Bihar Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What guarantee coverage does the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs, approved in January 2025, provide to lenders?
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Correct answer: B — 60%
PIB 2097455: NCGTC provides 60% guarantee coverage to member lending institutions for credit up to ₹100 crore.
Consider the following statements about MCGS-MSME: 1. Loans up to ₹100 crore are eligible for guarantee cover. 2. Equipment or machinery must be at least 75% of the project cost. 3. The guarantee is provided by SIDBI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097455: loans up to ₹100 crore are covered and equipment must be at least 75% of project cost; the guarantee is given by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC), not SIDBI.
According to ASUSE 2023-24, which state had the highest number of unincorporated sector establishments?
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Correct answer: C — Uttar Pradesh
PIB 2097316: Uttar Pradesh had the highest number of establishments, followed by West Bengal and Maharashtra.
By how much did the number of establishments in the unincorporated sector grow in ASUSE 2023-24 over 2022-23?
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Correct answer: B — 12.84%
PIB 2097316: establishments grew 12.84% (6.50 crore to 7.34 crore); workers grew 10.01% and GVA 16.52%.
Which state topped Gross Value Added in the unincorporated sector as per ASUSE 2023-24?
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Correct answer: C — Maharashtra
PIB 2097316: the top three states in GVA were Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat.
How much did the High-Level Committee chaired by the Union Home Minister approve for disaster mitigation on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹3,027.86 crore
PIB 2097448: the HLC approved ₹3,027.86 crore in total for drought, lightning and forest fire mitigation projects.
The forest fire risk management scheme approved on 29 January 2025 covers how many high-priority districts?
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Correct answer: C — 144
PIB 2097448: the forest fire scheme covers 144 high-priority districts in 19 states at ₹818.92 crore.
From which fund are the drought and lightning mitigation projects approved by the High-Level Committee in January 2025 to be financed?
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Correct answer: A — National Disaster Mitigation Fund
PIB 2097448: the HLC considered the lightning and drought proposals for funding from the National Disaster Mitigation Fund (NDMF).
What administered ex-mill price was fixed on 29 January 2025 for ethanol from C-heavy molasses for ESY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — ₹57.97 per litre
PIB 2097305: the price was fixed at ₹57.97 per litre, up from ₹56.58 per litre.
The Ethanol Supply Year (ESY) used under the Ethanol Blended Petrol Programme runs from:
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Correct answer: B — 1 November to 31 October
PIB 2097305: ESY is defined as the period from 1 November of a year to 31 October of the following year.
Consider the following statements about ethanol blending in India: 1. Average blending by public sector OMCs reached 14.60% in ESY 2023-24. 2. The 20% blending target has been advanced to ESY 2025-26. 3. OMCs plan to achieve 20% blending in ESY 2024-25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097305: blending averaged 14.60% in ESY 2023-24 and the 20% target was advanced to ESY 2025-26; OMCs plan 18%, not 20%, in ESY 2024-25.
What minimum efficiency does the Solar QCO 2025 set for poly-crystalline silicon PV modules?
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Correct answer: C — 17%
PIB 2097219: 17% for poly-crystalline silicon modules and 18% for mono-crystalline silicon and thin-film modules.
Under which law was the Solar Systems, Devices, and Components Goods Order, 2025 notified?
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Correct answer: C — Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016
PIB 2097219: the order was notified in the Gazette dated 27.01.2025 under the BIS Act, 2016.
Consider the following statements about the Solar QCO 2025: 1. It covers solar PV modules, inverters and storage batteries. 2. It comes into effect 180 days from the date of publication. 3. Products meant exclusively for export are also covered. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097219: the order covers modules, inverters and storage batteries and takes effect after 180 days; products exclusively for export are exempted.
Where did India and Oman sign the protocol amending their Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement on 27 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Muscat
Oman Ministry of Foreign Affairs (27 January 2025): the protocol was signed in Muscat.
Which session of the India-Oman Joint Commission Meeting did Piyush Goyal co-chair during his January 2025 visit to Oman?
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Correct answer: C — 11th
PIB 2097043: Goyal co-chaired the 11th Session of the India-Oman JCM with Qais bin Mohammed Al Yousef.
What was the theme of the first-ever tri-services tableau at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Shashakt aur Surakshit Bharat
PIB 2096097: the tri-services tableau's theme was 'Shashakt aur Surakshit Bharat'; 'Raksha Kavach' was DRDO's and 'Viksit Bharat ki Ore Sadaiv Agrasar' the veterans' tableau.
Which naval destroyer was featured on the tri-services tableau at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: D — INS Visakhapatnam
PIB 2096097: the tableau displayed the Arjun MBT, Tejas MKII, ALH, destroyer INS Visakhapatnam and a remotely piloted aircraft.
For which category did 'Jayati Jai Mamah Bharatam' at the Republic Day Parade 2025 receive a Guinness World Record?
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Correct answer: D — The Largest Indian Folk Variety Dance
PIB 2096534: it was recognised by Guinness World Records for 'The Largest Indian Folk Variety Dance'.
Along with the Ministry of Culture, which body presented 'Jayati Jai Mamah Bharatam' at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Sangeet Natak Akademi
PIB 2096534: the performance was by the Ministry of Culture and Sangeet Natak Akademi.
How many Padma Vibhushan awards were announced for 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 7
PIB 2096285 (MHA): the list comprises 7 Padma Vibhushan, 19 Padma Bhushan and 113 Padma Shri awards.
What was the total number of Padma Awards approved for 2025, counting the duo case as one?
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Correct answer: C — 139
PIB 2096285: the President approved 139 Padma Awards including 1 duo case, counted as one.
Consider the following statements about the Padma Awards 2025: 1. 19 Padma Bhushan awards were announced. 2. 23 of the awardees are women. 3. 10 awards were conferred posthumously. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096285: there are 19 Padma Bhushan awards and 23 women awardees; 13 awards are posthumous, while 10 is the count of Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI awardees.
Which Japanese industrialist was named for the Padma Vibhushan (posthumous) in Trade and Industry in 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Osamu Suzuki
PIB 2096285: Osamu Suzuki (Posthumous), Trade and Industry, Japan, is among the 7 Padma Vibhushan awardees.
Match the Padma Awards 2025 recipients with their award category: 1. Sharda Sinha – Padma Vibhushan (posthumous) 2. P R Sreejesh – Padma Bhushan 3. Arijit Singh – Padma Bhushan Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096285: Sharda Sinha received the Padma Vibhushan (posthumous) and P R Sreejesh the Padma Bhushan (sports); Arijit Singh is in the Padma Shri list.
Which Indonesian President was the chief guest at India's first Republic Day in 1950, as recalled during Prabowo Subianto's 2025 visit?
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Correct answer: A — Sukarno
PIB 2096322: President Murmu noted that 75 years ago, at the first Republic Day in 1950, President Sukarno of Indonesia was the chief guest.
Consider the following outcomes of the Indonesian President's State Visit to India in January 2025: 1. An MoU on traditional medicine quality assurance with the Indonesian Food and Drug Authority. 2. A Cultural Exchange Programme for 2025-28. 3. An MoU on space cooperation between ISRO and Indonesia's space agency. Which of the above were listed among the outcomes?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096278: outcomes included the traditional medicine MoU (PCIM&H–Indonesian FDA), MoUs on health and digital development and a 2025-28 cultural exchange programme; no space MoU was listed.
Which edition of the India-Indonesia CEOs Forum presented its joint report during the January 2025 State Visit?
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Correct answer: C — 3rd
PIB 2096278: the co-chairs of the 3rd India-Indonesia CEOs Forum presented their joint report.
How many Kirti Chakras were approved on the eve of Republic Day 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 2
PIB 2096200: two Kirti Chakras (one posthumous) and 14 Shaurya Chakras were approved.
Consider the following statements about the Republic Day 2025 gallantry awards: 1. Gallantry awards were approved for 93 personnel, including 12 posthumous. 2. 14 Shaurya Chakras were approved. 3. 305 defence decorations included 50 Param Vishisht Seva Medals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096200: 93 gallantry awards (12 posthumous) and 14 Shaurya Chakras were approved; the 305 defence decorations included 30 PVSMs, not 50.
Who among the following received the Kirti Chakra posthumously on the eve of Republic Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Naik Dilwar Khan
PIB 2096200: Kirti Chakras went to Major Manjit (22 RR) and Naik Dilwar Khan (28 RR, posthumous); Captain Deepak Singh received the Shaurya Chakra (posthumous).
Which state topped NITI Aayog's inaugural Fiscal Health Index 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Odisha
PIB 2095974: Odisha topped with a score of 67.8, followed by Chhattisgarh (55.2) and Goa (53.6).
Who launched NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025 on 24 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Arvind Panagariya
PIB 2095974: 16th Finance Commission Chairman Arvind Panagariya launched the inaugural FHI 2025.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five sub-indices of NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Ease of Doing Business
PIB 2095974: the sub-indices are Quality of Expenditure, Revenue Mobilisation, Fiscal Prudence, Debt Index and Debt Sustainability.
Which state ranked second in NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chhattisgarh
PIB 2095974: Odisha (67.8) was followed by Chhattisgarh (55.2) and Goa (53.6).
'SANJAY', flagged off on 24 January 2025, is what kind of system?
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Correct answer: D — Battlefield surveillance system
PIB 2095712: SANJAY is the Battlefield Surveillance System that fuses sensor inputs into a Common Surveillance Picture.
Consider the following statements about SANJAY: 1. It was jointly developed by the Indian Army and Bharat Electronics Limited. 2. It was developed at a cost of ₹2,402 crore under the Buy (Indian) category. 3. Its induction is to be completed in a single phase in March 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2095712: SANJAY was developed by the Army and BEL at ₹2,402 crore under Buy (Indian); induction is in three phases from March to October 2025.
What was the year-on-year inflation rate based on CPI-AL for December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 5.01%
PIB 2095463: CPI-AL inflation was 5.01% in December 2024, against 5.35% in November 2024 and 7.71% in December 2023.
What is the base year of the CPI for Agricultural Labourers and Rural Labourers?
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Correct answer: B — 1986-87 = 100
PIB 2095463: CPI-AL and CPI-RL have base 1986-87 = 100.
Consider the following about CPI-AL and CPI-RL for December 2024: 1. Both indices were unchanged from November 2024. 2. CPI-RL stood at 1331 points. 3. CPI-RL inflation was higher than in December 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2095463: CPI-AL (1320) and CPI-RL (1331) were unchanged; CPI-RL inflation fell to 5.05% from 7.46% in December 2023.
RMBS Development Company Limited (RDCL), which got an RBI Certificate of Registration in January 2025, was set up by which body?
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Correct answer: C — National Housing Bank
PIB 2096815: National Housing Bank set up RDCL as its single largest shareholder.
What is the paid-up capital of RMBS Development Company Limited (RDCL)?
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Correct answer: A — ₹500 crore
PIB 2096815: RDCL's paid-up capital is ₹500 crore, with its registered office in Mumbai.
From when will the Legal Metrology rules for radar speed-measuring equipment, notified in January 2025, come into force?
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Correct answer: D — 1 July 2025
PIB 2095440: to give industry time to comply, the rules will come into force from 1 July 2025.
The draft rules for radar speed-measuring equipment were based on which international recommendation?
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Correct answer: A — OIML R 91
PIB 2095440: the committee submitted the initial draft based on OIML R 91.
The committee that framed the draft radar equipment rules was chaired by the Director of which institute?
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Correct answer: C — Indian Institute of Legal Metrology, Ranchi
PIB 2095440: the committee was formed under the chairmanship of the Director, Indian Institute of Legal Metrology (IILM), Ranchi.
What MSP was fixed for raw jute (TD-3 grade) for the 2025-26 season?
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Correct answer: B — ₹5,650 per quintal
PIB 2095068: the MSP of raw jute (TD-3 grade) was fixed at ₹5,650 per quintal, ₹315 above 2024-25.
What return over the all-India weighted average cost of production does the 2025-26 raw jute MSP ensure?
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Correct answer: D — 66.8%
PIB 2095068: the MSP ensures a return of 66.8% over the all-India weighted average cost of production.
Which state accounts for 82% of India's jute farmers, according to the Cabinet's January 2025 MSP decision?
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Correct answer: A — West Bengal
PIB 2095068: 82% of jute farmers belong to West Bengal; Assam and Bihar have 9% each of jute production.
From where was the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme launched on 22 January 2015?
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Correct answer: A — Panipat, Haryana
PIB 2095231: PM Narendra Modi launched BBBP on 22 January 2015 from Panipat, Haryana.
According to the Health Minister at the BBBP 10-year event, India's Maternal Mortality Rate has fallen since 2014 from 130 to how many deaths per lakh live births?
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Correct answer: C — 97
PIB 2095231: MMR decreased from 130 to 97 deaths per lakh live births, and IMR from 39 to 28 per 1,000 live births.
Consider the following about Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP): 1. It was launched in 2015 from Panipat, Haryana. 2. It is a joint effort of the Ministries of Women and Child Development, Education, and Health and Family Welfare. 3. The Mission Vatsalya Portal was launched at its 10-year celebration. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2095231: BBBP was launched in 2015 from Panipat by three ministries; the Mission Vatsalya Portal was launched at the 22 January 2025 event.
According to MeitY's January 2025 report, what share of national income did India's digital economy account for in 2022-23?
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Correct answer: A — 11.74%
PIB 2095260: India's digital economy was estimated at 11.74% of national income in 2022-23.
With MeitY's digital economy estimates, India became the first developing country to use which organisation's framework to size its digital economy?
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Correct answer: C — OECD
PIB 2095260: India is the first among developing countries to use the OECD framework; alternate estimates use the ADB input-output approach.
Consider the following about MeitY's report on India's digital economy (January 2025): 1. The digital economy was worth ₹31.64 lakh crore in 2022-23. 2. It is projected to contribute one-fifth of GDP by 2030. 3. It also gives alternate estimates using the ADB's input-output approach. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2095260: the digital economy equalled ₹31.64 lakh crore in 2022-23, is projected at one-fifth of GDP by 2030, and alternate estimates use the ADB input-output approach.
By how much has India's Maternal Mortality Rate declined since 1990, as per the NHM update to the Cabinet in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 83%
PIB 2095052: MMR declined by 83% since 1990, higher than the global decline of 45%.
How many Ayushman Arogya Mandirs had been reached by FY 2023-24, according to the NHM achievements placed before the Cabinet?
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Correct answer: D — 1.72 lakh
PIB 2095052: Ayushman Arogya Mandir centres reached the 1.72 lakh mark by FY 2023-24.
Consider the following about NHM achievements (2021-24) placed before the Cabinet: 1. TB incidence fell from 237 per lakh population in 2015 to 195 in 2023. 2. India's decline in MMR since 1990 was lower than the global decline. 3. NHM engaged over 12 lakh additional healthcare workers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2095052: TB incidence fell from 237 to 195 and NHM engaged over 12 lakh additional workers; India's MMR decline (83%) exceeded the global 45%.
What target for Geographical Indication (GI) tags did the Commerce Minister set at the GI Samagam in January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 10,000 GI tags by 2030
PIB 2095279: Piyush Goyal set a target of 10,000 GI tags by 2030.
How many GI tags had been issued by the department as of 22 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 605
PIB 2095279: the number of GI tags issued by the department till date stands at 605.
Consider the following about the GI Samagam (January 2025): 1. It was organised by DPIIT and the India Today Group in New Delhi. 2. A committee will be constituted to oversee the 10,000 GI tag target. 3. Authorised users of GI tags fell over the last 10 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2095279: DPIIT and India Today Group organised the Samagam and a committee will oversee the target; authorised users rose from 365 to 29,000.
How many net members did EPFO add in November 2024, as per payroll data released in January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 14.63 lakh
PIB 2095007: EPFO recorded a net addition of 14.63 lakh members in November 2024.
What share of EPFO's new members in November 2024 came from the 18–25 age group?
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Correct answer: B — 54.97%
PIB 2095007: 4.81 lakh new members aged 18–25 made up 54.97% of new members in November 2024.
Consider the following about EPFO payroll data for November 2024: 1. Net member addition was 14.63 lakh. 2. New member enrolment fell compared with October 2024. 3. The 18–25 age group made up less than half of new members. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB 2095007: net addition was 14.63 lakh; new members rose 16.58% over October 2024; the 18–25 group was 54.97% of new members.
From when will the Diamond Imprest Authorization Scheme, introduced in January 2025, be implemented?
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Correct answer: D — 1 April 2025
PIB 2094862: the DIA Scheme will be implemented with effect from 1 April 2025.
The Diamond Imprest Authorization Scheme allows duty-free import of natural cut and polished diamonds of what size?
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Correct answer: A — Less than ¼ carat (25 cents)
PIB 2094862: the scheme allows duty-free import of natural cut and polished diamonds of less than ¼ carat (25 cents).
Consider the following about the Diamond Imprest Authorization Scheme: 1. It mandates an export obligation with 10% value addition. 2. Exporters with Two Star Export House status and above and US$15 million annual exports are eligible. 3. It allows duty-free import of lab-grown diamonds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2094862: the scheme requires 10% value addition and is open to Two Star Export Houses with US$15 million exports; it covers natural cut and polished diamonds.
Which body organised the second meeting of the BIMSTEC Expert Group on Cyber Security Cooperation in January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Security Council Secretariat
PIB 2095700: the National Security Council Secretariat organised the meeting on 21 January 2025 in New Delhi.
Over what timeframe is the BIMSTEC cyber security Action Plan proposed to be implemented?
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Correct answer: C — 5 years
PIB 2095700: the Action Plan has been proposed to be implemented within 5 years.
Consider the following about the BIMSTEC Expert Group on Cyber Security Cooperation: 1. Its second meeting was held in New Delhi on 21 January 2025. 2. Its first meeting was hosted by India in 2022. 3. The proposed Action Plan covers protection of critical information infrastructure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2095700: the second meeting was in New Delhi on 21 January 2025, India hosted the first in 2022, and the Action Plan covers critical information infrastructure.
How many T-72 Bridge Laying Tanks did the Ministry of Defence contract for in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 47
PIB 2094857: the contract is for 47 T-72 Bridge Laying Tanks at ₹1,560.52 crore.
Which unit will supply the 47 T-72 Bridge Laying Tanks to the Indian Army?
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Correct answer: D — Heavy Vehicles Factory, AVNL
PIB 2094857: the contract was signed with Heavy Vehicles Factory, a unit of Armoured Vehicle Nigam Limited.
Under which procurement category was the January 2025 contract for T-72 Bridge Laying Tanks placed?
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Correct answer: C — Buy (Indian-IDDM)
PIB 2094857: the case is a Buy (Indian-Indigenously Designed Developed and Manufactured) procurement.
What was the focus of the 27th PM-STIAC meeting held on 21 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Cell and gene therapy
PIB 2094915: the 27th PM-STIAC meeting discussed cell and gene therapy in India.
Who chaired the 27th meeting of PM-STIAC?
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Correct answer: B — Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood
PIB 2094915: the meeting was chaired by Principal Scientific Adviser Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood.
Where was the 85th All India Presiding Officers Conference held in January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Patna
PIB 2094919: Om Birla addressed the valedictory session of the 85th AIPOC in Patna.
How many resolutions did the 85th All India Presiding Officers Conference adopt?
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Correct answer: C — 5
PIB 2094919: the 85th AIPOC adopted five resolutions.
Consider the following about the 85th All India Presiding Officers Conference: 1. It concluded in Patna on 21 January 2025. 2. One of its resolutions concerned the use of digital technology. 3. Its valedictory session was addressed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2094919: the AIPOC concluded in Patna and adopted a resolution on digital technology; the valedictory session was addressed by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla.
Who administered the presidential oath to Donald Trump on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chief Justice John G. Roberts Jr.
Congressional Record: Chief Justice John G. Roberts Jr. administered the presidential oath.
Consider the following statements about the US inauguration on 20 January 2025: 1. Donald Trump was sworn in as the 47th President. 2. The vice-presidential oath to JD Vance was administered by Chief Justice John G. Roberts Jr. 3. The ceremony was held in the Great Rotunda. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
Congressional Record: Trump was sworn in as the 47th President in the Great Rotunda; Associate Justice Brett Kavanaugh, not the Chief Justice, administered Vance's oath.
Who administered the vice-presidential oath to JD Vance on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Associate Justice Brett Kavanaugh
Congressional Record: Associate Justice Brett Kavanaugh administered the vice-presidential oath to James David Vance.
The KOICA-assisted project 'Strengthening Vocational Education and Training in Mechatronics in India', for which notes were exchanged on 20 January 2025, will be implemented by NCERT at which institute?
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Correct answer: D — RIE Bhopal
PIB 2095225: NCERT will implement the project at the Regional Institute of Education (RIE), Bhopal.
Consider the following statements about India–Korea development cooperation: 1. The NCERT mechatronics project is the first KOICA-assisted project in India. 2. Korea was designated India's ODA partner in October 2016. 3. India–Korea ties were upgraded to a Special Strategic Partnership in 2018. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2095225: it is the first KOICA-assisted project in India and Korea became an ODA partner in October 2016; the Special Strategic Partnership dates from 2015, not 2018.
Who signed the Exchange of Notes for the KOICA mechatronics project on behalf of the Government of India on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Manisha Sinha
PIB 2095225: Manisha Sinha, Additional Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, signed for India.
How many companies were provisionally selected in the third round of the PLI Scheme for White Goods announced on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 24
PIB 2094465: 24 beneficiaries (18 new + 6 existing) were selected, committing ₹3,516 crore.
The PLI Scheme for White Goods covers components of which two products?
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Correct answer: B — Air conditioners and LED lights
PIB 2094465: the PLI Scheme for White Goods covers air conditioners and LED lights.
Consider the following statements about the PLI Scheme for White Goods: 1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet on 7 April 2021 with an outlay of ₹6,238 crore. 2. After the third round, 84 companies under the scheme are set to invest ₹10,478 crore. 3. The scheme runs from FY 2021-22 to FY 2025-26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2094465: the Cabinet approved it on 7 April 2021 with ₹6,238 crore and 84 companies will invest ₹10,478 crore; the scheme period is FY 2021-22 to FY 2028-29.