SSC CHSL Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
As per the Foreign Secretary's statement of 10 May 2025, from what time were both sides to stop all firing and military action?
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Correct answer: C — 1700 hours IST
Both sides were to stop all firing and military action from 1700 hours IST on 10 May 2025; the call itself was at 1535 hours.
Consider the following statements about the Foreign Secretary's statement of 10 May 2025: 1. The DGMO of Pakistan called the DGMO of India at 1535 hours IST. 2. The DGMOs were to talk again on 11 May at 1700 hours. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. The DGMOs were to talk again on 12 May at 1200 hours, so statement 2 is wrong.
The understanding announced on 10 May 2025 covered stopping firing and military action in which domains?
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Correct answer: D — Land, air and sea
The statement said both sides would stop all firing and military action on land and in the air and sea.
As per the release of 10 May 2025, how many airports were temporarily closed to civil flight operations under the NOTAMs?
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Correct answer: A — 32
32 airports across northern and western India were closed for civil flights from 9 to 14 May 2025; 25 was the number of ATS route segments.
Consider the following statements: 1. AAI extended the temporary closure of 25 ATS route segments within the Delhi and Mumbai Flight Information Regions. 2. The route segments were to remain unavailable until 2359 UTC on 14 May 2025, which corresponds to 0529 IST on 15 May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Civil Aviation release.
NOTAM G0555/25 on the closure of ATS route segments replaced which earlier NOTAM?
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Correct answer: D — G0525/25
As per NOTAM G0555/25 (which replaces G0525/25), the 25 route segments remained unavailable until 2359 UTC on 14 May 2025.
What was the theme of World Migratory Bird Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Shared Spaces: Creating Bird-Friendly Cities and Communities
The 2025 theme was 'Shared Spaces: Creating Bird-Friendly Cities and Communities'.
Consider the following statements: 1. World Migratory Bird Day is observed twice a year; in 2025 it fell on 10 May and 11 October. 2. The Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) entered into force in 1993. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. CMS entered into force in 1979 and has 133 Parties.
According to CMS, what share of all bird species globally is in decline?
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Correct answer: B — 49%
Globally 49% of bird species are in decline; 55% and 68% are the UN figures for the share of people in urban areas now and by 2050.
Whom did Madhura Dhamangaonkar beat in the women's compound final at the Archery World Cup Stage 2, Shanghai, on 10 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Carson Krahe
She beat USA's Carson Krahe 139–138 in the final; Hazal Burun was her semi-final opponent and Jyothi Surekha Vennam her quarter-final opponent.
What was the score in Madhura Dhamangaonkar's winning final?
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Correct answer: D — 139–138
She won the final 139–138; 143–141 was her semi-final score and 232–228 the men's team final score.
Consider the following statements about India at the Archery World Cup Stage 2, Shanghai: 1. The men's compound team of Abhishek Verma, Rishabh Yadav and Ojas Deotale beat Mexico 232–228 in the final. 2. Madhura Dhamangaonkar also won women's team silver and compound mixed team bronze with Abhishek Verma. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Which compound archery event is set to mark compound archery's Olympic debut at LA 2028?
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Correct answer: A — Mixed team
The compound mixed team event will feature at LA 2028, marking compound archery's Olympic debut.
As reported by India at UNFF20, what share of India's geographical area is under forest and tree cover?
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Correct answer: C — 25.17%
India reported forest and tree cover of 25.17% of its geographical area as per the latest India State of Forest Report.
Consider the following statements about India at UNFF20: 1. India invited all UN Member States to join the International Big Cat Alliance. 2. India recalled the Country-Led Initiative it hosted in Dehradun in October 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct; the Dehradun initiative focused on forest fire management and forest certification.
On which date were PMJJBY, PMSBY and Atal Pension Yojana launched?
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Correct answer: A — 9 May 2015
The three Jan Suraksha schemes were launched by PM Narendra Modi on 9 May 2015.
Which Jan Suraksha scheme had over 51 crore cumulative enrolments as on 23 April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — PMSBY
PMSBY had over 51.06 crore enrolments; PMJJBY had over 23.63 crore and APY over 7.66 crore.
Consider the following statements (data as on 23 April 2025): 1. More than 7.66 crore individuals had subscribed to the Atal Pension Yojana. 2. ₹3,121.02 crore had been paid under PMJJBY. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. ₹3,121.02 crore was paid under PMSBY; PMJJBY payouts were ₹18,397.92 crore.
After the expansion notified in May 2025, what is the ceiling on guarantee cover per borrower under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20 crore
The ceiling was raised from ₹10 crore to ₹20 crore.
Consider the following statements about the expanded CGSS: 1. Guarantee cover is 85% of the amount in default for loans up to ₹10 crore. 2. The Annual Guarantee Fee for startups in Champion Sectors was raised to 2% per annum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The Annual Guarantee Fee for Champion Sectors was reduced from 2% to 1% per annum.
The reduced Annual Guarantee Fee under the expanded CGSS applies to startups in how many Champion Sectors?
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Correct answer: D — 27
The fee was cut to 1% for startups in 27 Champion Sectors identified under 'Make in India'.
To which rating did Morningstar DBRS upgrade India's long-term foreign and local currency issuer ratings in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — BBB
The ratings were upgraded from BBB (low) to BBB with a Stable trend.
Consider the following statements about the Morningstar DBRS upgrade: 1. India's short-term ratings were upgraded to R-1 (low). 2. The agency cited average GDP growth of 6.5% during FY22–25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: short-term ratings went to R-2 (high) from R-2 (middle), and average growth cited was 8.2%.
On which date was the India–New Zealand FTA launched by Piyush Goyal and Todd McClay?
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Correct answer: A — 16 March 2025
The FTA was launched on 16 March 2025; the first round was held from 5 to 9 May 2025.
Consider the following statements: 1. The first round of India–New Zealand FTA negotiations was held from 5 to 9 May 2025 in New Delhi. 2. India–New Zealand merchandise trade reached USD 1.3 billion in 2024–25, a growth of 48.6%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Commerce Ministry release.
Who is New Zealand's Minister for Trade and Investment who launched the FTA with Piyush Goyal?
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Correct answer: B — Todd McClay
Todd McClay is New Zealand's Minister for Trade and Investment; Christopher Luxon is New Zealand's Prime Minister.
How many priority corridors for zero-emission trucking were identified in the report released by the PSA on 9 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 10
The report identified the top 10 corridors from an initial list of 230.
Consider the following statements about the zero-emission trucking report: 1. It notes that nearly 40% of fuel consumption and transport emissions in India originate from long-distance trucks. 2. It was prepared by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The report is by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser.
For what initial period did TRAI recommend that spectrum be assigned for NGSO-based FSS and GSO/NGSO-based MSS?
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Correct answer: B — Up to 5 years
TRAI recommended assignment for up to five years, which the Government may extend by up to two years.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's satellite spectrum recommendations of 9 May 2025: 1. Ku and Ka bands should be considered for user links of Mobile Satellite Services. 2. Satellite earth station gateways should be commissioned within 12 months of permission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. For MSS user links, TRAI recommended L and S bands; C, Ku, Ka and Q/V are for feeder links.
Pope Leo XIV, elected on 8 May 2025, is which Pope in history according to the Vatican?
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Correct answer: C — 267th
The Vatican described him as the 267th Pope (267th Bishop of Rome).
Consider the following statements about Pope Leo XIV: 1. He is the first Pope from the United States of America. 2. He was born in Lima, Peru. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. He was born in Chicago, Illinois, on 14 September 1955; he served as a missionary in Peru.
Who announced 'Habemus Papam' and the name of the new Pope from the central loggia of St Peter's Basilica on 8 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Cardinal Dominique Mamberti
Cardinal Protodeacon Dominique Mamberti made the announcement.
How many cardinal electors gathered in the Conclave that elected Pope Leo XIV?
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Correct answer: D — 133
As per L'Osservatore Romano, 133 cardinal electors gathered in the Sistine Chapel.
Iranian Foreign Minister Abbas Araghchi's visit in May 2025 marked which anniversary of India–Iran diplomatic relations?
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Correct answer: C — 75th
The President noted the visit came on the 75th anniversary of diplomatic relations.
Consider the following statements about the meeting of 8 May 2025: 1. President Murmu welcomed ongoing cooperation in realising the full potential of Chabahar Port. 2. Abbas Araghchi is Iran's Defence Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Abbas Araghchi is Iran's Minister of Foreign Affairs.
What was the theme of World Thalassemia Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Together for Thalassemia: Uniting Communities, Prioritizing Patients
The 2025 theme was 'Together for Thalassemia: Uniting Communities, Prioritizing Patients'.
Consider the following statements about the Thalassemia Bal Sewa Yojana (TBSY): 1. It is a CSR initiative of Coal India Limited supporting free bone marrow transplants for children with thalassemia and aplastic anaemia. 2. The Coal Minister announced a 'One State, One Hospital' goal for bone marrow transplants under it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Thalassemia, as described by the DEPwD, is what type of genetic disorder?
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Correct answer: B — Autosomal recessive
Thalassemia is a genetic autosomal recessive disorder inherited from one or both parents.
The warship 'Arnala', delivered to the Indian Navy on 8 May 2025, is named after a historic fort located off:
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Correct answer: A — Vasai, Maharashtra
Arnala is named after the historic Arnala fort located off Vasai, Maharashtra.
Consider the following statements about 'Arnala': 1. It is the first of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft built by GRSE. 2. It is the largest Indian naval warship propelled by a diesel engine–waterjet combination. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
What is the length of the warship 'Arnala'?
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Correct answer: B — 77 m
Arnala is a 77 m long warship.
When was the India–Chile Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) signed?
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Correct answer: B — March 2006
The PTA was signed in March 2006; the Framework Agreement in January 2005; the expanded PTA was signed in September 2016 and took effect on 16 May 2017.
Consider the following statements about the India–Chile CEPA: 1. The first round of negotiations was scheduled to be held in Santiago. 2. The expanded India–Chile PTA became effective in January 2005. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the first round was scheduled for 26–30 May 2025 in New Delhi, and the expanded PTA took effect on 16 May 2017.
As per the SRS Special Bulletin on Maternal Mortality 2019-21, released with the SRS 2021 report on 7 May 2025, India's Maternal Mortality Ratio is:
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Correct answer: B — 93
MMR fell from 130 per lakh live births in 2014-16 to 93 in 2019-21. 70 is the SDG target and 45 is Telangana's MMR.
According to the SRS Statistical Report 2021, India's Infant Mortality Rate in 2021 was (per 1,000 live births):
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Correct answer: D — 27
IMR was 27 in 2021, down from 39 in 2014. 19 is the Neonatal Mortality Rate and 31 the Under-Five Mortality Rate for 2021.
Consider the following statements based on the SRS 2021 data released on 7 May 2025: 1. Among the States that have met the SDG target for MMR, Kerala has the lowest MMR. 2. India's Total Fertility Rate was 2.0 in 2021. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Kerala's MMR is 20, and the TFR was 2.0 in 2021.
What is the total outlay of the National Scheme for ITI Upgradation approved by the Union Cabinet on 7 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹60,000 crore
The total outlay is ₹60,000 crore, of which ₹30,000 crore is the Central share, ₹20,000 crore the State share and ₹10,000 crore the industry share.
How many government ITIs are to be upgraded in a hub-and-spoke arrangement under the scheme approved on 7 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1,000
The scheme covers upgradation of 1,000 government ITIs; 50,000 is the number of trainers to be trained and 5 the number of NSTIs.
Consider the following statements about the National Scheme for ITI Upgradation: 1. The Asian Development Bank and the World Bank will co-finance 50% of the Central share equally. 2. The National Skill Training Institutes to be augmented include Pune and Kolkata. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The five NSTIs are at Bhubaneswar, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kanpur and Ludhiana.
The nationwide civil defence mock drill of 7 May 2025 was directed to be held in how many categorised Civil Defence districts?
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Correct answer: A — 244
The MHA directed the drill across 244 categorised Civil Defence districts.
Consider the following statements about the civil defence mock drill of 7 May 2025: 1. It was directed by the Ministry of Defence. 2. NCC, NSS and NYKS volunteers along with school and college students were to participate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The drill was directed by the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Defence.
According to the Ministry of Defence, how many sites were targeted under Operation Sindoor on 7 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nine
The Ministry of Defence said that altogether nine sites were targeted in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Jammu and Kashmir.
Consider the following statements about Operation Sindoor (7 May 2025): 1. The Ministry of Defence stated that no Pakistani military facilities were targeted. 2. At the MEA briefing, Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri was joined by Colonel Sofia Qureshi and Wing Commander Vyomika Singh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The MoD release said no Pakistani military facilities were targeted, and the Foreign Secretary's statement names the two officers who joined the briefing.
Markaz Taiba, one of the nine sites named at the Operation Sindoor briefing, is located at:
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Correct answer: B — Muridke
Markaz Taiba is at Muridke. Bahawalpur was the location of Markaz Subhanallah, Kotli of the Gulpur and Abbas camps, and Sialkot of the Sarjal and Mehmoona Joya camps.
Which organisation was the host of the Global Space Exploration Conference (GLEX) 2025 held in New Delhi from 7 to 9 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Space Research Organisation
GLEX 2025 was jointly organised by the International Astronautical Federation, with ISRO as host and the Astronautical Society of India as co-host.
Consider the following statements: 1. GLEX 2025 was the 12th edition of the Global Space Exploration Conference. 2. In his GLEX 2025 address, the Prime Minister said India has deployed over 400 satellites for 34 nations using Indian launch vehicles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the PIB releases of 6 and 7 May 2025.
Which of the following IIT–State/UT pairs, from the five IITs whose expansion was approved on 7 May 2025, is correctly matched?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Palakkad – Kerala
IIT Palakkad is in Kerala. IIT Dharwad is in Karnataka, IIT Bhilai in Chhattisgarh and IIT Tirupati in Andhra Pradesh.
After the Phase-B expansion approved on 7 May 2025, the five IITs together will be able to cater to how many students?
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Correct answer: B — 13,687
Capacity rises from 7,111 to 13,687 students, an increase of 6,576.
Under the Revised SHAKTI policy approved on 7 May 2025, the existing eight paras for coal allocation have been mapped into how many windows?
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Correct answer: C — Two
The eight paras were mapped to two windows: Window-I (notified price) and Window-II (premium above notified price).
Consider the following statements about Window-II of the Revised SHAKTI policy: 1. Power producers can secure coal for a period of more than 12 months up to 25 years by paying a premium above the notified price. 2. A power purchase agreement is mandatory for selling electricity generated from Window-II coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The requirement of a PPA has been done away with for electricity generated from Window-II coal.
In which year was the original SHAKTI policy for coal allocation introduced?
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Correct answer: D — 2017
The Ministry of Coal noted that SHAKTI was introduced in 2017, shifting coal allocation from nomination to auction/tariff-based bidding.
In which year were the Piprahwa Buddhist relics excavated by William Claxton Peppé?
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Correct answer: D — 1898
They were excavated in 1898; most of them were transferred to the Indian Museum, Kolkata, in 1899.
Consider the following statements about the Piprahwa relics: 1. Most of the relics are classified as 'AA' antiquities under Indian law and were transferred to the Indian Museum, Kolkata. 2. The auction postponed in May 2025 was scheduled at Sotheby's London. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The auction was scheduled by Sotheby's Hong Kong on 7 May 2025.
Consider the following statements about the IDY 2025 review meeting of 7 May 2025: 1. It was chaired by Union Ayush Minister Prataprao Jadhav in New Delhi. 2. 'Harit Yoga' refers to the integration of yoga with schools, hospitals and corporates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Integration with schools, hospitals and corporates is 'Yoga Sangam'; 'Harit Yoga' promotes eco-consciousness through yoga-linked plantation drives.
Which IDY 2025 initiative reviewed on 7 May 2025 promotes eco-consciousness through yoga-linked plantation drives?
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Correct answer: D — Harit Yoga
Harit Yoga is the plantation-linked initiative. Yoga Sangam integrates yoga with institutions, Yoga Connect engages global and diaspora communities, and Yoga Bandhan fosters social unity.
Under the India–UK FTA concluded on 6 May 2025, India will gain from tariff elimination on about what share of tariff lines?
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Correct answer: B — 99%
India will gain from tariff elimination on about 99% of tariff lines, covering almost 100% of trade value.
Under the India–UK Double Contribution Convention, Indian workers temporarily in the UK and their employers are exempt from UK social security contributions for:
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Correct answer: D — Three years
The exemption is for a period of three years.
Consider the following statements about the India–UK FTA: 1. FTA negotiations resumed in February 2025 after the two Prime Ministers met at the G20 Summit in Rio de Janeiro in November 2024. 2. India–UK bilateral trade of about USD 60 billion is projected to double by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Ministry of Commerce release of 6 May 2025.
Consider the following statements about the India–UK FTA: 1. India will gain tariff elimination on about 90% of tariff lines. 2. The FTA eases mobility for independent professionals such as yoga instructors, musicians and chefs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Tariff elimination is on about 99% of tariff lines.
Anthony Albanese, congratulated by PM Modi on 6 May 2025 on his re-election, is the ___ Prime Minister of Australia.
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Correct answer: C — 32nd
The PMO release describes Albanese's re-election as the 32nd Prime Minister of Australia.
Consider the following statements about the Modi–Albanese call of 6 May 2025: 1. PM Modi invited PM Albanese to India, including for the QUAD Summit to be hosted in India later in the year. 2. The leaders noted the India–Australia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership had completed ten years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The leaders noted the CSP's five years.
Under the IWAI–Rhenus Logistics MoU of 6 May 2025, how many barges/cargo vessels are to be deployed in a phased manner on national waterways?
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Correct answer: B — 100
100 barges are to be deployed in phases; about 20 barges and 6 pushers in the first phase. 70 is the number of countries Rhenus operates in.
Consider the following statements about the IWAI–Rhenus Logistics MoU: 1. Rhenus Logistics is a Germany-based logistics provider. 2. The first phase covers NW-1, NW-2 and NW-16. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways releases.
What annual cargo movement does the first phase of the IWAI–Rhenus MoU target by the end of 2025?
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Correct answer: A — More than one million tonnes
The first phase targets movement of more than one million tonnes of cargo annually by the end of 2025.
Friedrich Merz assumed office on 6 May 2025 as the Federal Chancellor of which country?
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Correct answer: B — Germany
Merz assumed office as the Federal Chancellor of Germany; PM Modi referred to the India–Germany Strategic Partnership.
As stated on 6 May 2025, when is India's first human spaceflight under Gaganyaan now scheduled?
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Correct answer: D — First quarter of 2027
The first human spaceflight is scheduled for the first quarter of 2027. TV-D2 is slated for later in 2025; 2035 and 2040 are the targets for the Bharatiya Antariksha Station and an Indian on the Moon.
Consider the following long-term space goals recalled by Dr. Jitendra Singh on 6 May 2025: 1. Setting up the Bharatiya Antariksha Station by 2035. 2. Sending the first Indian to the Moon by 2047. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The goal is to send the first Indian to the Moon by 2040.