Banking & Insurance Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
On 30 August 2025, PM Modi and Japanese PM Shigeru Ishiba visited a semiconductor facility in Sendai. Sendai lies in which Prefecture?
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Correct answer: B — Miyagi
The PIB release says the two leaders travelled to Sendai in Miyagi Prefecture.
Which semiconductor company's facility did the two Prime Ministers visit in Sendai on 30 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Tokyo Electron Miyagi Ltd
They visited Tokyo Electron Miyagi Ltd (TEL Miyagi), a leading Japanese company in the semiconductor sector.
How many Governors of Japanese Prefectures took part in PM Modi's interaction on 30 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 16
The release says sixteen Governors participated in the interaction.
PM Modi urged Japanese Governors to use which initiative, launched at the 15th India–Japan Annual Summit, to deepen sub-national ties?
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Correct answer: B — State-Prefecture Partnership Initiative
He underlined the State-Prefecture Partnership Initiative launched at the 15th Annual Summit to boost trade, technology, tourism, skills, security and cultural links.
Consider the following statements about PM Modi's visit to Japan in August 2025: 1. It was an Official Working Visit on 29–30 August 2025 for the 15th Annual Summit. 2. The Sendai visit built on a Memorandum of Cooperation on the Japan–India Semiconductor Supply Chain Partnership. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The Joint Statement describes an Official Working Visit on 29–30 August 2025 for the 15th Annual Summit, and the PIB release says cooperation builds on the MoC on the Japan–India Semiconductor Supply Chain Partnership.
Which Indian Navy ship arrived at Port Moresby on 30 August 2025 for Papua New Guinea's 50th Independence Day celebrations?
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Correct answer: A — INS Kadmatt
The indigenous ASW corvette INS Kadmatt arrived at Port Moresby on 30 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about INS Kadmatt's visit to Papua New Guinea in August 2025: 1. INS Kadmatt is an indigenous anti-submarine warfare corvette. 2. The visit marked Papua New Guinea's 75th Independence Day. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the ship joined Papua New Guinea's 50th Independence Day celebrations.
The 2025 BWF World Championships, where Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty won bronze, were held in:
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Correct answer: D — Paris
The 2025 BWF World Championships were held in Paris; the Indian pair lost the semi-final on 30 August.
Satwik–Chirag lost the men's doubles semi-final of the 2025 BWF World Championships to a pair from:
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Correct answer: A — China
They lost 19-21, 21-18, 12-21 to China's Chen Bo Yang and Liu Yi.
Consider the following statements about Satwik–Chirag's bronze at the 2025 BWF World Championships: 1. It was the pair's second World Championships medal, after bronze in Tokyo in 2022. 2. With it, India kept its streak of at least one medal at every World Championships since 2011. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as reported by Olympics.com and the New Indian Express.
PM Modi held a telephone conversation on 30 August 2025 with the President of which country, reaffirming India's position for peaceful settlement of the conflict?
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Correct answer: D — Ukraine
The Prime Minister spoke with Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskyy and reaffirmed India's position for peaceful settlement of the conflict.
Consider the following statements about the Modi–Zelenskyy call of 30 August 2025: 1. The leaders reviewed progress in the India–Ukraine bilateral partnership. 2. India announced it would mediate formal peace talks between Ukraine and Russia. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is not in the readout: the PM reaffirmed India's position for peaceful settlement and support for efforts to restore peace, and the leaders agreed to remain in touch.
According to NSO estimates released on 29 August 2025, India's real GDP growth in Q1 (April–June) of FY 2025-26 was:
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Correct answer: C — 7.8%
Real GDP grew 7.8% in Q1 FY 2025-26, against 6.5% in Q1 FY 2024-25; 8.8% was nominal GDP growth.
Which sector registered a contraction in real GVA in Q1 of FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — Mining & Quarrying
Mining & Quarrying contracted 3.1%; utilities grew only 0.5%, while agriculture grew 3.7% and construction 7.6%.
The Q1 FY 2025-26 GDP estimates were released by:
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Correct answer: D — National Statistics Office, MoSPI
The quarterly estimates were released by the National Statistics Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Consider the following statements about the Q1 FY 2025-26 GDP estimates: 1. The tertiary sector grew faster than manufacturing during the quarter. 2. Real private final consumption expenditure growth was higher than in Q1 of FY 2024-25. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: tertiary 9.3% vs manufacturing 7.7%. Statement 2 is wrong: real PFCE grew 7.0%, lower than 8.3% in Q1 FY 2024-25.
The Environment Audit Rules, 2025 were notified by the Union Environment Ministry on:
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Correct answer: D — 29 August 2025
MoEFCC notified the Environment Audit Rules, 2025 on 29 August 2025.
Under the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, which body certifies and registers environment auditors?
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Correct answer: C — Environment Audit Designated Agency
Auditors are certified and registered by the Environment Audit Designated Agency (EADA) notified by MoEFCC.
Under the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, an individual can become a Certified Environment Auditor through:
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Correct answer: B — Recognition of Prior Learning or the National Certification Examination
Certification is through Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) or the National Certification Examination (NCE).
Consider the following statements about the Environment Audit Rules, 2025: 1. Registered Environment Auditors will be assigned to project entities by a random assignment method. 2. The rules replace State Pollution Control Boards as the authority for monitoring environmental compliance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the rules aim to bridge manpower and infrastructure gaps of CPCB, the Ministry's regional offices and State PCBs; The Hindu describes auditors as supplementing the work of State PCBs.
At the 15th India–Japan Annual Summit (29 August 2025), what new target was set for private investment from Japan to India over the next decade?
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Correct answer: D — JPY 10 trillion
The Joint Vision sets a new target of JPY 10 trillion of private investment, building on the 2022–2026 target of JPY 5 trillion of public and private investment and financing.
The Action Plan for India–Japan Human Resource Exchange adopted in August 2025 aims at a two-way exchange of how many people in five years?
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Correct answer: D — 5,00,000
The plan targets two-way exchange of 500,000 people, including 50,000 skilled and semi-skilled personnel from India to Japan, in the next five years.
An Implementing Arrangement signed between ISRO and JAXA at the 15th Annual Summit concerns which mission?
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Correct answer: D — Chandrayaan-5 (joint lunar polar exploration)
The ISRO–JAXA Implementing Arrangement concerns the Joint Lunar Polar Exploration Mission, i.e. the Chandrayaan-5 mission.
Consider the following statements about the India–Japan Joint Declaration on Security Cooperation (August 2025): 1. It envisages enhanced maritime domain awareness through the Information Fusion Centre – Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR). 2. It provides for exploring a new meeting framework on comprehensive dialogue between the Joint Staffs of the two sides. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The Declaration lists cooperation through IFC-IOR and the Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness, and exploring a new Joint Staffs dialogue framework, among other measures.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of PM Modi's visit to Japan (29 August 2025): 1. A Memorandum of Cooperation on the Joint Crediting Mechanism was signed to diffuse decarbonising technologies. 2. The Joint Vision for the Next Decade lays out five lines of effort. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Joint Vision lays out eight lines of effort (economic partnership, economic security, mobility, ecological sustainability, technology and innovation, health, people-to-people and state-prefecture engagement).
At the 20th CII India–Africa Business Conclave (29 August 2025), Piyush Goyal said India and Africa must work to double bilateral trade by:
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Correct answer: B — 2030
The Minister said India and Africa must work to double bilateral trade by 2030.
Consider the following statements based on Piyush Goyal's address at the 20th CII India–Africa Business Conclave: 1. India's exports to Africa are about USD 42.7 billion. 2. India runs a trade deficit of more than USD 20 billion with Africa. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: trade is fairly balanced, with exports of USD 42.7 billion and imports of USD 40 billion.
Under which regulations did TRAI register the first eight Digital Connectivity Rating Agencies in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity Regulations, 2024
The DCRAs were registered under the Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity Regulations, 2024.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's Digital Connectivity Rating Agencies (DCRAs): 1. Their registration is valid for three years from 27 August 2025. 2. They will assign star ratings to properties for digital connectivity. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: registration is for five years from 27 August 2025. Statement 2 is correct.
The India–Japan Economic Forum attended by PM Modi and PM Ishiba in Tokyo on 29 August 2025 was organised by CII and:
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Correct answer: C — Keidanren
The Forum was organised by the Confederation of Indian Industry and Keidanren (Japan Business Federation).
At the India–Japan Economic Forum (29 August 2025), PM Modi said India contributes about what share of global growth?
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Correct answer: C — 18%
The Prime Minister stated that India was contributing around 18% to global growth.
As per TRAI data as on 31 July 2025, India's overall tele-density was about:
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Correct answer: C — 86.15%
Overall tele-density was 86.15%; urban was 134.07% and rural 59.19%.
According to UDISE+ 2024-25, which milestone was reached for the first time since UDISE+ began?
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Correct answer: B — Number of teachers crossed 1 crore
For the first time, the total number of teachers crossed 1 crore (1,01,22,420) in 2024-25.
As per UDISE+ 2024-25, the dropout rate at the Secondary stage was:
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Correct answer: C — 8.2%
The Secondary dropout rate fell from 10.9% in 2023-24 to 8.2% in 2024-25; 3.5% is the Middle-stage rate.
The Pupil-Teacher Ratio at the Secondary level reported in UDISE+ 2024-25 is:
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Correct answer: A — 21
PTRs are 10 (Foundational), 13 (Preparatory), 17 (Middle) and 21 (Secondary), all better than the NEP norm of 30:1.
Consider the following statements about UDISE+ 2024-25: 1. The number of teachers rose by about 6.7% compared with 2022-23. 2. The retention rate at the Secondary level is above 75%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Secondary-level retention rose from 45.6% to 47.2%.
The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, which completed 11 years in August 2025, was launched on:
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Correct answer: B — 28 August 2014
PMJDY was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 28 August 2014.
As per the Finance Ministry (August 2025), how many Jan Dhan accounts have been opened in 11 years?
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Correct answer: C — More than 56 crore
More than 56 crore Jan Dhan accounts have been opened, with deposits of ₹2.68 lakh crore.
What share of PMJDY accounts belong to women, according to the Finance Minister in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 56%
56% of PMJDY accounts are opened by women; 67% are in rural or semi-urban areas.
Consider the following statements about PMJDY as of August 2025: 1. More than 38 crore free RuPay cards have been issued to account holders. 2. Under a saturation campaign, camps are being held in each of the 2.7 lakh gram panchayats. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Finance Ministry release of 28 August 2025.
As per the Finance Ministry, how much was credited to bank accounts under various DBT schemes during FY 2024-25 through the JAM trinity?
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Correct answer: A — ₹6.9 lakh crore
₹6.9 lakh crore was credited under DBT schemes in FY 2024-25; ₹2.68 lakh crore is the total PMJDY deposit balance.
India signed an MoU on technical cooperation in agriculture and allied sectors in August 2025 with which country, in its capital Thimphu?
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Correct answer: D — Bhutan
The India–Bhutan MoU was signed in Thimphu, followed by the first Joint Technical Working Group meeting.
Consider the following statements about the India–Bhutan agriculture MoU (August 2025): 1. It was signed at the level of Agriculture Secretaries of the two countries. 2. A Joint Technical Working Group met for the first time after the signing. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Secretaries Devesh Chaturvedi and Thinley Namgyel signed it, and the first JTWG session followed.
The 7th meeting of the India–Saudi Arabia Joint Committee on Defence Cooperation was held on 28 August 2025 in:
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Correct answer: A — New Delhi
The 7th JCDC meeting took place in New Delhi on 28 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about India–Saudi Arabia defence ties (August 2025): 1. A Ministerial Committee on Defence Cooperation was added under the Strategic Partnership Council during the PM's visit to Saudi Arabia in April 2025. 2. At the 7th JCDC, Saudi Arabia offered to provide training to the Indian Armed Forces. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: it was India that offered to provide training to the Saudi Armed Forces.
As per MoSPI's quick estimate, India's Index of Industrial Production grew by how much in July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 3.5%
IIP grew 3.5% in July 2025; 5.4% was manufacturing growth and 1.5% was June's IIP growth.
Consider the following statements about the IIP release of 28 August 2025: 1. The mining sector contracted in July 2025. 2. Under the revised calendar, the IIP quick estimate is released on the 12th of every month. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: mining fell 7.2%. Statement 2 is wrong: the quick estimate is now released on the 28th of every month.
Under the draft amendments to the NDCT Rules, 2019 published on 28 August 2025, the statutory processing time for test licence applications is proposed to be reduced from 90 days to:
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Correct answer: D — 45 days
The draft reduces the overall statutory processing time for test licence applications from 90 days to 45 days.
In the context of drug regulation, 'BA/BE studies', addressed in the draft NDCT amendments of August 2025, stand for:
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Correct answer: B — Bioavailability / Bioequivalence studies
The draft amendments concern applications for Bioavailability/Bioequivalence (BA/BE) studies.
Consider the following statements about the draft amendments to the New Drugs and Clinical Trials Rules, 2019 (August 2025): 1. Test licences for all drugs, including high-risk categories, will be replaced by an intimation system. 2. The Ministry expects the number of licence applications to fall by about 50%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: a small category of high-risk drugs is excluded from the intimation system. Statement 2 is correct.
On 28 August 2025, the Centre extended the import duty exemption on cotton (HS 5201) till:
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Correct answer: C — 31 December 2025
The exemption, originally from 19 August to 30 September 2025, was extended till 31 December 2025.
The temporary import duty exemption on cotton, later extended in August 2025, had originally come into force on:
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Correct answer: D — 19 August 2025
The Centre had temporarily exempted cotton from import duty from 19 August 2025 till 30 September 2025.
By DGFT Notification No. 28 of 28 August 2025, the export obligation period under Advance Authorisation for products under QCOs of the Department of Chemicals & Petrochemicals was extended from 6 months to:
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Correct answer: D — 18 months
The export obligation period was enhanced from 6 months to 18 months, matching the extension already given for Textiles Ministry QCOs.
Under the restructuring approved on 27 August 2025, the lending period of the PM SVANidhi scheme has been extended till:
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Correct answer: C — 31 March 2030
The Cabinet extended the lending period of PM SVANidhi until 31 March 2030.
Under the restructured PM SVANidhi scheme (August 2025), the first-tranche loan amount has been raised to up to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹15,000
First-tranche loans rise to ₹15,000 from ₹10,000; second-tranche loans rise to ₹25,000 from ₹20,000.
What is the total outlay of the restructured PM SVANidhi scheme approved by the Cabinet in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹7,332 crore
The total outlay is ₹7,332 crore; ₹13,797 crore is the amount of loans already disbursed as of 30 July 2025.
Consider the following statements about the restructured PM SVANidhi scheme (August 2025): 1. A UPI-linked RuPay Credit Card will be provided to beneficiaries who have repaid the second loan. 2. The third-tranche loan has been raised from ₹50,000 to ₹75,000. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the third tranche remains unchanged at ₹50,000.
The additional US ad valorem duty on products of India imposed by Executive Order 14329, which took effect on 27 August 2025, is:
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Correct answer: B — 25%
EO 14329 imposed an additional ad valorem duty of 25 percent on imports of articles of India, effective 12:01 a.m. EDT on 27 August 2025.
According to the US Federal Register notice, the additional duty on Indian goods under Executive Order 14329 was imposed because India was:
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Correct answer: D — Directly or indirectly importing Russian Federation oil
The notice says the duty was imposed on articles of India, 'which is directly or indirectly importing Russian Federation oil'.
Consider the following statements about the US duty on Indian goods effective 27 August 2025: 1. Executive Order 14329 was issued under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA). 2. The new duty replaces the additional duty on Indian goods under the reciprocal-tariff order EO 14257. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the CBP notice says the duty applies in addition to the duty under EO 14257.
Under the CBP Federal Register notice on the additional duty on Indian goods, articles already loaded and in transit before 12:01 a.m. EDT on 27 August 2025 are exempt if entered for consumption before:
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Correct answer: C — 17 September 2025
Heading 9903.01.85 exempts such in-transit goods if entered (or withdrawn from warehouse) for consumption before 12:01 a.m. EDT on 17 September 2025.
Multilateral Exercise Bright Star, in which over 700 Indian personnel were set to participate from 28 August 2025, is hosted by:
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Correct answer: A — Egypt, in conjunction with the US
Exercise Bright Star is hosted by Egypt in conjunction with the US since 1980.
Exercise Bright Star, one of the largest tri-service multilateral exercises in its region, is held:
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Correct answer: B — Biennially
The exercise is held biennially; the previous edition took place in 2023.
According to the Annual Survey of Industries 2023-24, which state ranked first in terms of employment?
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Correct answer: A — Tamil Nadu
Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka are the top five states by employment, in that order.
As per ASI 2023-24 results released on 27 August 2025, Gross Value Added in the sector grew in current prices by:
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Correct answer: B — 11.89%
GVA grew 11.89% in current prices; output grew more than 5.80% and employment 5.92%.
Consider the following statements about the Annual Survey of Industries 2023-24: 1. Gujarat ranked first among states in terms of employment. 2. The sector added about 57 lakh jobs during 2014-15 to 2023-24. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: Tamil Nadu ranked first and Gujarat second. Statement 2 is correct.
According to Union Minister Jitendra Singh (August 2025), India's bioeconomy was valued at about how much in 2024?
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Correct answer: D — $165.7 billion
India's bioeconomy grew from $10 billion in 2014 to $165.7 billion in 2024; $300 billion is the 2030 target.
India's first Biomanufacturing Institute, cited as an achievement in the first year of the BioE3 Policy, was inaugurated at:
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Correct answer: A — Mohali
The Minister highlighted the inauguration of India's first Biomanufacturing Institute at Mohali.
According to the CMS: Education 2025 survey, government schools account for what share of total school enrolment in India?
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Correct answer: B — 55.9%
Government schools account for 55.9% of total enrolment (66.0% in rural areas); private unaided recognised schools account for 31.9%.
As per the CMS: Education 2025 survey, what proportion of students were taking or had taken private coaching during the current academic year?
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Correct answer: C — 27.0%
27.0% of all students were taking or had taken private coaching – 30.7% in urban and 25.5% in rural areas.
Consider the following statements about the CMS: Education 2025 survey: 1. Average household expenditure per student in government schools was ₹2,863. 2. Textbooks and stationery formed the largest component of household education expenditure per student. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: course fees (₹7,111) were the largest expense, followed by textbooks and stationery (₹2,002).
Under the revised wheat stock limits announced on 26 August 2025, the limit for traders/wholesalers has been reduced to:
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Correct answer: A — 2,000 MT
The limit for traders/wholesalers was cut from 3,000 MT to 2,000 MT, applicable until 31 March 2026.
Wheat stockists violating the revised stock limits (August 2025) face punitive action under which law?
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Correct answer: D — Essential Commodities Act, 1955
Violators are subject to punitive action under Sections 6 and 7 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
The two-day Vibrant Villages Programme workshop addressed by Amit Shah on 26 August 2025 was organised by:
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Correct answer: C — Border Management Division, MHA
The workshop was organised by the Border Management Division of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
At the VVP workshop (August 2025), Amit Shah said borders should be free from encroachment for at least what radius?
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Correct answer: B — 30 km
Amit Shah said borders should be free from encroachment for at least a 30 km radius.
What is the theme of Ayurveda Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Ayurveda for People & Planet
The 2025 theme announced by the Ministry of Ayush is 'Ayurveda for People & Planet'.
As recalled by the Ministry of Ayush in August 2025, which nationwide campaign was introduced by the Prime Minister on the 9th Ayurveda Day in 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Desh Ka Prakriti Parikshan Abhiyan
On the 9th Ayurveda Day (2024), the PM inaugurated Phase II of AIIA, New Delhi and introduced the nationwide 'Desh Ka Prakriti Parikshan Abhiyan'.
How many school teachers were selected by the Department of School Education & Literacy for the National Teachers' Awards 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 45
45 school teachers from 27 states, 7 UTs and 6 organisations were selected; 21 teachers were selected separately from HEIs and polytechnics.
Which Prime Minister of Fiji paid an Official Visit to India from 24 to 26 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Sitiveni Rabuka
Fiji's Prime Minister Sitiveni Rabuka paid an Official Visit to India from 24 to 26 August 2025, his first visit to India in his current capacity.
The India–Fiji Joint Statement issued on 25 August 2025 was titled 'Partnership in the spirit of ______'.
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Correct answer: A — Veilomani Dosti
The India–Fiji Joint Statement of 25 August 2025 was titled 'Partnership in the spirit of Veilomani Dosti'.
Consider the following statements about outcomes of Fiji PM Sitiveni Rabuka's visit to India (August 2025): 1. An MoU was signed for a 100-bedded Super Specialty Hospital in Suva, described as the largest project undertaken by India under its Grant-in-Aid Programme in the Pacific region. 2. Fiji joined the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The joint statement describes the 100-bedded Super Specialty Hospital in Suva as India's largest Grant-in-Aid project in the Pacific region, and the list of outcomes announces that Fiji joins the IPOI.
According to the India–Fiji Joint Statement (August 2025), the Girmitiyas — over 60,000 Indian indentured labourers — arrived in Fiji during which period?
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Correct answer: D — 1879 to 1916
The joint statement acknowledged the Girmitiyas, over 60,000 Indian indentured labourers who arrived in Fiji between 1879 and 1916.
With reference to India–Fiji relations as recalled in the August 2025 joint statement, consider the following statements: 1. President Droupadi Murmu's visit to Fiji in August 2024 was the first-ever visit by a President of India to Fiji. 2. The 12th World Hindi Conference was held in Suva in February 2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the joint statement calls President Droupadi Murmu's August 2024 visit the historic first-ever visit of an Indian President to Fiji. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 12th World Hindi Conference was held in Nadi, not Suva, in February 2023.