NABARD Grade A Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What will be the reference date for Population Census-2027 for most of India, as announced on 4 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1 March 2027
The reference date for Population Census-2027 will be 00:00 hours of 1 March 2027 for most of the country.
For Ladakh and the snow-bound areas of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, what is the reference date for Census-2027?
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Correct answer: C — 1 October 2026
For Ladakh and the non-synchronous snow-bound areas of J&K, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, the reference date will be 00:00 hours of 1 October 2026.
Under which law is the Census of India conducted?
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Correct answer: B — Census Act, 1948
The Census of India is conducted under the provisions of the Census Act, 1948 and the Census Rules, 1990; the Census-2027 notification was to be issued under section 3 of the Act.
Consider the following statements about Population Census-2027: 1. It will be conducted in a single phase. 2. The last Census of India before it was conducted in 2001. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is correct. Census-2027 will be conducted in two phases along with enumeration of castes, and the last Census was conducted in 2011.
How many years did the India–Australia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership complete on 4 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5 years
The India–Australia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership completed 5 years on 4 June 2025, the day Richard Marles called on the Prime Minister.
Which Australian leader, who is Deputy Prime Minister and Defence Minister, called on PM Modi on 4 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Richard Marles
Richard Marles, Deputy Prime Minister and Minister for Defence of Australia, called on Prime Minister Narendra Modi in New Delhi.
Which edition of the Global Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction was held in Geneva in June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 8th
P K Mishra attended the 8th Global Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction in Geneva, which opened on 3 June 2025.
According to P K Mishra at Geneva in June 2025, the cumulative disaster risk reduction outlay under the 15th Finance Commission exceeds
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Correct answer: B — INR 2.32 trillion
Mishra said the cumulative outlay under the 15th Finance Commission exceeds INR 2.32 trillion (about USD 28 billion), against early Finance Commission allocations of INR 60 million.
How many Param Vishisht Seva Medals did the President confer at the Defence Investiture Ceremony 2025 (Phase-II) on 4 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 30
President Droupadi Murmu conferred 30 Param Vishisht Seva Medals at the ceremony at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
Consider the following statements about the Defence Investiture Ceremony 2025 (Phase-II): 1. Decorations were conferred on personnel of the Armed Forces, the Indian Coast Guard and the Border Roads Organisation. 2. A total of 92 Distinguished Service Decorations were conferred. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The President conferred 92 Distinguished Service Decorations on personnel of the Armed Forces, the Indian Coast Guard and the Border Roads Organisation.
Which country did India defeat in the election for the 2025-2028 Presidency of the International Institute of Administrative Sciences?
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Correct answer: A — Austria
India polled 87 votes against 54 for Austria in the IIAS election held on 3 June 2025.
Where was the IIAS Extraordinary General Assembly Meeting that elected India to the Presidency held on 3 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Brussels
The IIAS elections were held during the Extraordinary General Assembly Meeting on 3 June 2025 in Brussels.
How many votes did India poll in the IIAS Presidency election held on 3 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 87
India registered 87 votes in the IIAS Presidency election held in Brussels on 3 June 2025.
Consider the following statements about the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS): 1. India's Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances has represented India as a member state since 1998. 2. India's Presidency of the IIAS is for the period 2025-2028. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. DARPG has represented India as a member state of the IIAS since 1998, and India will hold the Presidency for 2025-2028.
Where is India's National Maritime Heritage Centre, for which Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal sought Norway's cooperation in June 2025, located?
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Correct answer: B — Lothal, Gujarat
Sonowal sought Norway's cooperation in cultural, technological and academic collaboration for the National Maritime Heritage Centre at Lothal, Gujarat.
At which global maritime event in Oslo did India set up its pavilion for the first time on 3 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Nor-Shipping
The India Pavilion was inaugurated at Nor-Shipping in Oslo, marking India's first-ever participation in the event.
Under the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India, at what reduced customs duty can approved applicants import e-4W CBUs?
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Correct answer: D — 15%
Approved applicants can import CBUs of e-4W with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 at a reduced customs duty of 15% for five years from the Application Approval Date.
What is the minimum investment commitment required from approved applicants under SPMEPCI?
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Correct answer: A — ₹4,150 crore
Approved applicants must make a minimum investment of ₹4,150 crore (about USD 500 million) within a three-year window.
What is the annual cap on the number of e-4Ws that an approved applicant can import at the reduced duty under SPMEPCI?
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Correct answer: C — 8,000
The maximum number of e-4W allowed to be imported at the reduced duty rate is capped at 8,000 per year, with carryover of unutilised limits permitted.
Consider the following statements about the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India (SPMEPCI): 1. Only e-4W CBUs with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 qualify for the reduced customs duty. 2. Approved applicants must commence manufacturing operations within five years of approval. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the reduced duty applies to e-4W CBUs with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000. Statement 2 is incorrect: applicants must set up the facility and commence manufacturing of e-4W within three years.
Which cooperative bodies does the world's largest cooperative food grain storage scheme, reviewed by Amit Shah on 2 June 2025, aim to benefit by raising their income?
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Correct answer: C — Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
The scheme aims to increase the income of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) and create rural employment.
What were India's gross GST collections for May 2025, according to data released on 1 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2.01 lakh crore
Gross GST collections for May 2025 stood at ₹2,01,050 crore, or about ₹2.01 lakh crore.
By what percentage did gross GST collections in May 2025 grow over May 2024?
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Correct answer: D — 16.4%
Gross GST collections rose 16.4% year-on-year in May 2025, to ₹2,01,050 crore.
Consider the following statements about GST collections for May 2025: 1. GST revenue from imports grew faster than revenue from domestic transactions. 2. Collections in April 2025 had touched an all-time high of ₹2.37 lakh crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Import GST grew 25.2% against 13.7% for domestic transactions, and collections in April 2025 had reached an all-time high of ₹2.37 lakh crore.
Which component accounted for the largest share of gross GST collections in May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — IGST
IGST, at ₹1,08,836 crore, was the largest component of the ₹2,01,050 crore gross GST collected in May 2025, making it the largest single component.
Whom did D Gukesh beat for the first time in a classical game in Round 6 of Norway Chess 2025 on 1 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Magnus Carlsen
Gukesh beat world No. 1 Magnus Carlsen for the first time in a classical game in Round 6 of Norway Chess 2025.
In how many moves did Gukesh win his Round 6 game against Magnus Carlsen at Norway Chess 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 62
Gukesh turned around a losing position and won the game in 62 moves.
In which Norwegian city was Norway Chess 2025, where Gukesh beat Carlsen, held?
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Correct answer: D — Stavanger
Gukesh beat Carlsen in Round 6 of Norway Chess 2025 in Stavanger.
What is Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla's role on the Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) crew?
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Correct answer: B — Mission Pilot
The Science Ministry said Shukla will serve as Mission Pilot on Ax-4.
Who is the Commander of the Axiom Mission 4 crew that includes Shubhanshu Shukla?
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Correct answer: D — Peggy Whitson
The Commander is former NASA astronaut Peggy Whitson; Uznański-Wiśniewski and Kapu are Mission Specialists.
Who is the designated backup for Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla on Axiom Mission 4?
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Correct answer: A — Group Captain Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair
The ministry named Group Captain Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair as Shukla's designated backup.
Who assumed office as Director General of Defence Estates on 31 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Shailendra Nath Gupta
The Ministry of Defence said Shailendra Nath Gupta, a 1990-batch IDES officer, assumed office on 31 May 2025.
How many Cantonment Boards does the Directorate General of Defence Estates operate through, as per the Defence Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — 61
DGDE operates under six commands, 38 Defence Estates Circles and 61 Cantonment Boards.
Approximately how much defence land is managed by the Directorate General of Defence Estates?
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Correct answer: C — 18 lakh acres
The ministry said DGDE manages approximately 18 lakh acres of defence land.
From which date did the Jan Aushadhi Kendra Experiential Learning Programme under 'Seva Se Seekhen' begin?
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Correct answer: D — 1 June 2025
The Youth Affairs Ministry said the programme would be launched from 1 June 2025.
What is the duration of the Jan Aushadhi Kendra Experiential Learning Programme for youth volunteers?
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Correct answer: B — 15 days
It is a 15-day experiential initiative placing five volunteers in five Jan Aushadhi Kendras per district.
As per the NSO's Provisional Estimates released on 30 May 2025, India's real GDP grew by how much in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — 6.5%
Real GDP growth for 2024-25 was estimated at 6.5%; 9.8% was nominal GDP growth and 7.4% was Q4 real growth.
What was India's real GDP growth in the January–March quarter (Q4) of 2024-25, as per the NSO?
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Correct answer: D — 7.4%
The NSO estimated real GDP growth of 7.4% in Q4 of 2024-25; nominal growth was 10.8%.
Which sector recorded the highest growth rate (9.4%) in FY 2024-25 as per the Provisional Estimates?
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Correct answer: A — Construction
Construction was estimated to grow 9.4%, followed by Public Administration, Defence & Other Services (8.9%).
India's common compute capacity under the IndiaAI Mission crossed which mark, as announced on 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 34,000 GPUs
MeitY said the national compute capacity had crossed 34,000 GPUs.
Which startup selected under the IndiaAI Mission in May 2025 will build a 14-billion-parameter voice AI foundation model?
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Correct answer: B — Gnani AI
Gnani AI will build the 14B voice AI model; Soket AI 120B and Gan AI 70B; Sarvam AI was selected earlier, in April.
According to MeitY, which startup will develop an open-source 120-billion-parameter foundation model optimised for India's linguistic diversity?
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Correct answer: D — Soket AI
MeitY said Soket AI will develop India's first open-source 120B-parameter foundation model optimised for linguistic diversity.
According to the provisional accounts for 2024-25, total receipts of the Government of India were what percentage of the revised estimates?
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Correct answer: A — 97.8%
Total receipts of ₹30,78,247 crore were 97.8% of RE 2024-25; 98.7% was the figure for total expenditure.
How much was transferred to state governments as devolution of share of taxes in 2024-25, as per the provisional accounts?
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Correct answer: C — ₹12,86,885 crore
₹12,86,885 crore was devolved to states. ₹10,52,007 crore was capital expenditure, ₹11,16,343 crore interest payments, and ₹24,98,885 crore net tax revenue.
What minimum qualifying service must a retired Central Government NPS subscriber have to claim additional UPS benefits, as per the Finance Ministry's May 2025 notice?
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Correct answer: A — 10 years
Subscribers who retired on or before 31 March 2025 with a minimum of 10 years of qualifying service are eligible.
What was the last date for retired Central Government NPS subscribers to claim additional UPS benefits, as per the notice of 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 30 June 2025
The Finance Ministry gave 30 June 2025 as the last date to claim the benefits.
The National Florence Nightingale Award, presented on 30 May 2025, was instituted by which ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
The President's Secretariat said the award was instituted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Where were the National Florence Nightingale Awards 2025 presented?
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Correct answer: B — Rashtrapati Bhavan
President Droupadi Murmu presented the awards at a function at Rashtrapati Bhavan on 30 May 2025.
Which three DPSUs were granted Miniratna status by the Defence Minister on 29 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — MIL, AVNL and IOL
Munitions India Ltd, Armoured Vehicles Nigam Ltd and India Optel Ltd were granted Miniratna status.
Which category of Miniratna status was granted to MIL, AVNL and IOL?
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Correct answer: D — Category-I
The Defence Ministry said the three DPSUs were granted Miniratna Category-I status.
Until when are the wheat stock limits imposed by the Centre in May 2025 applicable?
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Correct answer: B — 31 March 2026
The Food Ministry said the order is applicable until 31 March 2026 in all States and UTs.
What is the wheat stock limit for traders/wholesalers under the order of 27 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 3,000 MT
The stock limit for traders/wholesalers is 3,000 MT; retailers have 10 MT per outlet.
Consider the following statements about the wheat stock limits of May 2025: 1. Retailers may hold 10 MT of wheat for each retail outlet. 2. Processors may hold 50% of their monthly installed capacity multiplied by the remaining months of FY 2025-26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The processors' limit is 70% (not 50%) of monthly installed capacity times the remaining months of FY 2025-26.
With the vesting orders of 29 May 2025, for how many coal blocks have vesting/allocation orders been issued under commercial auctions?
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Correct answer: D — 116
The Coal Ministry said vesting/allocation orders have now been issued for 116 coal blocks under commercial auctions.
Which Coal India subsidiary became the first to secure a coal block through commercial auction, as noted by the Coal Ministry in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Western Coalfields Ltd
The ministry said Western Coalfields Ltd had, for the first time, secured a coal block through commercial auction.
How many villages will be covered under Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 21,000
The Jal Shakti Ministry said SSG 2025 will cover 21,000 villages across 761 districts.
Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2025 is conducted by which department?
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Correct answer: C — Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation
SSG 2025 is a survey by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS), Ministry of Jal Shakti.
According to the Comprehensive Modular Survey: Telecom 2025, what share of Indian households possessed at least one smartphone?
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Correct answer: D — 85.5%
MoSPI found approximately 85.5% of households possessed at least one smartphone.
As per CMS: Telecom 2025, what percentage of rural persons aged 15–29 used mobile phones in the last three months?
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Correct answer: B — 96.8%
Rural mobile phone use in the 15–29 age group was about 96.8%; 97.6% was urban use and 92.7% rural internet use.
Among persons aged 15–29 able to perform online banking transactions, what share could do so through UPI, as per CMS: Telecom 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 99.5%
About 99.5% of such persons reported the ability to transact through UPI.
For how many kharif crops did the Cabinet approve increased MSPs for marketing season 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — 14
The CCEA approved increased MSPs for 14 kharif crops.
Which kharif crop saw the highest absolute increase in MSP for marketing season 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — Nigerseed
Nigerseed had the highest absolute increase (₹820 per quintal), followed by ragi (₹596), cotton (₹589) and sesamum (₹579).
What is the MSP of common paddy for kharif marketing season 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — ₹2,369 per quintal
Common paddy MSP is ₹2,369 per quintal (up from ₹2,300); ₹2,389 is Grade A paddy and ₹2,400 is maize.
What is India's foodgrain production for 2024-25 as per the Third Advance Estimates released on 28 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 3,539.59 lakh tonnes
Foodgrain production is estimated at a record 3,539.59 LMT; 3,322.98 LMT was the 2023-24 figure.
As per the Third Advance Estimates for 2024-25, India's rice production is estimated at:
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Correct answer: D — 1,490.74 LMT
Rice is estimated at 1,490.74 LMT (up from 1,378.25 LMT); 1,175.07 LMT is wheat.
From which date did the rules under the Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act 2023 come into effect?
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Correct answer: D — 27 May 2025
The rules came into effect on 27 May 2025. The Act got assent on 15 August 2023 and came into force on 10 May 2024; ISOs were notified on 27 December 2024.
Under which section of the Inter-Services Organisations Act 2023 were the rules notified in May 2025 framed?
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Correct answer: B — Section 11
The Defence Ministry said the subordinate rules were framed under Section 11 of the Act.
Consider the following statements about the Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act 2023: 1. It received the assent of the President on 15 August 2023. 2. It came into force with effect from 10 May 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Defence release.
What was India's IIP growth in April 2025 as per the quick estimate?
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Correct answer: C — 2.7%
IIP grew 2.7% in April 2025; 3.0% was March, 3.4% manufacturing and 1.1% electricity.
Under MoSPI's revised calendar announced in May 2025, the quick estimate of IIP is released on which day of every month?
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Correct answer: B — 28th
As per the revised calendar, the quick estimate of IIP is released on the 28th of every month (or the next working day if it is a holiday).
At what rate is interest subvention provided to lending institutions under the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme continued for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 1.5%
The Cabinet continued MISS with the existing 1.5% interest subvention; 3% is the Prompt Repayment Incentive.
Under MISS, what is the effective interest rate on KCC loans for farmers who repay promptly?
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Correct answer: A — 4%
Loans are at 7%; a Prompt Repayment Incentive of up to 3% brings the effective rate to 4%.
Consider the following statements about the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme: 1. Farmers can get short-term loans of up to ₹3 lakh through KCC at a subsidised rate. 2. For loans taken exclusively for animal husbandry or fisheries, the interest benefit applies up to ₹2 lakh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Cabinet release.
In its updated forecast of May 2025, what did IMD forecast for the 2025 southwest monsoon seasonal rainfall over the country as a whole?
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Correct answer: C — 106% of LPA
IMD forecast 106% of the Long Period Average with a model error of ±4%.
According to IMD's updated 2025 monsoon forecast, which region is likely to receive below-normal rainfall?
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Correct answer: A — Northeast India
Northeast India is likely to get below-normal rain (<94% of LPA); Central India and the South Peninsula above normal; Northwest India normal.
Consider the following statements about IMD's updated 2025 southwest monsoon forecast: 1. The Monsoon Core Zone is forecast to receive above-normal rainfall. 2. Northwest India is expected to receive normal rainfall in the range of 92–108% of LPA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Monsoon Core Zone is forecast above normal and Northwest India normal (92–108% of LPA).
Which agency will execute the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) programme under the execution model approved in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Aeronautical Development Agency
The Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) will execute the AMCA programme through industry partnership.
Consider the following statements about the AMCA Programme Execution Model approved in May 2025: 1. Only public sector undertakings are eligible to bid. 2. A bidder may bid independently, as a joint venture or as a consortium, but must be an Indian company. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: private and public sectors get equal opportunities on a competitive basis. Statement 2 is correct.
After approval of the AMCA execution model, what is the Aeronautical Development Agency to issue next for the AMCA Development Phase?
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Correct answer: D — Expression of Interest (EoI)
ADA is to shortly issue an Expression of Interest (EoI) for the AMCA Development Phase.