CG Vyapam Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What revenue did the Department of Posts earn in FY 2025–26?
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Correct answer: B — ₹15,296 crore
Revenue was ₹15,296 crore, up 16% from ₹13,218 crore; ₹17,546 crore was the business target.
Which business vertical of the Department of Posts grew fastest in FY 2025–26?
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Correct answer: D — Citizen Centric Services
Citizen Centric Services grew 70%, ahead of Parcels (69%) and Mail Operations (34%).
The thematic focus of the seventh edition of NITI Aayog's 'Trade Watch Quarterly' (released April 2026) was:
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Correct answer: B — Gems and jewellery
The Q3 FY26 edition's thematic section focuses on India's gems and jewellery sector.
According to NITI Aayog's Trade Watch Quarterly, India's share of world gems and jewellery exports (excluding raw gold) in 2024 was about:
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Correct answer: A — 7.8%
India's exports of $29.5 billion accounted for a 7.8% share of world exports in a market of about $378 billion.
The Samriddh Gram initiative, nominated for the WSIS Prizes 2026, is built on which network?
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Correct answer: A — BharatNet
Samriddh Gram is an integrated phygital service delivery model enabled by BharatNet.
Under which WSIS Prizes 2026 category has India's Samriddh Gram initiative been nominated?
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Correct answer: D — AL C6: Enabling Environment
Samriddh Gram was nominated under Action Line C6: Enabling Environment.
After the approval of 20 April 2026, what is the total quantity of wheat (excluding wheat products) permitted for export?
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Correct answer: D — 50 LMT
With the latest additional 25 LMT, a total of 50 LMT of wheat and 10 LMT of wheat products have been permitted.
According to the Second Advance Estimates of March 2026, India's wheat production for 2025–26 is estimated at:
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Correct answer: A — 1,202 LMT
The Second Advance Estimates released on 10 March 2026 put wheat production for 2025–26 at 1,202 LMT.
Which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 prohibits the sale or distribution of liquor in a polling area in the 48 hours ending with the close of poll?
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Correct answer: B — Section 135C
Section 135C of the RP Act, 1951 bars sale or distribution of liquor in a polling area during the 48 hours ending with the close of poll.
Consider the following statements about ECI's dry-day directions for the 2026 Assembly elections: 1. The dry-day period also applies to the date of any repoll. 2. The counting day, 4 May 2026, is to be declared a dry day in the poll-going states/UT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: ECI said the 48-hour dry period includes the date of any repoll, and directed that 4 May 2026, the counting day, also be a dry day.
How much did Indian Railways earn from scrap sales in FY 2025–26?
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Correct answer: D — ₹6,813.86 crore
Scrap sales were ₹6,813.86 crore against a ₹6,000 crore target; ₹6,641.78 crore was the FY 2024–25 figure.
According to the Railway Ministry (April 2026), by how much has Indian Railways' non-fare revenue grown over the last five years?
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Correct answer: B — 168%
Non-fare revenue grew 168%, from around ₹290 crore to over ₹777 crore.
How many PM Vishwakarma beneficiaries had the MSME Ministry trained in AI tools, as reported in April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 2,543
The ministry reported training 2,543 PM Vishwakarma beneficiaries in AI tools.
Which state had the largest number of participants in the MSME Ministry's AI training for PM Vishwakarma artisans?
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Correct answer: C — Telangana
Telangana led with 387 participants, followed by Maharashtra (295) and Gujarat (262).
According to FAOSTAT 2024, as cited in a PIB backgrounder of April 2026, what is India's world rank in coconut production?
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Correct answer: D — Second
India ranks second in the world in coconut production as per FAOSTAT 2024.
India's horticultural production in 2024-25, as per the PIB backgrounder, was about:
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Correct answer: B — 370.74 million tonnes
Horticultural production rose from 277.35 MT in 2013-14 to 370.74 MT in 2024-25; 217.80 MT is vegetables alone.
Consider the following statements based on the PIB backgrounder on high-value crops (April 2026): 1. Nearly 90% of India's approximately 150 million agarwood trees are in the North Eastern states. 2. Horticulture accounts for more than half of the gross value of output of the agricultural crops sub-sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. About 90% of the ~150 million agarwood trees are in the North East, but horticulture's share of the crops sub-sector GVO is about 37%.
Within how many hours of being brought to a platform's notice must misleading or unlawful AI-generated election content be acted upon, as directed by ECI in 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 3 hours
ECI directed that misleading or unlawful AI-generated content be acted upon within 3 hours of notice.
Under ECI's cVIGIL system, within what stipulated time were 96.01% of complaints resolved during the 2026 Assembly elections (15 March–19 April)?
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Correct answer: A — 100 minutes
Of 3,23,099 cVIGIL complaints, 3,10,393 (96.01%) were resolved within the stipulated 100 minutes.
Consider the following statements regarding election-related provisions reiterated by ECI in April 2026: 1. Section 126 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 prohibits display of election matter in polling areas during the 48 hours before the conclusion of poll. 2. Labelling of AI-altered campaign content is optional for candidates if the content is factually accurate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Section 126 imposes the 48-hour silence period; ECI requires all synthetically generated or AI-altered campaign content to be clearly labelled, regardless of accuracy.
According to the Lok Sabha Speaker, what was the productivity of the Lok Sabha during the Budget Session that ended on 18 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — About 93%
The Speaker put Lok Sabha productivity at 93%; about 110% was the Rajya Sabha figure.
The President's address to both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the start of the first session of the year, as on 28 January 2026, is made under which provision of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: C — Article 87(1)
The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs notes that the President addressed both Houses together in terms of Article 87(1), this being the first session of the year.
Consider the following statements about the Budget Session, 2026: 1. The session had 31 sittings spread over 81 days. 2. In the Lok Sabha, 12 Government Bills were introduced and 12 were passed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: 12 Bills were introduced but 9 were passed in the Lok Sabha.
In April 2026 the Union Cabinet extended PMGSY-III up to which month and year for roads in plain areas?
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Correct answer: D — March 2028
PMGSY-III was continued beyond March 2025 up to March 2028; only bridges in hilly areas get till March 2029.
Consider the following statements about the April 2026 decision on PMGSY-III: 1. The outlay of the scheme was revised upward from ₹80,250 crore to ₹83,977 crore. 2. The deadline for completing bridges in hilly areas was set at March 2029. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Cabinet decision of 18 April 2026.
Under PMGSY-III, Through Routes and Major Rural Links are consolidated to connect habitations to which of the following? 1. Gramin Agricultural Markets (GrAMs) 2. Higher secondary schools 3. Hospitals 4. Railway stations Select the correct answer:
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Correct answer: B — 1, 2 and 3 only
The Cabinet release lists GrAMs, higher secondary schools and hospitals; railway stations are not mentioned.
The Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool approved by the Cabinet in April 2026 is backed by a sovereign guarantee of:
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Correct answer: D — ₹12,980 crore
The BMI pool has a sovereign guarantee of ₹12,980 crore; ₹950 crore is its combined underwriting capacity.
Consider the following statements about the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool: 1. It covers only Indian-flagged vessels and excludes foreign vessels bound for Indian ports. 2. It covers War risk in addition to Hull and Machinery, Cargo and P&I risks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the pool covers Indian-flagged or controlled vessels and also vessels destined to or starting from India. Statement 2 is correct.
The Cabinet cited high dependence of Indian vessels on which body for Protection and Indemnity (P&I) cover of third-party liabilities such as oil pollution and wreck removal?
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Correct answer: B — International Group of P&I Clubs (IGP&I)
The release says Indian vessels depend heavily on the International Group of Protection and Indemnity (IGP&I) Club for P&I insurance.
According to the PIB backgrounder of April 2026, how many centrally protected monuments does the Archaeological Survey of India safeguard?
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Correct answer: D — 3,686
The backgrounder says the ASI safeguards 3,686 centrally protected monuments.
Consider the following statements, based on the PIB backgrounder on monuments (April 2026): 1. India has 44 UNESCO World Heritage Sites, the latest being the Maratha Military Landscapes. 2. The Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958 empowers the government, through the ASI, to regulate construction around protected monuments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the backgrounder.
INS Sudarshini concluded a port call at which city on 18 April 2026 during its Lokayan 26 deployment?
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Correct answer: C — Casablanca
INS Sudarshini concluded its port call at Casablanca, Morocco, on 18 April 2026.
After leaving Morocco in April 2026, INS Sudarshini proceeded to which port?
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Correct answer: A — Las Palmas, Spain
The Ministry of Defence said INS Sudarshini proceeds to Las Palmas, Spain.
The DA/DR instalment approved by the Cabinet on 18 April 2026 raised the rate by 2% over an existing rate of what percentage of basic pay/pension?
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Correct answer: D — 58%
The increase is 2% over the existing rate of 58% of basic pay/pension.
The formula used to revise Dearness Allowance for Central Government employees, as cited in the April 2026 Cabinet decision, is based on the recommendations of:
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Correct answer: B — 7th Central Pay Commission
The Cabinet release says the increase is in accordance with the accepted formula based on the recommendations of the 7th Central Pay Commission.
Who was appointed Secretary in the Rajya Sabha Secretariat with effect from 18 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Dr K.S. Somashekhar
Rajya Sabha Chairman C.P. Radhakrishnan appointed Dr K.S. Somashekhar as Secretary from 18 April 2026.
Consider the following statements about Dr K.S. Somashekhar, appointed Secretary in the Rajya Sabha Secretariat in April 2026: 1. He joined the Rajya Sabha Secretariat in 1993. 2. He has served in senior capacities in the Government of Karnataka. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Rajya Sabha Secretariat release.
The Technology and Policy Expert Committee (TPEC) constituted by MeitY in April 2026 is chaired by:
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Correct answer: A — Secretary, MeitY
The TPEC is chaired by the Secretary, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Consider the following statements about India's AI governance architecture as described by MeitY in April 2026: 1. The AI Governance and Economic Group (AIGEG) sets strategic direction and coordinates policy across government. 2. The TPEC is a temporary task force that will be dissolved after drafting a single report. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the TPEC is a standing expert advisory body.
How many women are among the 958 candidates recommended in the Civil Services Examination 2025, as stated by the Personnel Minister in April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 299
Out of 958 recommended candidates, 299 are women, over 31% of the total.
According to Union Minister Jitendra Singh, women formed roughly what share of successful Civil Services candidates about a decade before CSE 2025?
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Correct answer: B — About 20%
The Minister said women were roughly around 20% of successful candidates a decade ago; the CSE 2025 share is over 31%.
India's indicative Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) blending target in ATF for international flights for the year 2030 is:
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Correct answer: C — 5%
The indicative targets are 1% in 2027, 2% in 2028 and 5% in 2030.
The amendment notified on 17 April 2026 to bring SAF-blended fuel under regulation was made to which instrument?
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Correct answer: D — Aviation Turbine Fuel (Regulation of Marketing) Order, 2001
The Government amended the ATF (Regulation of Marketing) Order, 2001, the ATF Control Order.
Consider the following statements about CORSIA, cited in the April 2026 ATF Control Order amendment: 1. CORSIA is a scheme implemented by the International Civil Aviation Organization to control emissions from international flights. 2. The mandatory phase of CORSIA begins from 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the mandatory phase begins from 2027, requiring international flights to offset emissions above a baseline.
In the Lok Sabha vote of 17 April 2026 on the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, how many members voted in favour and against?
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Correct answer: A — 298 in favour, 230 against
With 528 members present, 298 voted in favour and 230 against (The Hindu, Indian Express); the Bill needed 352.
Under Article 368(2) of the Constitution, a Bill to amend the Constitution must be passed in each House by:
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Correct answer: D — A majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting
Article 368(2) requires both limbs in each House: a majority of the total membership and not less than two-thirds of members present and voting. In April 2026, 298 of 528 met the first limb but not the second (352 needed).
Consider the following statements about the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, as summarised by PRS Legislative Research: 1. It proposed raising the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha from 550 to 850, with up to 35 members from Union Territories. 2. It proposed raising the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha above 250. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: PRS notes the Bill left the Rajya Sabha maximum of 250 (Article 80) unchanged.
The existing freeze on the allocation of Lok Sabha seats among states, based on the 1971 census, was extended until the first census after 2026 by which Constitutional Amendment?
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Correct answer: C — 84th Amendment, 2001
PRS notes the 42nd Amendment (1976) froze seats on the 1971 census until the first census after 2000, and the 84th Amendment (2001) extended it until the first census after 2026.
Which two countries were added in April 2026 to the eligible destinations under the RELIEF export support intervention?
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Correct answer: B — Egypt and Jordan
Egypt and Jordan were added for shipments meant for delivery or transhipment.
RELIEF – Resilience & Logistics Intervention for Export Facilitation is implemented through which nodal agency?
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Correct answer: C — ECGC
RELIEF is implemented through ECGC as the nodal agency, under the Export Promotion Mission.
Which document was released during the first Naval Commanders' Conference of 2026 (14–17 April 2026)?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Navy Maritime Security Strategy (INMSS-2026)
The Indian Navy Maritime Security Strategy (INMSS-2026) was released during the conference.
The Naval Commanders' Conference concluded in April 2026 was held at which venue?
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Correct answer: D — Nausena Bhawan, New Delhi
The conference was held at Nausena Bhawan, New Delhi, from 14 to 17 April 2026.
During its April 2026 port call at Phuket, IOS SAGAR (INS Sunayna) conducted a Passage Exercise with which Royal Thai Navy ship?
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Correct answer: D — HTMS Klongyai
The PASSEX was conducted with HTMS Klongyai.
In the MAHASAGAR vision cited for the IOS SAGAR deployment, what does 'MAHASAGAR' stand for?
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Correct answer: B — Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions
The Ministry of Defence expands MAHASAGAR as Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions.
Who was elected Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha unopposed on 17 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Harivansh
Harivansh was elected unopposed; the Chairman noted it was his third election to the office.
Consider the following statements about the election of the Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman in April 2026: 1. The election was unopposed. 2. It was Harivansh's first election to the office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Chairman said it was his election to the office for the third time.
Which state had the highest number of DPIIT-recognised startups as on 31 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Maharashtra
Maharashtra led with 38,660+ recognised startups, followed by Karnataka and Uttar Pradesh.
Consider the following statements about Startup India data released in April 2026: 1. More than 55,200 startups were recognised in FY 2025-26, the highest in a single year. 2. About 48% of recognised startups have at least one woman director or partner. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: 55,200+ were recognised in FY 2025-26, and 1.07 lakh+ (about 48%) have a woman director or partner.
How many coal blocks are offered in the 15th round of commercial coal mine auctions launched on 17 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 11
11 coal blocks are offered (7 fully and 4 partially explored); 6 more are offered in the second attempt of the 13th round.
Consider the following statements about the 15th round of commercial coal mine auctions: 1. Of the 11 blocks, 8 are offered under the MMDR Act, 1957 and 3 under the CMSP Act, 2015. 2. All 11 blocks are coking coal blocks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: only 1 block is coking coal; 10 are non-coking.
The motion to introduce the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026 in the Lok Sabha on 16 April 2026 was carried by what vote in the division?
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Correct answer: A — 251 to 185
The Hindu and BusinessLine report 251 in favour and 185 against at the introduction stage; 298–230 was the vote on passage on 17 April.
Under the Delimitation Bill, 2026 (as summarised by PRS), the proposed Delimitation Commission would consist of: 1. A chairperson who is or has been a Supreme Court judge 2. The Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner nominated by the CEC 3. The State Election Commissioner of the state concerned 4. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer:
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3 only
PRS lists the chairperson (serving or former SC judge), the CEC or a nominated EC, and the State Election Commissioner; the Speaker is not a member.
The Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026 proposed that the Delimitation Commission fix the number of Assembly seats at not less than the existing number. Match the UT with that minimum: 1. Puducherry – 30 2. Delhi – 70 3. Jammu and Kashmir – 90 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
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Correct answer: B — Only two
Pairs 1 and 2 are correct. PRS gives the existing figure for Jammu and Kashmir under the 2019 Reorganisation Act as 114, not 90.
Consider the following statements, based on PRS Legislative Research's analysis of the Delimitation Bills of 2026: 1. The last Delimitation Commission was constituted in 2002 and its orders were finalised in 2008. 2. The Delimitation Bill, 2026 provided that the census to be used is the latest one published when the Commission is constituted, implying the 2011 Census. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per PRS.
According to the Prime Minister, Austrian Chancellor Christian Stocker's visit to India in April 2026 was the first by an Austrian Chancellor in how many years?
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Correct answer: C — 40 years
The Prime Minister said the Austrian Chancellor's visit to India came after 40 years.
During the Austrian Chancellor's visit in April 2026, FSSAI signed a food safety MoU with which Austrian agency?
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Correct answer: A — AGES
The MoU on food safety was between AGES, Austria and FSSAI, India.
Consider the following statements about the India–Austria outcomes of April 2026: 1. A Letter of Intent on Cooperation in Military Matters builds on the India–EU Defence and Security Partnership signed on 27 January 2026. 2. The two countries signed a Free Trade Agreement during the visit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the list of outcomes contains no bilateral FTA; it includes a Fast Track Mechanism for Indian and Austrian companies.
With which two regulators did FIU-India sign separate MoUs on 16 April 2026 to combat money laundering?
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Correct answer: B — SEBI and PFRDA
FIU-IND signed separate MoUs with SEBI and PFRDA.
The FIU-IND MoUs of April 2026 state that information exchange with foreign financial intelligence units will follow which principles?
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Correct answer: C — Egmont Principles of Information Exchange
The MoUs will assist exchange of information with foreign FIUs through the Egmont Principles of Information Exchange.
In their phone call of 16 April 2026, PM Modi and President Macron agreed on the need to restore freedom of navigation in which waterway?
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Correct answer: D — Strait of Hormuz
The leaders agreed on the urgent need to restore safety and freedom of navigation in the Strait of Hormuz.