Voters employed outside their constituency are not entitled to the paid holiday even if registered in a constituency going to the polls. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (ECI): daily wage and casual workers are entitled; electors working outside their constituency but registered in a constituency going to the polls are also entitled to the paid holiday.
The Titanium and Superalloy Materials Plant dedicated to the nation by the Raksha Mantri on 18 October 2025 belongs to which company?
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Correct answer: C — PTC Industries
PIB: the plant is at PTC Industries' Strategic Materials Technology Complex in Lucknow.
PTC Industries signed an MoU on 18 October 2025 to form a joint venture for propulsion systems, guided bombs and small aeroengines with which defence PSU?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Dynamics Limited
PIB: an MoU was signed between PTC Industries Limited and Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) to form a joint venture for propulsion systems, guided bombs and small aeroengines for missiles, UAVs and loitering munitions.
Consider the following statements about PTC Industries' Strategic Materials Technology Complex, Lucknow: 1. It has a production capacity of over 6,000 tonnes per annum of aviation-grade titanium and superalloys from domestic and recycled sources. 2. PTC Industries received a Letter of Technical Acceptance from CEMILAC for a Titanium Rear Fin Root Casting for the AMCA programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the plant's capacity is over 6,000 tonnes per annum from domestic and recycled sources; CEMILAC (DRDO) issued a LoTA for the Titanium Rear Fin Root Casting for the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft.
How many products did the Finance Ministry closely monitor to check that Next-Gen GST rate cuts reached consumers, as stated on 18 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 54
PIB: the Finance Minister said prices of 54 products were closely monitored and the benefits had been fully passed on across all 54 items.
According to Ashwini Vaishnaw on 18 October 2025, production had commenced at which two semiconductor manufacturing facilities?
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Correct answer: D — CG Semi and Kaynes
PIB: Shri Vaishnaw announced that production has commenced at two semiconductor manufacturing facilities — CG Semi and Kaynes.
Consider the following statements about the Next-Gen GST reforms, as described at the 18 October 2025 press conference: 1. They came into effect on 22 September 2025, the first day of Navratri. 2. They reduced the number of GST slabs from four to three. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the Next-Gen GST reforms came into effect on 22 September, the first day of Navratri, and brought the number of slabs down from four to two.
Which instrument on the Chandrayaan-2 orbiter made the first-ever observation of a solar CME's effect on the lunar exosphere, as announced by ISRO on 18 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — CHACE-2
ISRO (18 Oct 2025): the observation was made by Chandra's Atmospheric Composition Explorer-2 (CHACE-2) on board the Chandrayaan-2 orbiter.
On which date did the series of coronal mass ejections occur whose impact on the Moon was observed by Chandrayaan-2's CHACE-2?
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Correct answer: B — 10 May 2024
ISRO (18 Oct 2025): the opportunity came in a rare occurrence on 10 May 2024, when a series of CMEs were hurled by the Sun.
Consider the following statements, as stated by ISRO in October 2025: 1. The Moon's exosphere falls under the category of a 'surface boundary exosphere'. 2. Coronal mass ejections comprise mostly helium and hydrogen ions. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
ISRO (18 Oct 2025): the Moon's exosphere is a 'surface boundary exosphere', and CMEs comprise mostly helium and hydrogen ions, so both statements are correct.
Kalmyk State University, which signed a Memorandum of Cooperation with Nalanda University in October 2025, is located in which city?
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Correct answer: C — Elista
PIB: the university is 'Kalmyk State University named after B. B. Gorodovikov, Elista', the capital of the Republic of Kalmykia.
Consider the following statements about the Kalmyk State University–Nalanda University Memorandum of Cooperation (October 2025): 1. Nalanda University's Vice-Chancellor attended the signing in person in Elista. 2. The planned initiatives include a 'Concise Encyclopedia of the Buddhist Written Heritage of Russia and India'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: Vice-Chancellor Prof. Sachin Chaturvedi joined the meeting via video link; the planned initiatives include preparing the Concise Encyclopedia of the Buddhist Written Heritage of Russia and India.
The third production line of LCA Tejas Mk1A, inaugurated on 17 October 2025, is located at which HAL facility?
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Correct answer: C — Nashik
PIB: the Raksha Mantri inaugurated the third LCA Mk1A production line and the second HTT-40 line at HAL's Nashik facility.
With the third LCA Mk1A line operational, what is HAL's total production capacity for the aircraft per year?
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Correct answer: B — 24
PIB: the new line can produce eight aircraft per annum, and with it HAL achieves a total production capacity of 24 aircraft per year.
Consider the following statements: 1. HAL's Nashik division was established in 1964 for the licence manufacture of the MiG-21. 2. The HTT-40 production line inaugurated at Nashik on 17 October 2025 is HAL's first production line for the trainer. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the Nashik division was established in 1964 for licence manufacture of MiG-21; the line inaugurated at Nashik is the second HTT-40 production line.
The G20 Climate and Environmental Sustainability Working Group Ministerial Meeting, where India delivered its closing statement on 17 October 2025, was held in which city?
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Correct answer: C — Cape Town
PIB: Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav delivered India's closing statement at the meeting in Cape Town, South Africa.
Consider the following statements made by India at the G20 environment ministerial in October 2025: 1. India raised its non-fossil electric generation capacity to over 50% in 2025, meeting its revised NDC target five years in advance. 2. India's installed solar capacity grew from 27 GW in 2014 to 127 GW in 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: non-fossil capacity exceeded 50% in 2025, five years ahead of the revised NDC target; installed solar capacity grew from 2.8 GW in 2014 (not 27 GW) to 127 GW in 2025.
Who is the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka who called on PM Narendra Modi in New Delhi on 17 October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Dr Harini Amarasuriya
PIB: H.E. Dr Harini Amarasuriya, Prime Minister of the Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka, called on PM Modi; Anura Kumara Disanayaka is Sri Lanka's President.
Consider the following statements: 1. Dr Harini Amarasuriya is the President of Sri Lanka. 2. PM Modi made a State visit to Sri Lanka in April 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: Dr Amarasuriya is the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka (the President is Anura Kumara Disanayaka); PM Modi recalled his State visit to Sri Lanka in April this year.
The 8th session of the Codex Committee on Spices and Culinary Herbs (CCSCH8), concluded in October 2025, was held in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Guwahati
PIB: CCSCH8 concluded successfully in Guwahati.
CCSCH8 finalised new Codex standards for which three spices?
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Correct answer: D — Large cardamom, vanilla and coriander
PIB: a key highlight was the finalisation of three new standards for large cardamom, vanilla and coriander, recommended for adoption by the Codex Alimentarius Commission.
Consider the following statements about the Codex Committee on Spices and Culinary Herbs (CCSCH): 1. It was established in 2013 at India's behest under the Codex Alimentarius Commission, a joint body of the FAO and WHO. 2. Its Secretariat is the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: CCSCH was established in 2013 at India's behest under the Codex Alimentarius Commission (FAO/WHO); India, represented by the Spices Board under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, serves as its Secretariat.
The Haldia Multi-Modal Terminal on National Waterway-1 was handed over by IWAI in October 2025 to which PPP operator?
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Correct answer: B — IRC Natural Resources
PIB: IWAI handed over the Haldia MMT to IRC Natural Resources, which emerged as the highest bidder.
Under which PPP model has IWAI given the Haldia Multi-Modal Terminal to a private operator?
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Correct answer: A — Equip, Operate and Transfer (EOT)
PIB: IWAI adopted a Public-Private Partnership model on an Equip, Operate and Transfer (EOT) basis for operation and maintenance over 10 years, extendable by 5.
Consider the following statements about the Haldia Multi-Modal Terminal: 1. It was built by IWAI with financial and technical assistance from the World Bank and has a capacity of 3.08 million tonnes per annum. 2. The concession for its operation and maintenance is for 10 years, extendable by another 5 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the terminal was built with World Bank assistance, has a capacity of 3.08 MMTPA, and the O&M concession is for 10 years, extendable by 5.
Egypt's Foreign Minister Badr Abdelatty briefed PM Modi on 17 October 2025 about which bilateral mechanism held during his visit?
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Correct answer: A — The first India–Egypt Strategic Dialogue
PIB: Foreign Minister Abdelatty briefed the Prime Minister on the first India–Egypt Strategic Dialogue being held during his visit.
PM Modi congratulated Egypt's President on 17 October 2025 for Egypt's role in which agreement?
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Correct answer: D — Gaza Peace Agreement
PIB: the Prime Minister congratulated President Sisi for Egypt's crucial role in the Gaza Peace Agreement.
Jaipur Metro Phase 2, evaluated at the 100th NPG meeting under PM GatiShakti, is a north–south corridor between which two points?
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Correct answer: D — Prahladpura and Todi Mod
PIB: MoHUA proposed Jaipur Metro Phase 2, a 42.8 km north–south corridor from Prahladpura to Todi Mod with 36 stations.
The Gondia–Jabalpur railway doubling project evaluated at the 100th NPG meeting covers about how many kilometres, across which states?
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Correct answer: A — 230.5 km; Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
PIB: the Ministry of Railways proposed doubling of the Gondia–Jabalpur line, covering 230.5 km across Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. The 65 km project is Hosapete–Ballari in Karnataka.
Consider the following statements about the 100th meeting of the Network Planning Group (October 2025): 1. It evaluated five projects, including one metro rail project of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. 2. The Mahwa–Mandawar section evaluated at the meeting is part of NH-921 in Rajasthan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the NPG evaluated 5 projects — 2 MoRTH road, 2 rail and 1 MoHUA metro project; the Mahwa–Mandawar stretch is on National Highway 921 in Rajasthan.
According to NCRB's Prison Statistics India 2022, cited at the NHRC conference, what was the occupancy rate of Indian prisons in 2022?
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Correct answer: B — 131.4%
PIB: the occupancy rate rose to 131.4% of the actual capacity of 1,330 prisons in 2022, from 118% in 2020.
Consider the following statements in the context of the NHRC conference on prison inmates (October 2025): 1. The Model Prisons and Correctional Services Act was prepared by the Union Government in 2023. 2. Justice V. Ramasubramanian is the Chairperson of the NHRC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: Justice Ramasubramanian, NHRC Chairperson, cited the 'Model Prisons and Correctional Services Act' prepared by the Union Government in 2023.
NITI Aayog's Women Entrepreneurship Platform launched the 'We Rise' initiative in October 2025 with which partner to boost export readiness of women entrepreneurs?
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Correct answer: B — DP World
PIB: NITI Aayog's WEP and DP World announced the joint initiative 'We Rise' to enhance the export readiness of 100 women entrepreneurs.
What is the total outlay of the PLI Scheme for White Goods (air conditioners and LED lights), launched in April 2021?
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Correct answer: B — ₹6,238 crore
PIB: the PLI Scheme for White Goods was launched in April 2021 with a total outlay of ₹6,238 crore.
The PLI Scheme for White Goods, whose Round 4 window was extended to 10 November 2025, covers which products?
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Correct answer: C — Air conditioners and LED lights
PIB: Round 4 of the PLI Scheme for White Goods (Air Conditioners and LED Lights) was extended till 10 November 2025.
PM Modi launched development projects worth about how much in Kurnool, Andhra Pradesh, on 16 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Rs 13,430 crore
PIB: the Prime Minister laid the foundation stone, inaugurated and dedicated projects worth around Rs 13,430 crore in Kurnool.
The Srikakulam–Angul Natural Gas Pipeline, dedicated to the nation on 16 October 2025, was built by which company?
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Correct answer: D — GAIL (India) Limited
PIB: the Prime Minister dedicated the Srikakulam–Angul Natural Gas Pipeline of GAIL India Limited, built at about Rs 1,730 crore, spanning about 124 km in Andhra Pradesh and 298 km in Odisha.
Consider the following statements about the Kurnool projects of 16 October 2025: 1. The Orvakal and Kopparthy Industrial Areas are being developed jointly by NICDIT and APIIC. 2. The Kurnool-III Pooling Station project includes a 400 kV single-circuit line to Chilakaluripeta. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Orvakal (Kurnool) and Kopparthy (Kadapa) are developed jointly by NICDIT and APIIC; the Kurnool-III project includes a 765 kV double-circuit line to Chilakaluripeta.
According to Amit Shah on 16 October 2025, how many Naxalites surrendered in Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra over two days?
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Correct answer: B — 258
PIB: 258 Naxalites surrendered in two days — 170 in Chhattisgarh on 16 October, and 27 in Chhattisgarh and 61 in Maharashtra the day before.
Which areas of Chhattisgarh did the Union Home Minister say on 16 October 2025 had been declared free of Naxal terror?
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Correct answer: D — Abujhmarh and North Bastar
PIB: Abujhmarh and North Bastar in Chhattisgarh, once terror bases, were declared free of Naxal terror; a trace remains in South Bastar.
Consider the following statements based on the Home Minister's statement of 16 October 2025: 1. Those who surrendered included Satish alias T. Vasudeo Rao, a Central Committee Member carrying a reward of Rs 1 crore. 2. Since January 2024, 2,100 Naxalites have surrendered, 1,785 have been arrested and 477 eliminated in Chhattisgarh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per PIB: T. Vasudeo Rao (CCM) carried a Rs 1 crore reward; since January 2024 in Chhattisgarh, 2,100 surrendered, 1,785 were arrested and 477 eliminated.
Which State is ranked first in Category A of the State Mining Readiness Index released by the Ministry of Mines in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Madhya Pradesh
PIB: the top three in Category A are Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
Which States are the top three in Category C of the State Mining Readiness Index?
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Correct answer: B — Punjab, Uttarakhand and Tripura
PIB: in Category C, the top three ranks were obtained by Punjab, Uttarakhand and Tripura; Goa, Uttar Pradesh and Assam top Category B.
Consider the following statements about the State Mining Readiness Index (SMRI): 1. Its release fulfils an announcement made in the Union Budget 2025-26. 2. Its indicators pertain mainly to coal and lignite blocks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: SMRI fulfils the Union Budget 2025-26 announcement; its indicators — auction performance, early mine operationalisation, exploration and sustainable mining — pertain to non-coal minerals.
The UNTCC Chiefs' Conclave 2025, hosted by the Indian Army in New Delhi in October 2025, brought together chiefs and representatives from how many nations?
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Correct answer: D — 32
PIB: over three days, the Conclave brought together UNTCC Chiefs from 32 nations, senior UN officials, policymakers and industry leaders.
Consider the following statements about the UNTCC Chiefs' Conclave 2025: 1. It was hosted by the Indian Army in New Delhi from 14 to 16 October 2025. 2. Its Defence Expo featured 41 operational domains and nine exhibitors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the Conclave was hosted by the Indian Army from 14 to 16 October 2025; the Defence Expo featured nine operational domains and 41 exhibitors (not the reverse).
When was the Framework Agreement between India and MERCOSUR, recalled in the India–Brazil Joint Declaration of October 2025, signed?
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Correct answer: B — 17 June 2003
PIB: the Joint Declaration recalled the Framework Agreement signed between India and MERCOSUR on 17 June 2003.
Who signed the Joint Declaration on deepening the MERCOSUR–India trade agreement with Piyush Goyal on 16 October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Geraldo Alckmin, Vice President of Brazil
PIB: the Vice President of Brazil and Minister of Development, Industry, Trade and Services, Geraldo Alckmin, and Piyush Goyal issued the Joint Declaration.
Consider the following statements about the India–Brazil Joint Declaration on the MERCOSUR–India PTA (October 2025): 1. The parties should endeavour to conclude negotiations within one year from their launch. 2. A meeting of the Joint Administration Committee created under Article 23 of the PTA is to help define the scope of the expansion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the parties should endeavour to conclude negotiations within one year; the next step includes a meeting of the Joint Administration Committee under Article 23 of the PTA to define the scope.
Which State is hosting the fifth edition of the Khelo India University Games (24 November–5 December 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — Rajasthan
PIB: the fifth KIUG will be held in seven cities of Rajasthan from 24 November to 5 December 2025.
Which sport will be a demonstration event at the Khelo India University Games 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Kho-kho
PIB: KIUG 2025 has 23 medal sports and one demonstration discipline, kho-kho; mallakhamb and yogasana are medal sports.
Consider the following statements about the Khelo India University Games: 1. Beach volleyball, canoeing and kayaking, and cycling are being introduced for the first time in the 2025 edition. 2. Lovely Professional University were the champions of the previous edition held in North-East India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: beach volleyball, canoeing and kayaking, and cycling are being introduced for the first time; at the last KIUG in North-East India, Chandigarh University were champions and LPU finished second.
As per the MHA on 15 October 2025, which are now the only three districts 'most affected' by Left Wing Extremism?
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Correct answer: C — Bijapur, Sukma and Narayanpur
PIB (MHA): now only Bijapur, Sukma and Narayanpur in Chhattisgarh are the most affected districts by LWE.
According to the MHA's October 2025 update, the number of LWE-affected districts has been brought down from 18 to how many?
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Correct answer: A — 11
PIB (MHA): in the category of LWE-affected districts, the number has been brought down to just 11 from 18.
Consider the following statements from the MHA's 15 October 2025 release: 1. 312 LWE cadres were eliminated this year, including the CPI (Maoist) General Secretary. 2. In 2013, 126 districts from different states reported Naxal-related violence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per PIB: 312 LWE cadres were eliminated this year, including the CPI (Maoist) General Secretary and 8 other PB/CC members; in 2013, 126 districts reported Naxal-related violence.
Which Indian city was recommended in October 2025 by Commonwealth Sport's Executive Board as the proposed host of the 2030 Centenary Commonwealth Games?
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Correct answer: B — Ahmedabad
PIB: the Executive Board of Commonwealth Sport confirmed it will recommend Ahmedabad, India, as the proposed host city for the 2030 Centenary Commonwealth Games.
On what date was the recommendation of Ahmedabad for the 2030 Commonwealth Games to be placed before the General Assembly of Commonwealth Sport?
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Correct answer: D — 26 November 2025
PIB: the recommendation shall be placed before the General Assembly of Commonwealth Sport to be held on 26 November 2025.
Consider the following statements: 1. The 2030 Commonwealth Games will coincide with 100 years of the Commonwealth Sport movement, which has 74 member nations and territories. 2. India finished third on the medal table at the Birmingham 2022 Commonwealth Games. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the 2030 Games mark the centenary of the Commonwealth Sport movement of 74 member nations and territories; India finished fourth on the medal table at Birmingham 2022.