PPSC (Punjab) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Where was the G7 Summit, to which Canadian PM Mark Carney invited PM Modi on 6 June 2025, to be held?
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Correct answer: B — Kananaskis
Mark Carney invited the Prime Minister to the G7 Summit in Kananaskis later in June 2025.
Consider the following statements about the phone call between PM Modi and Canadian PM Mark Carney on 6 June 2025: 1. PM Modi congratulated Mark Carney on his recent election victory. 2. The G7 Summit to which PM Modi was invited was scheduled for July 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: PM Modi congratulated Carney on his recent election victory. Statement 2 is incorrect: the G7 Summit in Kananaskis was due later in the same month, June 2025.
Which meeting of the India–Central Asia Dialogue was held in New Delhi on 6 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 4th
The Central Asian Foreign Ministers briefed the Prime Minister on the 4th Meeting of the India–Central Asia Dialogue, held in New Delhi on 6 June 2025.
To which event did PM Modi invite the leaders of all Central Asian countries in June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Second India–Central Asia Summit
The Prime Minister invited the leaders of all Central Asian countries to the Second India–Central Asia Summit to be held in India.
Consider the following statements about the Central Asian Foreign Ministers' call on PM Modi on 6 June 2025: 1. The ministers condemned the 22 April 2025 terrorist attack in Pahalgam. 2. The ministers briefed the PM on the 3rd Meeting of the India–Central Asia Dialogue. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the ministers strongly condemned the 22 April 2025 Pahalgam terror attack. Statement 2 is incorrect: they briefed the PM on the 4th Meeting of the India–Central Asia Dialogue.
With the launch of the Bharatiya Bhasha Anubhag on 6 June 2025, which department was described as having become a complete department?
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Correct answer: D — Department of Official Language
Amit Shah said that with the establishment of the Bharatiya Bhasha Anubhag, the Department of Official Language has now become a complete department.
The NCC team welcomed in New Delhi on 5 June 2025 completed which successful NCC expedition to Mount Everest?
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Correct answer: D — Third
The 2025 climb marked the Third successful NCC expedition to Mount Everest, following earlier successes in 2013 and 2016.
Consider the following statements about the NCC Mount Everest Expedition 2025: 1. The team consisted of ten cadets, five boys and five girls. 2. The team summited Mount Everest on 5 June 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the team had ten cadets, five boys and five girls. Statement 2 is incorrect: the team summited on 18 May 2025 and was welcomed in New Delhi on 5 June 2025.
As part of its training, the NCC Mount Everest Expedition Team 2025 made a preparatory ascent of which peak?
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Correct answer: C — Mt. Abi Gamin
The novice cadets trained with a preparatory ascent of Mt. Abi Gamin and a winter camp at the Army Mountaineering Institute, Siachen Base Camp.
Which issue of 'EnviStats India: Environment Statistics' did MoSPI release on 5 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 8th
MoSPI released the 8th issue of 'EnviStats India 2025: Environment Statistics' on 5 June 2025.
According to UIDAI, how many Aadhaar authentication transactions were carried out in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Over 211 crore
Aadhaar number holders carried out Over 211 crore authentication transactions in May 2025, taking the cumulative total to more than 15,223 crore.
What will be the reference date for Population Census-2027 for most of India, as announced on 4 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1 March 2027
The reference date for Population Census-2027 will be 00:00 hours of 1 March 2027 for most of the country.
For Ladakh and the snow-bound areas of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, what is the reference date for Census-2027?
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Correct answer: C — 1 October 2026
For Ladakh and the non-synchronous snow-bound areas of J&K, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, the reference date will be 00:00 hours of 1 October 2026.
Under which law is the Census of India conducted?
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Correct answer: B — Census Act, 1948
The Census of India is conducted under the provisions of the Census Act, 1948 and the Census Rules, 1990; the Census-2027 notification was to be issued under section 3 of the Act.
Consider the following statements about Population Census-2027: 1. It will be conducted in a single phase. 2. The last Census of India before it was conducted in 2001. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is correct. Census-2027 will be conducted in two phases along with enumeration of castes, and the last Census was conducted in 2011.
How many years did the India–Australia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership complete on 4 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5 years
The India–Australia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership completed 5 years on 4 June 2025, the day Richard Marles called on the Prime Minister.
Which Australian leader, who is Deputy Prime Minister and Defence Minister, called on PM Modi on 4 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Richard Marles
Richard Marles, Deputy Prime Minister and Minister for Defence of Australia, called on Prime Minister Narendra Modi in New Delhi.
Which edition of the Global Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction was held in Geneva in June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 8th
P K Mishra attended the 8th Global Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction in Geneva, which opened on 3 June 2025.
According to P K Mishra at Geneva in June 2025, the cumulative disaster risk reduction outlay under the 15th Finance Commission exceeds
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Correct answer: B — INR 2.32 trillion
Mishra said the cumulative outlay under the 15th Finance Commission exceeds INR 2.32 trillion (about USD 28 billion), against early Finance Commission allocations of INR 60 million.
How many Param Vishisht Seva Medals did the President confer at the Defence Investiture Ceremony 2025 (Phase-II) on 4 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 30
President Droupadi Murmu conferred 30 Param Vishisht Seva Medals at the ceremony at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
Consider the following statements about the Defence Investiture Ceremony 2025 (Phase-II): 1. Decorations were conferred on personnel of the Armed Forces, the Indian Coast Guard and the Border Roads Organisation. 2. A total of 92 Distinguished Service Decorations were conferred. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The President conferred 92 Distinguished Service Decorations on personnel of the Armed Forces, the Indian Coast Guard and the Border Roads Organisation.
While congratulating Lee Jae-myung on 4 June 2025, PM Modi referred to the India–Republic of Korea relationship as a
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Correct answer: A — Special Strategic Partnership
PM Modi said he looked forward to working with Lee Jae-myung to further expand and strengthen the India–ROK Special Strategic Partnership.
Which country did India defeat in the election for the 2025-2028 Presidency of the International Institute of Administrative Sciences?
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Correct answer: A — Austria
India polled 87 votes against 54 for Austria in the IIAS election held on 3 June 2025.
Where was the IIAS Extraordinary General Assembly Meeting that elected India to the Presidency held on 3 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Brussels
The IIAS elections were held during the Extraordinary General Assembly Meeting on 3 June 2025 in Brussels.
How many votes did India poll in the IIAS Presidency election held on 3 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 87
India registered 87 votes in the IIAS Presidency election held in Brussels on 3 June 2025.
Consider the following statements about the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS): 1. India's Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances has represented India as a member state since 1998. 2. India's Presidency of the IIAS is for the period 2025-2028. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. DARPG has represented India as a member state of the IIAS since 1998, and India will hold the Presidency for 2025-2028.
Where is India's National Maritime Heritage Centre, for which Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal sought Norway's cooperation in June 2025, located?
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Correct answer: B — Lothal, Gujarat
Sonowal sought Norway's cooperation in cultural, technological and academic collaboration for the National Maritime Heritage Centre at Lothal, Gujarat.
At which global maritime event in Oslo did India set up its pavilion for the first time on 3 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Nor-Shipping
The India Pavilion was inaugurated at Nor-Shipping in Oslo, marking India's first-ever participation in the event.
Under the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India, at what reduced customs duty can approved applicants import e-4W CBUs?
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Correct answer: D — 15%
Approved applicants can import CBUs of e-4W with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 at a reduced customs duty of 15% for five years from the Application Approval Date.
What is the minimum investment commitment required from approved applicants under SPMEPCI?
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Correct answer: A — ₹4,150 crore
Approved applicants must make a minimum investment of ₹4,150 crore (about USD 500 million) within a three-year window.
What is the annual cap on the number of e-4Ws that an approved applicant can import at the reduced duty under SPMEPCI?
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Correct answer: C — 8,000
The maximum number of e-4W allowed to be imported at the reduced duty rate is capped at 8,000 per year, with carryover of unutilised limits permitted.
Consider the following statements about the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India (SPMEPCI): 1. Only e-4W CBUs with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 qualify for the reduced customs duty. 2. Approved applicants must commence manufacturing operations within five years of approval. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the reduced duty applies to e-4W CBUs with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000. Statement 2 is incorrect: applicants must set up the facility and commence manufacturing of e-4W within three years.
Which Indian island territories did India and Japan discuss developing as Smart Islands during talks in Oslo on 2 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep
Sarbananda Sonowal and Terada Yoshimichi discussed converting the Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep islands into Smart Islands, drawing on Japan's expertise in island territories.
Which cooperative bodies does the world's largest cooperative food grain storage scheme, reviewed by Amit Shah on 2 June 2025, aim to benefit by raising their income?
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Correct answer: C — Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
The scheme aims to increase the income of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) and create rural employment.
What were India's gross GST collections for May 2025, according to data released on 1 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2.01 lakh crore
Gross GST collections for May 2025 stood at ₹2,01,050 crore, or about ₹2.01 lakh crore.
By what percentage did gross GST collections in May 2025 grow over May 2024?
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Correct answer: D — 16.4%
Gross GST collections rose 16.4% year-on-year in May 2025, to ₹2,01,050 crore.
Consider the following statements about GST collections for May 2025: 1. GST revenue from imports grew faster than revenue from domestic transactions. 2. Collections in April 2025 had touched an all-time high of ₹2.37 lakh crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Import GST grew 25.2% against 13.7% for domestic transactions, and collections in April 2025 had reached an all-time high of ₹2.37 lakh crore.
Which component accounted for the largest share of gross GST collections in May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — IGST
IGST, at ₹1,08,836 crore, was the largest component of the ₹2,01,050 crore gross GST collected in May 2025, making it the largest single component.
Whom did D Gukesh beat for the first time in a classical game in Round 6 of Norway Chess 2025 on 1 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Magnus Carlsen
Gukesh beat world No. 1 Magnus Carlsen for the first time in a classical game in Round 6 of Norway Chess 2025.
In how many moves did Gukesh win his Round 6 game against Magnus Carlsen at Norway Chess 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 62
Gukesh turned around a losing position and won the game in 62 moves.
In which Norwegian city was Norway Chess 2025, where Gukesh beat Carlsen, held?
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Correct answer: D — Stavanger
Gukesh beat Carlsen in Round 6 of Norway Chess 2025 in Stavanger.
What is Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla's role on the Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) crew?
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Correct answer: B — Mission Pilot
The Science Ministry said Shukla will serve as Mission Pilot on Ax-4.
Who is the Commander of the Axiom Mission 4 crew that includes Shubhanshu Shukla?
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Correct answer: D — Peggy Whitson
The Commander is former NASA astronaut Peggy Whitson; Uznański-Wiśniewski and Kapu are Mission Specialists.
Who is the designated backup for Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla on Axiom Mission 4?
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Correct answer: A — Group Captain Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair
The ministry named Group Captain Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair as Shukla's designated backup.
Where was the High-Level International Conference on Glaciers' Preservation held from 29 to 31 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Dushanbe, Tajikistan
The Environment Ministry said the conference was held in Dushanbe, Republic of Tajikistan.
Which Indian mission, highlighted at the Dushanbe glacier conference, is part of the National Action Plan on Climate Change?
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Correct answer: A — National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
The MoS highlighted India's actions under the National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE), a key component of the NAPCC.
Who assumed office as Director General of Defence Estates on 31 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Shailendra Nath Gupta
The Ministry of Defence said Shailendra Nath Gupta, a 1990-batch IDES officer, assumed office on 31 May 2025.
How many Cantonment Boards does the Directorate General of Defence Estates operate through, as per the Defence Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — 61
DGDE operates under six commands, 38 Defence Estates Circles and 61 Cantonment Boards.
Approximately how much defence land is managed by the Directorate General of Defence Estates?
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Correct answer: C — 18 lakh acres
The ministry said DGDE manages approximately 18 lakh acres of defence land.
From which date did the Jan Aushadhi Kendra Experiential Learning Programme under 'Seva Se Seekhen' begin?
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Correct answer: D — 1 June 2025
The Youth Affairs Ministry said the programme would be launched from 1 June 2025.
What is the duration of the Jan Aushadhi Kendra Experiential Learning Programme for youth volunteers?
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Correct answer: B — 15 days
It is a 15-day experiential initiative placing five volunteers in five Jan Aushadhi Kendras per district.
Which field firing range did Army Chief General Upendra Dwivedi visit on 27 May 2025 to review the Capacity Development Demonstrations?
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Correct answer: C — Babina
The Ministry of Defence said the COAS visited Babina Field Firing Ranges on 27 May 2025.
The Army's Capacity Development Demonstrations of May 2025 are part of its roadmap called:
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Correct answer: A — Decade of Transformation
The release says the trials mark a significant step in the Army's roadmap for a 'Decade of Transformation'.
Consider the following statements about the Indian Army's Capacity Development Demonstrations announced on 31 May 2025: 1. Dedicated air defence equipment demonstrations were scheduled at Agra and Gopalpur. 2. The trials were conducted with electronic warfare simulations under near-combat conditions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Defence release.
As per the NSO's Provisional Estimates released on 30 May 2025, India's real GDP grew by how much in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — 6.5%
Real GDP growth for 2024-25 was estimated at 6.5%; 9.8% was nominal GDP growth and 7.4% was Q4 real growth.
What was India's real GDP growth in the January–March quarter (Q4) of 2024-25, as per the NSO?
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Correct answer: D — 7.4%
The NSO estimated real GDP growth of 7.4% in Q4 of 2024-25; nominal growth was 10.8%.
Which sector recorded the highest growth rate (9.4%) in FY 2024-25 as per the Provisional Estimates?
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Correct answer: A — Construction
Construction was estimated to grow 9.4%, followed by Public Administration, Defence & Other Services (8.9%).
India's common compute capacity under the IndiaAI Mission crossed which mark, as announced on 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 34,000 GPUs
MeitY said the national compute capacity had crossed 34,000 GPUs.
Which startup selected under the IndiaAI Mission in May 2025 will build a 14-billion-parameter voice AI foundation model?
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Correct answer: B — Gnani AI
Gnani AI will build the 14B voice AI model; Soket AI 120B and Gan AI 70B; Sarvam AI was selected earlier, in April.
According to MeitY, which startup will develop an open-source 120-billion-parameter foundation model optimised for India's linguistic diversity?
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Correct answer: D — Soket AI
MeitY said Soket AI will develop India's first open-source 120B-parameter foundation model optimised for linguistic diversity.
According to the provisional accounts for 2024-25, total receipts of the Government of India were what percentage of the revised estimates?
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Correct answer: A — 97.8%
Total receipts of ₹30,78,247 crore were 97.8% of RE 2024-25; 98.7% was the figure for total expenditure.
How much was transferred to state governments as devolution of share of taxes in 2024-25, as per the provisional accounts?
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Correct answer: C — ₹12,86,885 crore
₹12,86,885 crore was devolved to states. ₹10,52,007 crore was capital expenditure, ₹11,16,343 crore interest payments, and ₹24,98,885 crore net tax revenue.
What minimum qualifying service must a retired Central Government NPS subscriber have to claim additional UPS benefits, as per the Finance Ministry's May 2025 notice?
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Correct answer: A — 10 years
Subscribers who retired on or before 31 March 2025 with a minimum of 10 years of qualifying service are eligible.
What was the last date for retired Central Government NPS subscribers to claim additional UPS benefits, as per the notice of 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 30 June 2025
The Finance Ministry gave 30 June 2025 as the last date to claim the benefits.
The National Florence Nightingale Award, presented on 30 May 2025, was instituted by which ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
The President's Secretariat said the award was instituted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Where were the National Florence Nightingale Awards 2025 presented?
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Correct answer: B — Rashtrapati Bhavan
President Droupadi Murmu presented the awards at a function at Rashtrapati Bhavan on 30 May 2025.
Who launched the AyushSuraksha Portal on 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Prataprao Jadhav
The Ministry of Ayush said MoS (IC) Prataprao Jadhav launched the portal at Ayush Bhawan.
The AyushSuraksha Portal launched in May 2025 is mainly meant to address:
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Correct answer: B — Misleading advertisements and adverse drug reactions
It was launched to address misleading advertisements and adverse drug reactions in the Ayush sector.
Which department released the DHRUVA policy document for a Digital Address DPI on 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Posts
The Ministry of Communications said the Department of Posts released DHRUVA.
What concept lies at the core of the DHRUVA digital addressing policy?
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Correct answer: D — Address-as-a-Service (AaaS)
The release says Address-as-a-Service (AaaS) is at the core of DHRUVA.