GPSC (Gujarat) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How many Atal Tinkering Labs will be set up in government schools over the next 5 years, as announced in the Union Budget 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 50,000
PIB (1 Feb 2025): 50,000 Atal Tinkering Labs will be set up in government schools in the next 5 years.
What outlay did the Union Budget 2025-26 provide for a Centre of Excellence in Artificial Intelligence for education?
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Correct answer: B — ₹500 crore
PIB (1 Feb 2025): a Centre of Excellence in Artificial Intelligence for education with a total outlay of ₹500 crore.
According to the Union Budget 2025-26, how many medical seats are to be added over the next 5 years?
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Correct answer: D — 75,000
Budget speech: 10,000 additional seats will be added in the next year, towards the goal of adding 75,000 seats in the next 5 years.
Consider the following statements about the Union Budget 2025-26: 1. Day Care Cancer Centres will be set up in all district hospitals in the next 3 years. 2. Gig workers on online platforms will be given healthcare under PM Jan Arogya Yojana. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Budget speech and PIB Highlights: Day Care Cancer Centres in all district hospitals in the next 3 years (200 in 2025-26), and healthcare under PM Jan Arogya Yojana for gig workers. Both statements are correct. Answer: Both 1 and 2.
By how many times did the Union Budget 2025-26 enhance the investment limit for classification of all MSMEs?
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Correct answer: B — 2.5 times
PIB (1 Feb 2025): investment and turnover limits for classification of all MSMEs will be enhanced to 2.5 and 2 times respectively.
The Union Budget 2025-26 enhanced the credit guarantee cover for micro and small enterprises from ₹5 crore to:
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Correct answer: C — ₹10 crore
PIB (1 Feb 2025): credit guarantee cover for micro and small enterprises enhanced from ₹5 crore to ₹10 crore.
The ₹1 lakh crore Urban Challenge Fund announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 will finance up to what share of the cost of bankable projects?
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Correct answer: A — 25 per cent
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the fund will finance up to 25 per cent of the cost of bankable projects, with at least 50 per cent of the cost funded from bonds, bank loans and PPPs.
Until which year was the Jal Jeevan Mission extended in the Union Budget 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — 2028
PIB (1 Feb 2025): Jal Jeevan Mission extended until 2028, with the total budget outlay enhanced to ₹67,000 crore.
The Union Budget 2025-26 raised the FDI limit for the insurance sector from 74% to:
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Correct answer: A — 100 per cent
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the FDI limit for the insurance sector will be raised from 74 to 100 per cent.
Consider the following statements about the Union Budget 2025-26: 1. The enhanced insurance FDI limit is available only to companies that invest the entire premium in India. 2. The 'Grameen Credit Score' framework will be developed by the Reserve Bank of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB and Budget speech: the higher FDI limit is for companies investing the entire premium in India, so statement 1 is correct. The Grameen Credit Score framework will be developed by Public Sector Banks, not the RBI, so statement 2 is wrong. Answer: 1 only.
The Union Budget 2025-26 allocation for the Ministry of Defence was how much higher than the 2024-25 Budget Estimate?
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Correct answer: C — 9.53%
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the allocation of ₹6,81,210.27 crore is 9.53% more than the Budgetary Estimate of 2024-25. 13.45% is its share of the Union Budget.
How much did the Union Budget 2025-26 allocate for capital outlay on defence services?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1.80 lakh crore
PIB (1 Feb 2025): ₹1.80 lakh crore (₹1,80,000 crore), i.e. 26.43% of the total allocation, is for capital outlay on defence services; ₹1.12 lakh crore of the capital budget is earmarked for domestic procurement.
What is the motto of the Indian Coast Guard, which celebrated its 49th Raising Day on 1 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Vayam Rakshamah
PIB (1 Feb 2025): with its motto 'Vayam Rakshamah' (We Protect), the ICG has ensured the safety and security of India's maritime zones.
As of its 49th Raising Day on 1 February 2025, what was the Indian Coast Guard's force level?
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Correct answer: C — 151 ships and 76 aircraft
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the ICG now comprises 151 ships and 76 aircraft; 200 surface platforms and 100 aircraft is its 2030 target.
Under which Article of the Constitution did the President address both Houses assembled together on 31 January 2025, the first session of the year?
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Correct answer: D — Article 87(1)
PIB 2118954: this being the first session of the year, the President addressed both Houses assembled together in terms of Article 87(1) on 31 January 2025.
How many property cards had been issued under the SVAMITVA scheme, according to the President's address of 31 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 2.25 crore
PIB 2097836: under SVAMITVA, 2.25 crore property cards had been issued, about 70 lakh of them in the last six months.
What real GDP growth range did the Economic Survey 2024-25 project for FY26?
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Correct answer: B — 6.3–6.8%
PIB 2097919: the real GDP is projected to grow between 6.3 and 6.8 per cent in FY26; FY25 growth was estimated at 6.4%.
According to the Economic Survey 2024-25, the gross NPA ratio of scheduled commercial banks fell to a 12-year low of:
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Correct answer: A — 2.6%
PIB 2097919: GNPA of scheduled commercial banks declined to a 12-year low of 2.6 per cent.
The Economic Survey 2024-25 used the German term 'Mittelstand' to refer to which sector it wants to build up in India?
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Correct answer: A — Small and medium enterprises
PIB 2097919: the focus of reforms and Ease of Doing Business 2.0 is to create India's Mittelstand, i.e. India's SME sector.
Consider the following statements about the Economic Survey 2024-25: 1. It estimated FY25 real GDP growth at 6.4%. 2. It said forex reserves of USD 640.3 billion could cover 10.9 months of imports. 3. It reported retail inflation rising from 4.9% in FY24 to 5.4% in April–December 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097919: FY25 growth was 6.4% and forex of USD 640.3 billion covered 10.9 months of imports; retail inflation softened from 5.4% in FY24 to 4.9% in April–December 2024, so statement 3 reverses the figures.
Under the Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance Amendment Rules, 2025, which body grants final approval to an entity seeking to use Aadhaar authentication?
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Correct answer: D — Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
PIB 2098223: applications are examined by UIDAI and MeitY issues the approval based on UIDAI's recommendation.
Consider the following statements about the Aadhaar authentication amendment rules notified on 31 January 2025: 1. They were notified under the Aadhaar Act, 2016. 2. They allow non-government entities to use Aadhaar authentication for public-interest services. 3. Entities apply directly to the Reserve Bank of India for approval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2098223: the rules are under the Aadhaar Act, 2016 and open authentication to non-government entities; applications go to the concerned ministry or department, are examined by UIDAI and approved by MeitY, not the RBI.
Which of the following was NOT among the four wetlands added to India's Ramsar list, as announced on 31 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary
PIB (2 Feb 2025) and TOI (31 Jan 2025): the four new sites were Sakkarakottai and Therthangal (Tamil Nadu), Khecheopalri (Sikkim) and Udhwa Lake (Jharkhand). Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary was already on the list (MoEFCC list, as on 30.01.2025), so Nanjarayan is NOT one of the four.
After the four additions announced on 31 January 2025, which State had the maximum number of Ramsar sites in India?
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Correct answer: A — Tamil Nadu
PIB (2 Feb 2025): Tamil Nadu continues to have the maximum number of Ramsar sites (20), followed by Uttar Pradesh (10).
Consider the following statements about the Ramsar Convention: 1. The Convention on Wetlands of International Importance was signed in 1971. 2. India has been a party to the Convention since 1982. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (2 Feb 2025): World Wetlands Day commemorates the signing of the Ramsar Convention in 1971, and India is a party to the Convention since 1982, so both statements are correct.
What is the name of the Indian Railways SuperApp introduced for beta testing on 31 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — SwaRail
PIB 2098305: the Ministry of Railways introduced the SuperApp 'SwaRail' for beta testing.
Which organisation developed the SwaRail SuperApp of Indian Railways?
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Correct answer: C — Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS)
PIB 2098305: the SuperApp was developed by the Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS).
Where were the 9th Asian Winter Games held in February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Harbin, China
PIB 2097997: the 9th Asian Winter Games were scheduled from 7 to 14 February 2025 in Harbin, China.
Under which scheme did the Government extend full financial support, for the first time, to Indian athletes at the 2025 Asian Winter Games?
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Correct answer: C — Assistance to National Sports Federations Scheme
PIB 2097997: full financial support is being extended for the first time under the Assistance to National Sports Federations (ANSF) Scheme.
On which platform did the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation launch a new version of the SBM Academy in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — WhatsApp
PIB 2097805: DDWS launched the WhatsApp version of the SBM Academy at its meeting with 22 States and UTs.
What is the combined weight of the eight core industries in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
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Correct answer: B — 40.27%
PIB 2098037: the eight core industries comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight of items included in the IIP.
Which of the eight core industries recorded a decline in December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Natural gas
PIB 2098037: all core sectors except natural gas, which declined 1.8%, recorded positive growth in December 2024.
What was the Ground Level Agriculture Credit target set for FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — ₹27.5 lakh crore
PIB 2098065: the GLC target for FY 2024-25 is ₹27.5 lakh crore; ₹19.28 lakh crore was disbursed by 31.12.2024 and ₹25.48 lakh crore was the FY24 disbursement.
What sub-target for allied activities was included in the FY 2024-25 Ground Level Agriculture Credit target?
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Correct answer: B — ₹4.20 lakh crore
PIB 2098065: a dedicated sub-target of ₹4.20 lakh crore was set for allied activities such as dairy, poultry and fisheries.
On which virtual digital asset service provider did FIU-IND impose a ₹9.27 crore penalty in January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Bybit Fintech Limited
PIB 2098153: FIU-IND imposed a penalty of ₹9,27,00,000 on Bybit Fintech Limited, a VDA service provider.
Under which law did FIU-IND impose the January 2025 penalty on Bybit?
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Correct answer: C — Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
PIB 2098153: the penalty was imposed under Section 13 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 for violating Section 12(1) and the PML Rules.
What is the theme of the BRICS Youth Council Entrepreneurship Working Group Meeting hosted by India in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Youth Entrepreneurship for Sustainable Growth
PIB 2097834: the theme of the meeting (3–7 March 2025) is 'Youth Entrepreneurship for Sustainable Growth'.
What was the average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) in rural India in 2023-24, as per HCES 2023-24 (without imputation)?
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Correct answer: D — ₹4,122
PIB 2097601: average MPCE in 2023-24 was ₹4,122 (rural) and ₹6,996 (urban) without imputed values; with imputation ₹4,247 and ₹7,078.
Among major states, which state had the lowest urban–rural gap in average MPCE in 2023-24 according to HCES 2023-24?
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Correct answer: A — Kerala
PIB 2097601: the lowest urban–rural gap in 2023-24 was in Kerala (about 18%) and the highest in Jharkhand (around 83%).
Consider the following statements about HCES 2023-24: 1. The urban–rural gap in MPCE declined to 70% in 2023-24. 2. The Gini coefficient of consumption in rural areas declined to 0.237. 3. The Gini coefficient in urban areas rose compared to 2022-23. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097601: the urban–rural gap fell to 70% and rural Gini fell to 0.237; urban Gini also fell, from 0.314 to 0.284, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which Indian Navy sailboat crossed Point Nemo on 30 January 2025 during Navika Sagar Parikrama II?
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Correct answer: D — INSV Tarini
PIB 2098252: INSV Tarini, sailed by Lt Cdr Dilna K and Lt Cdr Roopa A, crossed Point Nemo at 0030 hrs IST on 30 January 2025.
Point Nemo, crossed by INSV Tarini in January 2025, is known as:
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Correct answer: A — The Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility
PIB 2098252: Point Nemo is the Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility, about 2,688 km from the nearest landmass.
Consider the following statements about Navika Sagar Parikrama II: 1. INSV Tarini was flagged off from Goa on 2 October 2024. 2. Point Nemo was crossed during the leg from Lyttelton to Port Stanley. 3. Water samples from Point Nemo are to be analysed by ISRO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2098252: the crew were flagged off from Goa on 2 October 2024 and crossed Point Nemo on the Lyttelton–Port Stanley leg; the samples will be analysed by the National Institute of Oceanography, not ISRO.
In how many Indian languages does the Sahitya Akademi give its main annual award, for which books were invited directly for the first time in 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 24
PIB 2097806: books in 24 Indian languages recognised by the Akademi were invited directly for the main award for 2025.
Books published in which period were eligible for the Sahitya Akademi Award 2025 under the new submission system?
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Correct answer: B — 2019 to 2023
PIB 2097806: books published between 1 January 2019 and 31 December 2023 could be sent by 28 February 2025.
Which State/UT's tableau was judged the best at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Uttar Pradesh
PIB 2097650: Uttar Pradesh's 'Mahakumbh 2025 – Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas' was first, Tripura second and Andhra Pradesh third; Gujarat topped the popular-choice poll.
Which contingent was judged the best marching contingent among the Services at Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jammu & Kashmir Rifles Contingent
PIB 2097650: the Jammu & Kashmir Rifles contingent was judged best among Services; the Signals contingent won the popular-choice poll.
Tripura's tableau, placed second at Republic Day Parade 2025, was based on which festival?
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Correct answer: A — Kharchi Puja
PIB 2097650: Tripura's tableau was 'Eternal Reverence: The worship of 14 Deities in Tripura – Kharchi Puja'.
About how many GPUs did the IndiaAI Mission's common computing facility have, as announced on 30 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 18,693
PIB 2097709: the IndiaAI Mission created a common computing facility of about 18,693 GPUs; computation begins with roughly 10,000 and the remaining 8,693 will be added.
After the government subsidy, what was the stated cost of AI compute per hour under the IndiaAI Mission?
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Correct answer: A — Less than ₹100 per hour
PIB 2097709: compute will cost less than ₹100 per hour after a 40% government subsidy, against 2.5–3 dollars per hour for global models.
Who assumed charge as the Controller of Warship Production & Acquisition of the Indian Navy on 30 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Vice Admiral Rajaram Swaminathan
PIB 2097791: Vice Admiral Rajaram Swaminathan assumed charge on 30 January 2025 from Vice Admiral B Sivakumar.
Vice Admiral Rajaram Swaminathan, who became Controller of Warship Production & Acquisition in January 2025, served for more than nine years on which aircraft carrier?
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Correct answer: A — INS Viraat
PIB 2097791: he worked onboard INS Viraat for more than nine years; he was also involved in acquiring Vikramaditya as Warship Production Superintendent in Russia.
Astronomers of which institute devised a method, reported in January 2025, to estimate the radial size of coronal mass ejections from single-point measurements?
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Correct answer: A — Indian Institute of Astrophysics
PIB 2097599: astronomers at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics, an autonomous institute of DST, devised the method.
How many people in India are threatened by Lymphatic Filariasis, as stated on World NTD Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 404 million
PIB 2097724: LF threatens 404 million people in India.
Which neglected tropical disease did the Health Ministry describe as 'at the cusp of elimination' in India on World NTD Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar)
PIB 2097724: VL or Kala-azar is at the cusp of elimination in India.
Which launch vehicle carried out ISRO's 100th launch from Sriharikota on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — GSLV-F15
ISRO: GSLV-F15 lifted off from the Second Launch Pad on 29 January 2025, the 100th launch from Sriharikota.
The NVS-02 satellite launched on 29 January 2025 belongs to which Indian system?
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Correct answer: A — NavIC
ISRO: NVS-02 is a navigation satellite of the NavIC series, India's independent regional navigation satellite system.
Consider the following statements about the GSLV-F15/NVS-02 mission: 1. It lifted off from the Second Launch Pad at Sriharikota. 2. It was the 17th launch of GSLV. 3. NVS-02 was raised to its designated orbital slot within a week of launch. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: GSLV-F15 lifted off from the Second Launch Pad and was the 17th GSLV launch; orbit raising could not be carried out because the oxidiser valves did not open.
What is the total outlay of the National Critical Mineral Mission approved by the Union Cabinet on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹34,300 crore
PIB 2097308: ₹16,300 crore government expenditure plus ₹18,000 crore expected investment by PSUs etc. makes ₹34,300 crore over seven years.
Over what period will the National Critical Mineral Mission's ₹34,300 crore outlay be spread?
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Correct answer: C — Seven years
PIB 2097308: the outlay of ₹34,300 crore is over seven years.
Consider the following statements about the National Critical Mineral Mission: 1. It was announced in the Union Budget 2024-25. 2. It proposes a national stockpile of critical minerals. 3. It excludes offshore exploration of critical minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097308: the mission was announced in the Budget on 23 July 2024 and proposes a stockpile; it will intensify exploration within the country and in its offshore areas.
What guarantee coverage does the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs, approved in January 2025, provide to lenders?
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Correct answer: B — 60%
PIB 2097455: NCGTC provides 60% guarantee coverage to member lending institutions for credit up to ₹100 crore.
Consider the following statements about MCGS-MSME: 1. Loans up to ₹100 crore are eligible for guarantee cover. 2. Equipment or machinery must be at least 75% of the project cost. 3. The guarantee is provided by SIDBI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097455: loans up to ₹100 crore are covered and equipment must be at least 75% of project cost; the guarantee is given by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC), not SIDBI.
According to ASUSE 2023-24, which state had the highest number of unincorporated sector establishments?
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Correct answer: C — Uttar Pradesh
PIB 2097316: Uttar Pradesh had the highest number of establishments, followed by West Bengal and Maharashtra.
By how much did the number of establishments in the unincorporated sector grow in ASUSE 2023-24 over 2022-23?
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Correct answer: B — 12.84%
PIB 2097316: establishments grew 12.84% (6.50 crore to 7.34 crore); workers grew 10.01% and GVA 16.52%.
Which state topped Gross Value Added in the unincorporated sector as per ASUSE 2023-24?
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Correct answer: C — Maharashtra
PIB 2097316: the top three states in GVA were Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat.
How much did the High-Level Committee chaired by the Union Home Minister approve for disaster mitigation on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹3,027.86 crore
PIB 2097448: the HLC approved ₹3,027.86 crore in total for drought, lightning and forest fire mitigation projects.
The forest fire risk management scheme approved on 29 January 2025 covers how many high-priority districts?
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Correct answer: C — 144
PIB 2097448: the forest fire scheme covers 144 high-priority districts in 19 states at ₹818.92 crore.
From which fund are the drought and lightning mitigation projects approved by the High-Level Committee in January 2025 to be financed?
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Correct answer: A — National Disaster Mitigation Fund
PIB 2097448: the HLC considered the lightning and drought proposals for funding from the National Disaster Mitigation Fund (NDMF).