Railway Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
At what rate per tonne did the Union Cabinet on 1 January 2025 extend the one-time special package on DAP beyond the NBS subsidy?
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Correct answer: A — ₹3,500 per tonne
PIB (Cabinet): the Cabinet approved extension of the one-time special package on DAP beyond the NBS subsidy @ ₹3,500 per MT from 01.01.2025 till further orders.
What is the approximate financial implication of the DAP special package extension approved on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Up to ₹3,850 crore
PIB (Cabinet): the tentative budgetary requirement is approximately up to ₹3,850 crore; ₹2,625 crore was the earlier package and ₹6,475 crore is the total since April 2024.
Consider the following statements about fertiliser subsidy as stated in the Cabinet release of 1 January 2025: 1. Subsidy on P&K fertilisers has been governed by the NBS scheme since 1 April 2010. 2. The first one-time special package on DAP covered 1 April to 31 December 2024. 3. The new extension of the special package is limited to the Rabi 2024-25 season only. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Cabinet): NBS has governed P&K subsidy w.e.f. 01.04.2010 and the July 2024 package covered 01.04.2024 to 31.12.2024; the extension runs from 01.01.2025 till further orders, so statement 3 is wrong.
The Ministry of Defence declared 2025 as the year of what?
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Correct answer: C — Year of Reforms
PIB (Defence): it was unanimously decided to observe 2025 as the 'Year of Reforms' in the Ministry of Defence.
Which structural change in the Armed Forces do the 'Year of Reforms' focus areas seek to facilitate through jointness and integration?
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Correct answer: D — Establishment of Integrated Theatre Commands
PIB (Defence): reforms should aim to further bolster jointness and integration initiatives and facilitate establishment of the Integrated Theatre Commands.
Who chaired the meeting at which it was decided to observe 2025 as the 'Year of Reforms' in the Ministry of Defence?
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Correct answer: A — Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh
PIB (Defence): Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh chaired a meeting with all the Secretaries of the MoD on the eve of the New Year, where the decision was taken unanimously.
The exchange of nuclear installation lists between India and Pakistan on 1 January 2025 was the how-manyth consecutive exchange?
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Correct answer: A — 34th
MEA: this is the 34th consecutive exchange of such lists, the first having taken place on 1 January 1992.
Under which agreement do India and Pakistan exchange lists of civilian prisoners and fishermen every 1 January and 1 July?
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Correct answer: B — Agreement on Consular Access, 2008
MEA: under the provisions of the bilateral Agreement on Consular Access 2008, such lists are exchanged every year on 1 January and 1 July.
Consider the following statements about the India–Pakistan exchanges of 1 January 2025: 1. India shared names of 381 civilian prisoners and 81 fishermen in its custody. 2. Pakistan shared names of 49 civilian prisoners and 217 fishermen in its custody. 3. The Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack against Nuclear Installations and Facilities was signed on 31 December 1988. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
MEA: India — 381 civilian prisoners and 81 fishermen; Pakistan — 49 civilian prisoners and 217 fishermen; the nuclear agreement was signed on 31 December 1988 and entered into force on 27 January 1991.
According to the Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report 2024 released on 31 December 2024, what is India's overall stage of ground water extraction?
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Correct answer: C — 60.47%
PIB (Jal Shakti): annual extraction of 245.64 BCM against an extractable resource of 406.19 BCM gives a stage of extraction of 60.47%; 73.4% is the share of safe units and 11.13% the share of over-exploited units.
Out of 6,746 assessment units in the 2024 ground water assessment, how many were categorised as 'Over-exploited'?
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Correct answer: A — 751
PIB (Jal Shakti): 751 units are over-exploited; 206 are critical, 711 semi-critical and 127 saline, with 4,951 safe.
Consider the following statements about the 2024 ground water assessment compared with the 2017 assessment: 1. Total annual recharge increased by 15 BCM. 2. Annual extraction increased by 3 BCM. 3. Recharge from tanks, ponds and water conservation structures rose from 13.98 BCM to 25.34 BCM. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Jal Shakti): recharge rose by 15 BCM and extraction fell (not rose) by 3 BCM; recharge from tanks, ponds and WCS rose from 13.98 BCM to 25.34 BCM. So statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Till which date did NPCI on 31 December 2024 extend the deadline for UPI apps to comply with the 30% transaction-volume cap?
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Correct answer: C — 31 December 2026
Business Standard/TechCrunch: NPCI extended the compliance deadline by two years, to 31 December 2026.
Before NPCI removed the limit on 31 December 2024, WhatsApp Pay's UPI user onboarding was capped at:
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Correct answer: D — 100 million users
Business Standard/TechCrunch: the limit had been set at 100 million users; 20 million and 40 million were earlier stages, and 500 million is roughly WhatsApp's Indian user base.
Consider the following statements about NPCI's decisions of 31 December 2024: 1. The UPI user onboarding limit for WhatsApp Pay was removed with immediate effect. 2. The 30% UPI volume cap was first proposed by NPCI in November 2020. 3. The volume cap applies only to bank-owned UPI apps. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
The Hindu/Business Standard: the WhatsApp Pay limit was removed with immediate effect and the 30% cap was first proposed in November 2020; the cap concerns third-party app providers such as PhonePe and Google Pay, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which Indian player won bronze in the women's section of the FIDE World Blitz Championship 2024 in New York?
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Correct answer: D — R. Vaishali
FIDE/The Hindu/Indian Express: R. Vaishali won bronze after losing to Ju Wenjun in the semi-finals.
Who won the women's title at the FIDE World Blitz Championship 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Ju Wenjun
FIDE: Ju Wenjun beat Lei Tingjie in the final; Valentina Gunina was the defending blitz champion beaten by Ju in the quarter-finals.
Consider the following statements about the open section of the FIDE World Blitz Championship 2024: 1. Magnus Carlsen and Ian Nepomniachtchi shared the title. 2. The decision to share first place was accepted by FIDE President Arkady Dvorkovich. 3. A silver medal was awarded to the player with the better tiebreak. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
FIDE: Carlsen and Nepomniachtchi shared first place after Dvorkovich accepted the proposal, 'without a silver medal being awarded', so statement 3 is wrong.
Which core industry recorded the highest growth in November 2024 as per the Index of Eight Core Industries released on 31 December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Cement
PIB (Commerce): cement grew 13.0% in November 2024, the highest; coal grew 7.5%, steel 4.8% and electricity 3.8%.
Which two core industries contracted in November 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Crude oil and natural gas
PIB (Commerce): crude oil (−2.1%) and natural gas (−1.9%) contracted; fertilizers (2.0%), refinery products (2.9%) and coal (7.5%) grew.
Consider the following statements about the Index of Eight Core Industries data released on 31 December 2024: 1. Cumulative growth for April–November 2024-25 was 4.2%. 2. The final growth rate for August 2024 was revised to −1.5%. 3. Electricity has a higher weight in the index than refinery products. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Commerce): April–November growth was 4.2% and August 2024 was revised to −1.5%; refinery products (28.04%) outweigh electricity (19.85%), so statement 3 is wrong.
According to the Union Government accounts up to November 2024, total receipts stood at what share of the Budget Estimates 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — 59.1%
PIB (Finance): total receipts of ₹18,94,408 crore were 59.1% of BE 2024-25; 56.9% is the expenditure share.
How much did the Centre transfer to State Governments as devolution of their share of taxes during April–November 2024?
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Correct answer: C — ₹8,12,063 crore
PIB (Finance): ₹8,12,063 crore was transferred as tax devolution; ₹6,58,494 crore was interest, ₹5,13,500 crore capital expenditure and ₹18,94,408 crore total receipts.
According to the Annual Ground Water Quality Report 2024, India's ground water is predominantly of which type?
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Correct answer: C — Calcium-bicarbonate type
PIB (Jal Shakti): the report finds ground water to be predominantly of the calcium-bicarbonate type.
Consider the following statements about the Annual Ground Water Quality Report 2024 of the CGWB: 1. It is the first such report prepared under a Standard Operating Procedure. 2. It covers more than 15,200 monitoring locations. 3. Over 81% of samples were found suitable for irrigation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Jal Shakti): the report is the first to adopt an SOP, covers over 15,200 monitoring locations, and finds over 81% of samples safe for irrigation. All three statements are correct.
How many payloads were flown on the POEM-4 platform of the PSLV-C60/SpaDeX mission launched on 30 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 24
ISRO: POEM-4 carried 24 payloads, 14 from ISRO/DOS centres and 10 from non-government entities through IN-SPACe; POEM-3 had carried 8.
The Walking Robotic Arm (RRM-TD) on POEM-4, described by ISRO as India's first space robotic manipulator with walking capability, was developed by:
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Correct answer: C — ISRO Inertial Systems Unit (IISU)
ISRO: the Relocatable Robotic Manipulator-Technology Demonstrator (Walking Robotic Arm) was developed by IISU; the debris capture robotic manipulator and CROPS are from VSSC.
Consider the following statements about the PSLV-C60 mission: 1. PSLV-C60 was the first vehicle integrated up to the PS4 stage at the PSLV Integration Facility before being moved for satellite assembly. 2. Ten of the POEM-4 payloads came from academia and start-ups through IN-SPACe. 3. The previous POEM-3 platform had hosted 12 payloads. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: PSLV-C60 was the first vehicle integrated up to PS4 at PIF, and 10 of the 24 payloads came from NGEs via IN-SPACe; POEM-3 hosted only eight payloads, so statement 3 is wrong.
According to the RBI's Financial Stability Report released on 30 December 2024, the gross NPA ratio of scheduled commercial banks fell to a 12-year low of how much in September 2024?
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Correct answer: D — 2.6%
RBI FSR: the GNPA ratio of SCBs declined to a 12-year low of 2.6% in September 2024; 0.6% is the NNPA ratio and 3.0% the baseline stress-test projection for March 2026.
The RBI's Financial Stability Report reflects the collective assessment of which body on the resilience of the Indian financial system?
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Correct answer: B — Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council
RBI press release: the FSR reflects the collective assessment of the Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC).
Consider the following statements about scheduled commercial banks as reported in the RBI's December 2024 Financial Stability Report (September 2024 data): 1. CRAR and CET1 ratios stood at 16.7% and 14.0% respectively. 2. The provisioning coverage ratio improved to 77.0%. 3. The net NPA ratio stood at around 1.6%. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
RBI FSR: CRAR and CET1 were 16.7% and 14.0% and the PCR improved to 77.0%; the NNPA ratio was around 0.6%, not 1.6%, so statement 3 is wrong.
According to India's fourth Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted to the UNFCCC on 30 December 2024, by how much did India's total GHG emissions in 2020 change compared with 2019?
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Correct answer: D — Decreased by 7.93%
PIB (MoEFCC): India's total GHG emissions in 2020 decreased by 7.93% with respect to 2019.
As per BUR-4, which sector was the second-largest contributor to India's GHG emissions in 2020, after energy?
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Correct answer: B — Agriculture
PIB (MoEFCC): energy contributed 75.66%, followed by agriculture (13.72%), IPPU (8.06%) and waste (2.56%); LULUCF acted as a net sink.
Consider the following statements regarding India's BUR-4: 1. It contains the national GHG inventory for the year 2020. 2. Between 2005 and 2020, India's emission intensity of GDP fell by 36%. 3. By October 2024, non-fossil sources made up more than half of India's installed electricity capacity. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoEFCC): BUR-4 contains the 2020 inventory and emission intensity of GDP fell by 36% (2005–2020); the non-fossil share of installed capacity was 46.52%, less than half, so statement 3 is wrong.
With which company did the Ministry of Defence sign a contract of about ₹1,990 crore on 30 December 2024 for construction of the Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) plug for the DRDO-AIP system?
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Correct answer: A — Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
PIB (Defence): the ~₹1,990 crore AIP plug contract was signed with Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited, Mumbai.
The ₹877 crore contract signed with Naval Group, France, on 30 December 2024 is for integrating the Electronic Heavy Weight Torpedo on which class of Indian Navy submarines?
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Correct answer: D — Kalvari class
PIB (Defence): the Naval Group contract covers integration of the DRDO-developed EHWT on the Kalvari-class submarines.
Consider the following statements about the submarine contracts signed by the Ministry of Defence on 30 December 2024: 1. The two contracts together were worth about ₹2,867 crore. 2. The AIP technology is being indigenously developed by DRDO. 3. The torpedo integration contract was the larger of the two, at about ₹1,990 crore. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Defence): the contracts total about ₹2,867 crore and the AIP technology is being developed by DRDO; the EHWT contract was about ₹877 crore while the AIP plug contract was about ₹1,990 crore, so statement 3 is wrong.
Who assumed charge as Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) on 30 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Justice V. Ramasubramanian
PIB (NHRC): Justice V. Ramasubramanian, former Supreme Court judge, assumed charge as Chairperson; Justice Sarangi joined as Member and Vijaya Bharathi Sayani had been Acting Chairperson.
Justice (Dr) Bidyut Ranjan Sarangi, who joined the NHRC as a Member on 30 December 2024, is a former Chief Justice of which High Court?
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Correct answer: D — Jharkhand High Court
PIB (NHRC): Justice (Dr) Bidyut Ranjan Sarangi is the former Chief Justice of the Jharkhand High Court.
Consider the following statements about the NHRC appointments that took effect in December 2024: 1. The new Chairperson and Members were appointed by the President on 21 December 2024. 2. Priyank Kanoongo, a former NCPCR Chairperson, joined the Commission as a Member. 3. Justice V. Ramasubramanian had served as Chief Justice of the Himachal Pradesh High Court before his elevation to the Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (NHRC): the appointments were made by President Droupadi Murmu on 21 December 2024; Priyank Kanoongo, former NCPCR Chairperson, joined as Member; and Justice Ramasubramanian was Chief Justice of the Himachal Pradesh High Court in 2019 before becoming a Supreme Court judge. All three are correct.
According to the Commerce Ministry's two-year review of the India-Australia ECTA (December 2024), what was India's export utilisation under the agreement?
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Correct answer: D — 79%
PIB (Commerce): export utilisation was 79% and import utilisation 84%; 14% was the growth in India's exports to Australia in 2023-24.
Bilateral merchandise trade between India and Australia rose from USD 12.2 billion in 2020-21 to how much in 2022-23?
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Correct answer: A — USD 26 billion
PIB (Commerce): trade rose to USD 26 billion in 2022-23; it moderated to USD 24 billion in 2023-24, and April–November 2024 trade was USD 16.3 billion.
Where was a stocktake visit on the India-Australia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) held from 4 to 6 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — New Delhi
PIB (Commerce): the CECA stocktake visit was concluded in New Delhi from 4 to 6 December 2024.
Consider the following statements about India-Australia trade as per the Commerce Ministry's December 2024 review: 1. Both sides aim for bilateral trade of AUD 100 billion by 2030. 2. Talks on the CECA have seen 10 formal rounds. 3. Total bilateral trade rose further in 2023-24 over 2022-23. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Commerce): the target is AUD 100 billion by 2030 and CECA has had 10 formal rounds; total trade moderated from USD 26 billion in 2022-23 to USD 24 billion in 2023-24, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which village in Haryana was renamed after former US President Jimmy Carter, who died on 29 December 2024, following his visit in 1978?
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Correct answer: C — Carterpuri
The Hindu/Business Standard/Indian Express: the Haryana village near Gurgaon was renamed Carterpuri after Carter's 1978 visit.
In which year was The Carter Center founded by Jimmy and Rosalynn Carter in partnership with Emory University?
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Correct answer: A — 1982
The Carter Center: it was founded in 1982 by Jimmy and Rosalynn Carter in partnership with Emory University; Carter's presidency began in 1977 and ended in 1981, and he won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2002.
In which year was Jimmy Carter awarded the Nobel Peace Prize?
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Correct answer: D — 2002
The Carter Center: Jimmy Carter was the winner of the 2002 Nobel Peace Prize.
Consider the following statements about Jimmy Carter: 1. He was the 39th President of the United States. 2. He died at his home in Plains, Georgia, at the age of 100. 3. He visited the Haryana village later named after him in 1980. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
The Carter Center/Indian Express/The Hindu: Carter was the 39th US President and died at home in Plains, Georgia, aged 100; he visited the village on 3 January 1978, not in 1980, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which batter did Jasprit Bumrah dismiss to claim his 200th Test wicket at the MCG on 29 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Travis Head
Indian Express/Hindustan Times: Bumrah dismissed Travis Head for 1 for his 200th Test wicket.
In how many balls did Jasprit Bumrah reach 200 Test wickets, the fastest by an Indian bowler?
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Correct answer: B — 8,484
Indian Express/Hindustan Times: Bumrah took 8,484 balls; Waqar Younis (7,725), Dale Steyn (7,848) and Kagiso Rabada (8,154) were quicker, and Malcolm Marshall took 9,234.
Jasprit Bumrah's 200th Test wicket came in which of his Test matches?
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Correct answer: D — 44th
Indian Express/Hindustan Times: the 200th wicket came in his 44th Test.
Jasprit Bumrah joined which two contemporary fast bowlers who had also reached 200 Test wickets in 44 matches?
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Correct answer: A — Pat Cummins and Kagiso Rabada
Indian Express/Hindustan Times: Bumrah joined Pat Cummins and Kagiso Rabada, who also reached 200 wickets in 44 Tests.
Consider the following statements about Jasprit Bumrah's 200 Test wickets: 1. He is the first bowler to reach 200 Test wickets with a bowling average below 20. 2. He is the fastest bowler in the world to 200 Test wickets in terms of balls bowled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 only
Indian Express/Hindustan Times: his average of 19.56 makes him the first to 200 wickets with a sub-20 average; by balls he is fourth-fastest, behind Waqar Younis, Dale Steyn and Kagiso Rabada, so statement 2 is wrong.
What was Koneru Humpy's score in winning the FIDE Women's World Rapid Championship 2024 in New York?
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Correct answer: A — 8.5/11
ChessBase India/Sportstar: Humpy finished clear first with 8.5/11; several players, including Ju Wenjun and Harika Dronavalli, scored 8/11.
Koneru Humpy's 2024 World Rapid title was her second. Where did she win her first Women's World Rapid title in 2019?
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Correct answer: C — Moscow
Sportstar: this was Humpy's second World Rapid title after she claimed the top spot in 2019 in Moscow.
Consider the following statements about Koneru Humpy's 2024 Women's World Rapid title: 1. She beat Irine Kharisma Sukandar in the final round. 2. The Prime Minister noted that the second title made her the only Indian to achieve this feat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
Sportstar/ChessBase India/PIB: Humpy beat Irine Sukandar in round 11, and the PM said the second world rapid title made her the only Indian to achieve the feat; both statements are correct.
Where in Nepal was the 18th edition of the India-Nepal joint military exercise Surya Kiran held (31 December 2024 to 13 January 2025)?
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Correct answer: C — Saljhandi
PIB (Defence): Exercise Surya Kiran XVIII was conducted at Saljhandi, Nepal, from 31 December 2024 to 13 January 2025.
The Indian Army contingent for Exercise Surya Kiran XVIII was led by a battalion of which regiment?
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Correct answer: A — 11th Gorkha Rifles
PIB (Defence): the Indian contingent was led by a battalion from the 11th Gorkha Rifles; Nepal was represented by the Srijung Battalion.
Consider the following statements about Exercise Surya Kiran: 1. The December 2024 edition was its 18th edition. 2. It is an annual exercise conducted alternately in India and Nepal. 3. The Nepal Army was represented by the Srijung Battalion in the 2024-25 edition. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Defence): it was the 18th edition, it is an annual event conducted alternately in the two countries, and Nepal was represented by the Srijung Battalion; all three statements are correct.
With which batter did Nitish Kumar Reddy share a 127-run eighth-wicket partnership during his maiden Test century at the MCG on 28 December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Washington Sundar
BBC/Sky Sports: Reddy put on 127 for the eighth wicket with Washington Sundar, who scored 50.
What was Nitish Kumar Reddy's score at stumps on day three of the Melbourne Test, his maiden Test century?
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Correct answer: A — 105 not out
BBC/Sky Sports: Reddy was unbeaten on 105 at the close; 127 was the partnership with Sundar and 97 was his score when Sundar fell.
At which position in the batting order did Nitish Kumar Reddy bat when he scored his maiden Test century in December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — No. 8
BBC/Sky Sports: Reddy was batting at No. 8 when he made his maiden century.
According to the HCES 2023-24 factsheet released on 27 December 2024, what was the average MPCE in urban India (without imputation)?
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Correct answer: A — ₹6,996
PIB (MoSPI): average MPCE in 2023-24 was ₹6,996 in urban India without imputation; ₹7,078 is the urban figure with imputation and ₹6,459 was the 2022-23 urban figure.
Which State recorded the highest MPCE in both rural and urban areas in HCES 2023-24?
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Correct answer: C — Sikkim
PIB (MoSPI): among the States, MPCE was highest in Sikkim (rural ₹9,377, urban ₹13,927) and lowest in Chhattisgarh.
In HCES 2023-24, which State had the highest rural-urban difference in average MPCE?
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Correct answer: D — Meghalaya
PIB (MoSPI): the rural-urban difference in average MPCE among the States was highest in Meghalaya (104%), followed by Jharkhand (83%) and Chhattisgarh (80%).
Consider the following statements about HCES 2023-24: 1. The share of non-food items in average MPCE was 53% in rural and 60% in urban areas. 2. The estimates are based on data from 2,61,953 households. 3. The fieldwork was conducted from August 2022 to July 2023. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoSPI): non-food items made up 53% (rural) and 60% (urban) of MPCE, and the estimates come from 2,61,953 households. Statement 3 is wrong: HCES 2023-24 fieldwork ran from August 2023 to July 2024 (August 2022 to July 2023 was HCES 2022-23).
Who was appointed Chairperson of the National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL) in December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Sandip Shah
PIB (Commerce and Industry): Dr Sandip Shah was appointed Chairperson of NABL, a constituent board of the Quality Council of India, as announced on 27 December 2024.
Dr Sandip Shah, appointed NABL Chairperson in December 2024, succeeded whom?
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Correct answer: A — Prof. Subbanna Ayyappan
PIB (Commerce and Industry): Dr Sandip Shah succeeds Prof. Subbanna Ayyappan as Chairperson of NABL.
Which department serves as the nodal point for the Quality Council of India (QCI), whose constituent board NABL got a new Chairperson in December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
PIB (Commerce and Industry): the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, serves as the nodal point for QCI.
Which institution carried out the Smart Cities Mission impact studies on smart classrooms and urban safety released on 27 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — IIM Bangalore
PIB (MoHUA): the Indian Institute of Management, Bangalore carried out two studies under the SAAR (Sameeksha) series of the Smart Cities Mission.
According to the IIM Bangalore study released in December 2024, how many smart classrooms were developed by 71 smart cities in government schools?
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Correct answer: C — 9,433
PIB (MoHUA): 71 cities developed 9,433 smart classrooms in 2,398 government schools; 7,809 is the seating capacity of digital libraries in 41 cities.
Which city reported a 14% decline in overall crime after surveillance measures, as per the IIM Bangalore Smart Cities study of December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Nagpur
PIB (MoHUA): Nagpur reported a 14% decline in overall crime rates after the implementation of surveillance measures, says the IIM Bangalore study.
The FELUDA-based point-of-care test highlighted by the Ministry of Science and Technology on 27 December 2024 detects which bacterium?
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Correct answer: B — Helicobacter pylori
PIB (Science and Technology): researchers developed FELUDA as a point-of-care test to detect Helicobacter pylori and its mutations in dyspeptic patients.
Resistance of H. pylori to which antibiotic, primarily due to point mutations in its 23S ribosomal RNA gene, can be identified by the FELUDA test reported in December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Clarithromycin
PIB (Science and Technology): resistance to clarithromycin is primarily attributed to point mutations in the 23S ribosomal RNA coding gene of H. pylori, and en31-FnCas9 identified the 23S rDNA mutation status in biopsy samples.
Which CSIR laboratory's researchers developed the FELUDA-based H. pylori test reported in December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — CSIR-IGIB
PIB (Science and Technology): Dr Shraddha Chakraborty and colleagues at CSIR-IGIB used en31-FnCas9 in the FELUDA test for H. pylori.
INS Sarvekshak arrived at Port Louis on 26 December 2024 for a Joint Hydrographic Survey. Port Louis is in which country?
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Correct answer: C — Mauritius
PIB (Ministry of Defence): INS Sarvekshak arrived at Port Louis, Mauritius, on 26 December 2024 to undertake a Joint Hydrographic Survey.
What was the purpose of INS Sarvekshak's visit to Port Louis in December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — A Joint Hydrographic Survey
PIB (Ministry of Defence): INS Sarvekshak arrived at Port Louis to undertake a Joint Hydrographic Survey, which will help Mauritius plan maritime infrastructure, resource management and coastal development.
Who, as High Commissioner of India to Mauritius, received INS Sarvekshak at Port Louis on 26 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Anurag Srivastava
PIB (Ministry of Defence): the ship was received by Anurag Srivastava, High Commissioner of India to Mauritius, along with Capt C.G. Binoop, Commandant of the Mauritius National Coast Guard.
Former Prime Minister Dr Manmohan Singh, who died on 26 December 2024, was born in which village?
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Correct answer: A — Gah, West Punjab
PIB (Cabinet resolution): Dr Manmohan Singh was born on 26 September 1932 in village Gah, West Punjab, in the Punjab province of undivided India.
During which period did Dr Manmohan Singh serve as Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
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Correct answer: C — September 1982 to January 1985
PIB (Cabinet resolution): Dr Manmohan Singh was Governor of the Reserve Bank of India from September 1982 to January 1985; November 1976 to April 1980 was his tenure as DEA Secretary and April 1980 to September 1982 as Member Secretary, Planning Commission.
In which year was Dr Manmohan Singh conferred the Padma Vibhushan?
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Correct answer: D — 1987
PIB (Cabinet resolution): Dr Manmohan Singh received the Padma Vibhushan in 1987; 1956 was the Adam Smith Prize, 1993 the Euromoney Finance Minister of the Year award and 1995 the Jawaharlal Nehru Birth Centenary Award of the Indian Science Congress.
Consider the following statements about Dr Manmohan Singh: 1. He served as India's Finance Minister from 1991 to 1996. 2. He was Chief Economic Adviser in the Ministry of Finance from 1972 to 1976. 3. He received his D.Phil from the University of Cambridge in 1962. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Cabinet resolution): he was Finance Minister from 1991 to 1996 and CEA from 1972 to 1976. Statement 3 is wrong: his D.Phil (1962) was from the University of Oxford; from Cambridge he received the Economics Tripos in 1957.
Which edition of the PRAGATI interaction did Prime Minister Narendra Modi chair on 26 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 45th
PIB (PMO): the Prime Minister chaired the meeting of the 45th edition of PRAGATI on 26 December 2024.
Of the eight projects reviewed at the 45th PRAGATI meeting in December 2024, how many were metro projects?
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Correct answer: B — Six
PIB (PMO): the eight projects reviewed included six metro projects of urban transport and one project each in road connectivity and thermal power, with a combined cost of more than ₹1 lakh crore.
Dr Arunish Chawla took charge on 26 December 2024 as Secretary of which department of the Ministry of Finance?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Revenue
PIB (Ministry of Finance): Dr Arunish Chawla took charge as Secretary, Department of Revenue, on 26 December 2024.
Before becoming Revenue Secretary in December 2024, Dr Arunish Chawla was Secretary of which department since 1 November 2023?
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Correct answer: D — Department of Pharmaceuticals
PIB (Ministry of Finance): Dr Chawla had served as Secretary, Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers, since 1 November 2023.
Which edition of Veer Baal Diwas was observed at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, on 26 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 3rd
PIB (PMO): the Prime Minister addressed the gathering on the occasion of the 3rd Veer Baal Diwas at Bharat Mandapam on 26 December 2024.
Which campaign did the Prime Minister launch at the Veer Baal Diwas programme on 26 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Suposhit Gram Panchayat Abhiyan
PIB (PMO): the Prime Minister launched the 'Suposhit Gram Panchayat Abhiyan' at the Veer Baal Diwas programme at Bharat Mandapam.
In his Veer Baal Diwas 2024 address, the Prime Minister said the Sahibzadas chose to embrace the death sentence ordered by whom?
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Correct answer: D — Wazir Khan
PIB (PMO): the Prime Minister said the Sahibzadas rejected the temptations of the Mughal Sultanate and chose to embrace the death sentence ordered by Wazir Khan.
Under the Post Office Regulations, 2024, the limit for remittance through money order was raised to what amount?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,000
PIB (Ministry of Communications): the money order remittance limit was raised from ₹5,000 to ₹10,000 to help disburse social welfare scheme payments.
From which date did the Post Office Rules, 2024 and Post Office Regulations, 2024 come into force?
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Correct answer: C — 16 December 2024
PIB (Ministry of Communications): the Rules and Regulations came into force w.e.f. 16 December 2024; 24 December 2023 is when the Post Office Act, 2023 was enacted and 18 June 2024 when the Act took effect.
How many rules and regulations together make up the new subordinate legislation under the Post Office Act, 2023?
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Correct answer: B — 19 rules and 180 regulations
PIB (Ministry of Communications): the new Rules and Regulations contain 19 rules and 180 regulations, framed with the motto 'Dak Sewa Jan Sewa'.