SF Prep

RRB NTPC Current Affairs Quiz — All time

Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.

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3261 news · 8869 MCQs
Score: 0 / 0 attempted · 78 questions
Foreign Secretary: India and Pakistan DGMOs agree to stop all firing and military action from 1700 hours IST
Q1

As per the Foreign Secretary's statement of 10 May 2025, from what time were both sides to stop all firing and military action?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 1700 hours IST

Both sides were to stop all firing and military action from 1700 hours IST on 10 May 2025; the call itself was at 1535 hours.

Q2 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Foreign Secretary's statement of 10 May 2025: 1. The DGMO of Pakistan called the DGMO of India at 1535 hours IST. 2. The DGMOs were to talk again on 11 May at 1700 hours. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct. The DGMOs were to talk again on 12 May at 1200 hours, so statement 2 is wrong.

Q3

The understanding announced on 10 May 2025 covered stopping firing and military action in which domains?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Land, air and sea

The statement said both sides would stop all firing and military action on land and in the air and sea.

AAI NOTAMs: civil flights suspended at 32 airports; 25 ATS route segments closed till 15 May
Q4

As per the release of 10 May 2025, how many airports were temporarily closed to civil flight operations under the NOTAMs?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 32

32 airports across northern and western India were closed for civil flights from 9 to 14 May 2025; 25 was the number of ATS route segments.

Q5 Advanced

Consider the following statements: 1. AAI extended the temporary closure of 25 ATS route segments within the Delhi and Mumbai Flight Information Regions. 2. The route segments were to remain unavailable until 2359 UTC on 14 May 2025, which corresponds to 0529 IST on 15 May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct as per the Ministry of Civil Aviation release.

Q6 Advanced

NOTAM G0555/25 on the closure of ATS route segments replaced which earlier NOTAM?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — G0525/25

As per NOTAM G0555/25 (which replaces G0525/25), the 25 route segments remained unavailable until 2359 UTC on 14 May 2025.

World Migratory Bird Day 2025: 'Shared Spaces: Creating Bird-Friendly Cities and Communities'
Q7

What was the theme of World Migratory Bird Day 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Shared Spaces: Creating Bird-Friendly Cities and Communities

The 2025 theme was 'Shared Spaces: Creating Bird-Friendly Cities and Communities'.

Q8 Advanced

Consider the following statements: 1. World Migratory Bird Day is observed twice a year; in 2025 it fell on 10 May and 11 October. 2. The Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) entered into force in 1993. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. CMS entered into force in 1979 and has 133 Parties.

Q9 Advanced

According to CMS, what share of all bird species globally is in decline?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 49%

Globally 49% of bird species are in decline; 55% and 68% are the UN figures for the share of people in urban areas now and by 2050.

Madhura Dhamangaonkar wins compound gold at Archery World Cup Stage 2 in Shanghai
Q10

Whom did Madhura Dhamangaonkar beat in the women's compound final at the Archery World Cup Stage 2, Shanghai, on 10 May 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Carson Krahe

She beat USA's Carson Krahe 139–138 in the final; Hazal Burun was her semi-final opponent and Jyothi Surekha Vennam her quarter-final opponent.

Q11 Advanced

What was the score in Madhura Dhamangaonkar's winning final?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 139–138

She won the final 139–138; 143–141 was her semi-final score and 232–228 the men's team final score.

Q12 Advanced

Consider the following statements about India at the Archery World Cup Stage 2, Shanghai: 1. The men's compound team of Abhishek Verma, Rishabh Yadav and Ojas Deotale beat Mexico 232–228 in the final. 2. Madhura Dhamangaonkar also won women's team silver and compound mixed team bronze with Abhishek Verma. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct.

Q13 Advanced

Which compound archery event is set to mark compound archery's Olympic debut at LA 2028?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Mixed team

The compound mixed team event will feature at LA 2028, marking compound archery's Olympic debut.

India highlights forest achievements at UNFF20, invites nations to join International Big Cat Alliance
Q14

As reported by India at UNFF20, what share of India's geographical area is under forest and tree cover?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 25.17%

India reported forest and tree cover of 25.17% of its geographical area as per the latest India State of Forest Report.

Q15 Advanced

Consider the following statements about India at UNFF20: 1. India invited all UN Member States to join the International Big Cat Alliance. 2. India recalled the Country-Led Initiative it hosted in Dehradun in October 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct; the Dehradun initiative focused on forest fire management and forest certification.

Jan Suraksha schemes PMJJBY, PMSBY and APY complete 10 years
Q16

On which date were PMJJBY, PMSBY and Atal Pension Yojana launched?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 9 May 2015

The three Jan Suraksha schemes were launched by PM Narendra Modi on 9 May 2015.

Q17 Advanced

Which Jan Suraksha scheme had over 51 crore cumulative enrolments as on 23 April 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — PMSBY

PMSBY had over 51.06 crore enrolments; PMJJBY had over 23.63 crore and APY over 7.66 crore.

Q18 Advanced

Consider the following statements (data as on 23 April 2025): 1. More than 7.66 crore individuals had subscribed to the Atal Pension Yojana. 2. ₹3,121.02 crore had been paid under PMJJBY. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. ₹3,121.02 crore was paid under PMSBY; PMJJBY payouts were ₹18,397.92 crore.

DPIIT notifies expansion of Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups; cover per borrower raised to ₹20 crore
Q19

After the expansion notified in May 2025, what is the ceiling on guarantee cover per borrower under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — ₹20 crore

The ceiling was raised from ₹10 crore to ₹20 crore.

Q20 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the expanded CGSS: 1. Guarantee cover is 85% of the amount in default for loans up to ₹10 crore. 2. The Annual Guarantee Fee for startups in Champion Sectors was raised to 2% per annum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. The Annual Guarantee Fee for Champion Sectors was reduced from 2% to 1% per annum.

Q21 Advanced

The reduced Annual Guarantee Fee under the expanded CGSS applies to startups in how many Champion Sectors?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 27

The fee was cut to 1% for startups in 27 Champion Sectors identified under 'Make in India'.

Morningstar DBRS upgrades India's sovereign rating to 'BBB' with Stable trend
Q22

To which rating did Morningstar DBRS upgrade India's long-term foreign and local currency issuer ratings in May 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — BBB

The ratings were upgraded from BBB (low) to BBB with a Stable trend.

Q23 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Morningstar DBRS upgrade: 1. India's short-term ratings were upgraded to R-1 (low). 2. The agency cited average GDP growth of 6.5% during FY22–25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2

Both are wrong: short-term ratings went to R-2 (high) from R-2 (middle), and average growth cited was 8.2%.

First round of India–New Zealand FTA negotiations concludes in New Delhi
Q24

On which date was the India–New Zealand FTA launched by Piyush Goyal and Todd McClay?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 16 March 2025

The FTA was launched on 16 March 2025; the first round was held from 5 to 9 May 2025.

Q25 Advanced

Consider the following statements: 1. The first round of India–New Zealand FTA negotiations was held from 5 to 9 May 2025 in New Delhi. 2. India–New Zealand merchandise trade reached USD 1.3 billion in 2024–25, a growth of 48.6%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct as per the Commerce Ministry release.

Q26

Who is New Zealand's Minister for Trade and Investment who launched the FTA with Piyush Goyal?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Todd McClay

Todd McClay is New Zealand's Minister for Trade and Investment; Christopher Luxon is New Zealand's Prime Minister.

PSA releases report on India's Priority Corridors for Zero-Emission Trucking
Q27

How many priority corridors for zero-emission trucking were identified in the report released by the PSA on 9 May 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 10

The report identified the top 10 corridors from an initial list of 230.

Q28 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the zero-emission trucking report: 1. It notes that nearly 40% of fuel consumption and transport emissions in India originate from long-distance trucks. 2. It was prepared by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. The report is by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser.

TRAI releases recommendations on terms and conditions for satellite communication spectrum
Q29

For what initial period did TRAI recommend that spectrum be assigned for NGSO-based FSS and GSO/NGSO-based MSS?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Up to 5 years

TRAI recommended assignment for up to five years, which the Government may extend by up to two years.

Q30 Advanced

Consider the following statements about TRAI's satellite spectrum recommendations of 9 May 2025: 1. Ku and Ka bands should be considered for user links of Mobile Satellite Services. 2. Satellite earth station gateways should be commissioned within 12 months of permission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Only 2 is correct. For MSS user links, TRAI recommended L and S bands; C, Ku, Ka and Q/V are for feeder links.

Robert Francis Prevost elected Pope, takes the name Leo XIV; first Pope from the United States
Q31

Pope Leo XIV, elected on 8 May 2025, is which Pope in history according to the Vatican?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 267th

The Vatican described him as the 267th Pope (267th Bishop of Rome).

Q32 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Pope Leo XIV: 1. He is the first Pope from the United States of America. 2. He was born in Lima, Peru. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. He was born in Chicago, Illinois, on 14 September 1955; he served as a missionary in Peru.

Q33 Advanced

Who announced 'Habemus Papam' and the name of the new Pope from the central loggia of St Peter's Basilica on 8 May 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Cardinal Dominique Mamberti

Cardinal Protodeacon Dominique Mamberti made the announcement.

Q34 Advanced

How many cardinal electors gathered in the Conclave that elected Pope Leo XIV?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 133

As per L'Osservatore Romano, 133 cardinal electors gathered in the Sistine Chapel.

Iran's Foreign Minister Abbas Araghchi calls on President Murmu
Q35

Iranian Foreign Minister Abbas Araghchi's visit in May 2025 marked which anniversary of India–Iran diplomatic relations?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 75th

The President noted the visit came on the 75th anniversary of diplomatic relations.

Q36 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the meeting of 8 May 2025: 1. President Murmu welcomed ongoing cooperation in realising the full potential of Chabahar Port. 2. Abbas Araghchi is Iran's Defence Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. Abbas Araghchi is Iran's Minister of Foreign Affairs.

World Thalassemia Day 2025: 'Together for Thalassemia'; Coal India's Thalassemia Bal Sewa Yojana to aim for 'One State, One Hospital'
Q37

What was the theme of World Thalassemia Day 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Together for Thalassemia: Uniting Communities, Prioritizing Patients

The 2025 theme was 'Together for Thalassemia: Uniting Communities, Prioritizing Patients'.

Q38 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Thalassemia Bal Sewa Yojana (TBSY): 1. It is a CSR initiative of Coal India Limited supporting free bone marrow transplants for children with thalassemia and aplastic anaemia. 2. The Coal Minister announced a 'One State, One Hospital' goal for bone marrow transplants under it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct.

Q39

Thalassemia, as described by the DEPwD, is what type of genetic disorder?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Autosomal recessive

Thalassemia is a genetic autosomal recessive disorder inherited from one or both parents.

'Arnala', first Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft, delivered to the Indian Navy
Q40

The warship 'Arnala', delivered to the Indian Navy on 8 May 2025, is named after a historic fort located off:

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Vasai, Maharashtra

Arnala is named after the historic Arnala fort located off Vasai, Maharashtra.

Q41 Advanced

Consider the following statements about 'Arnala': 1. It is the first of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft built by GRSE. 2. It is the largest Indian naval warship propelled by a diesel engine–waterjet combination. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct.

Q42

What is the length of the warship 'Arnala'?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 77 m

Arnala is a 77 m long warship.

India and Chile sign Terms of Reference for CEPA negotiations
Q43 Advanced

When was the India–Chile Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) signed?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — March 2006

The PTA was signed in March 2006; the Framework Agreement in January 2005; the expanded PTA was signed in September 2016 and took effect on 16 May 2017.

Q44 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the India–Chile CEPA: 1. The first round of negotiations was scheduled to be held in Santiago. 2. The expanded India–Chile PTA became effective in January 2005. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2

Both are wrong: the first round was scheduled for 26–30 May 2025 in New Delhi, and the expanded PTA took effect on 16 May 2017.

SRS 2021 report: Maternal Mortality Ratio falls to 93, Infant Mortality Rate to 27
Q45

As per the SRS Special Bulletin on Maternal Mortality 2019-21, released with the SRS 2021 report on 7 May 2025, India's Maternal Mortality Ratio is:

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 93

MMR fell from 130 per lakh live births in 2014-16 to 93 in 2019-21. 70 is the SDG target and 45 is Telangana's MMR.

Q46

According to the SRS Statistical Report 2021, India's Infant Mortality Rate in 2021 was (per 1,000 live births):

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 27

IMR was 27 in 2021, down from 39 in 2014. 19 is the Neonatal Mortality Rate and 31 the Under-Five Mortality Rate for 2021.

Q47 Advanced

Consider the following statements based on the SRS 2021 data released on 7 May 2025: 1. Among the States that have met the SDG target for MMR, Kerala has the lowest MMR. 2. India's Total Fertility Rate was 2.0 in 2021. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. Kerala's MMR is 20, and the TFR was 2.0 in 2021.

Cabinet approves ₹60,000-crore National Scheme for ITI Upgradation and five National Centres of Excellence for Skilling
Q48

What is the total outlay of the National Scheme for ITI Upgradation approved by the Union Cabinet on 7 May 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — ₹60,000 crore

The total outlay is ₹60,000 crore, of which ₹30,000 crore is the Central share, ₹20,000 crore the State share and ₹10,000 crore the industry share.

Q49

How many government ITIs are to be upgraded in a hub-and-spoke arrangement under the scheme approved on 7 May 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1,000

The scheme covers upgradation of 1,000 government ITIs; 50,000 is the number of trainers to be trained and 5 the number of NSTIs.

Q50 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the National Scheme for ITI Upgradation: 1. The Asian Development Bank and the World Bank will co-finance 50% of the Central share equally. 2. The National Skill Training Institutes to be augmented include Pune and Kolkata. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. The five NSTIs are at Bhubaneswar, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kanpur and Ludhiana.

Nationwide civil defence mock drill held in 244 districts on MHA directions
Q51

The nationwide civil defence mock drill of 7 May 2025 was directed to be held in how many categorised Civil Defence districts?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 244

The MHA directed the drill across 244 categorised Civil Defence districts.

Q52 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the civil defence mock drill of 7 May 2025: 1. It was directed by the Ministry of Defence. 2. NCC, NSS and NYKS volunteers along with school and college students were to participate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Only 2 is correct. The drill was directed by the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Defence.

Operation Sindoor: Indian Armed Forces strike nine terrorist sites in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Jammu and Kashmir
Q53

According to the Ministry of Defence, how many sites were targeted under Operation Sindoor on 7 May 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Nine

The Ministry of Defence said that altogether nine sites were targeted in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Jammu and Kashmir.

Q54 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Operation Sindoor (7 May 2025): 1. The Ministry of Defence stated that no Pakistani military facilities were targeted. 2. At the MEA briefing, Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri was joined by Colonel Sofia Qureshi and Wing Commander Vyomika Singh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. The MoD release said no Pakistani military facilities were targeted, and the Foreign Secretary's statement names the two officers who joined the briefing.

Q55 Advanced

Markaz Taiba, one of the nine sites named at the Operation Sindoor briefing, is located at:

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Muridke

Markaz Taiba is at Muridke. Bahawalpur was the location of Markaz Subhanallah, Kotli of the Gulpur and Abbas camps, and Sialkot of the Sarjal and Mehmoona Joya camps.

PM Modi addresses Global Space Exploration Conference (GLEX) 2025 in New Delhi
Q56

Which organisation was the host of the Global Space Exploration Conference (GLEX) 2025 held in New Delhi from 7 to 9 May 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Indian Space Research Organisation

GLEX 2025 was jointly organised by the International Astronautical Federation, with ISRO as host and the Astronautical Society of India as co-host.

Q57 Advanced

Consider the following statements: 1. GLEX 2025 was the 12th edition of the Global Space Exploration Conference. 2. In his GLEX 2025 address, the Prime Minister said India has deployed over 400 satellites for 34 nations using Indian launch vehicles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct, as per the PIB releases of 6 and 7 May 2025.

Cabinet approves ₹11,828.79-crore expansion of five new IITs at Tirupati, Palakkad, Bhilai, Jammu and Dharwad
Q58 Advanced

Which of the following IIT–State/UT pairs, from the five IITs whose expansion was approved on 7 May 2025, is correctly matched?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — IIT Palakkad – Kerala

IIT Palakkad is in Kerala. IIT Dharwad is in Karnataka, IIT Bhilai in Chhattisgarh and IIT Tirupati in Andhra Pradesh.

Q59

After the Phase-B expansion approved on 7 May 2025, the five IITs together will be able to cater to how many students?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 13,687

Capacity rises from 7,111 to 13,687 students, an increase of 6,576.

CCEA approves Revised SHAKTI policy: coal linkages to power plants through two windows
Q60

Under the Revised SHAKTI policy approved on 7 May 2025, the existing eight paras for coal allocation have been mapped into how many windows?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Two

The eight paras were mapped to two windows: Window-I (notified price) and Window-II (premium above notified price).

Q61 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Window-II of the Revised SHAKTI policy: 1. Power producers can secure coal for a period of more than 12 months up to 25 years by paying a premium above the notified price. 2. A power purchase agreement is mandatory for selling electricity generated from Window-II coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. The requirement of a PPA has been done away with for electricity generated from Window-II coal.

Q62

In which year was the original SHAKTI policy for coal allocation introduced?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 2017

The Ministry of Coal noted that SHAKTI was introduced in 2017, shifting coal allocation from nomination to auction/tariff-based bidding.

Sotheby's Hong Kong postpones auction of Piprahwa Buddhist relics after Ministry of Culture intervention
Q63

In which year were the Piprahwa Buddhist relics excavated by William Claxton Peppé?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 1898

They were excavated in 1898; most of them were transferred to the Indian Museum, Kolkata, in 1899.

Q64 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Piprahwa relics: 1. Most of the relics are classified as 'AA' antiquities under Indian law and were transferred to the Indian Museum, Kolkata. 2. The auction postponed in May 2025 was scheduled at Sotheby's London. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. The auction was scheduled by Sotheby's Hong Kong on 7 May 2025.

Ayush Minister Prataprao Jadhav reviews preparations for International Day of Yoga 2025
Q65 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the IDY 2025 review meeting of 7 May 2025: 1. It was chaired by Union Ayush Minister Prataprao Jadhav in New Delhi. 2. 'Harit Yoga' refers to the integration of yoga with schools, hospitals and corporates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. Integration with schools, hospitals and corporates is 'Yoga Sangam'; 'Harit Yoga' promotes eco-consciousness through yoga-linked plantation drives.

Q66

Which IDY 2025 initiative reviewed on 7 May 2025 promotes eco-consciousness through yoga-linked plantation drives?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Harit Yoga

Harit Yoga is the plantation-linked initiative. Yoga Sangam integrates yoga with institutions, Yoga Connect engages global and diaspora communities, and Yoga Bandhan fosters social unity.

India and UK conclude Free Trade Agreement and Double Contribution Convention
Q67

Under the India–UK FTA concluded on 6 May 2025, India will gain from tariff elimination on about what share of tariff lines?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 99%

India will gain from tariff elimination on about 99% of tariff lines, covering almost 100% of trade value.

Q68

Under the India–UK Double Contribution Convention, Indian workers temporarily in the UK and their employers are exempt from UK social security contributions for:

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Three years

The exemption is for a period of three years.

Q69 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the India–UK FTA: 1. FTA negotiations resumed in February 2025 after the two Prime Ministers met at the G20 Summit in Rio de Janeiro in November 2024. 2. India–UK bilateral trade of about USD 60 billion is projected to double by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct, as per the Ministry of Commerce release of 6 May 2025.

Q70 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the India–UK FTA: 1. India will gain tariff elimination on about 90% of tariff lines. 2. The FTA eases mobility for independent professionals such as yoga instructors, musicians and chefs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Only 2 is correct. Tariff elimination is on about 99% of tariff lines.

PM Modi congratulates Anthony Albanese on re-election as Prime Minister of Australia
Q71

Anthony Albanese, congratulated by PM Modi on 6 May 2025 on his re-election, is the ___ Prime Minister of Australia.

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 32nd

The PMO release describes Albanese's re-election as the 32nd Prime Minister of Australia.

Q72 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Modi–Albanese call of 6 May 2025: 1. PM Modi invited PM Albanese to India, including for the QUAD Summit to be hosted in India later in the year. 2. The leaders noted the India–Australia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership had completed ten years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. The leaders noted the CSP's five years.

IWAI signs MoU with Rhenus Logistics to deploy 100 barges on national waterways
Q73

Under the IWAI–Rhenus Logistics MoU of 6 May 2025, how many barges/cargo vessels are to be deployed in a phased manner on national waterways?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 100

100 barges are to be deployed in phases; about 20 barges and 6 pushers in the first phase. 70 is the number of countries Rhenus operates in.

Q74 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the IWAI–Rhenus Logistics MoU: 1. Rhenus Logistics is a Germany-based logistics provider. 2. The first phase covers NW-1, NW-2 and NW-16. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct, as per the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways releases.

Q75

What annual cargo movement does the first phase of the IWAI–Rhenus MoU target by the end of 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — More than one million tonnes

The first phase targets movement of more than one million tonnes of cargo annually by the end of 2025.

Friedrich Merz assumes office as Federal Chancellor of Germany; PM Modi congratulates him
Q76

Friedrich Merz assumed office on 6 May 2025 as the Federal Chancellor of which country?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Germany

Merz assumed office as the Federal Chancellor of Germany; PM Modi referred to the India–Germany Strategic Partnership.

Gaganyaan enters final phase; first human spaceflight scheduled for first quarter of 2027
Q77

As stated on 6 May 2025, when is India's first human spaceflight under Gaganyaan now scheduled?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — First quarter of 2027

The first human spaceflight is scheduled for the first quarter of 2027. TV-D2 is slated for later in 2025; 2035 and 2040 are the targets for the Bharatiya Antariksha Station and an Indian on the Moon.

Q78 Advanced

Consider the following long-term space goals recalled by Dr. Jitendra Singh on 6 May 2025: 1. Setting up the Bharatiya Antariksha Station by 2035. 2. Sending the first Indian to the Moon by 2047. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. The goal is to send the first Indian to the Moon by 2040.