AFCAT Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
World Braille Day is observed every year on which date?
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Correct answer: D — 4 January
PIB backgrounder: World Braille Day is observed annually on 4 January.
In which year was Bharati Braille adopted as a single national Braille standard with common codes for Indian languages?
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Correct answer: C — 1951
PIB backgrounder: Braille was introduced in India in 1887, and in 1951 Bharati Braille was adopted as a single national standard.
Consider the following statements about Braille as described in PIB's World Braille Day 2026 backgrounder: 1. Braille is a tactile code, not a language. 2. It is named after its 19th-century French inventor, Louis Braille. 3. India's Braille policy ecosystem is anchored in the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB backgrounder: Braille is a code, not a language, named after Louis Braille of 19th-century France. The ecosystem is anchored in the RPwD Act, 2016, not a 1995 Act, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which team won the International League T20 (ILT20) 2025-26 title on 4 January 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Desert Vipers
ESPNcricinfo and BBC: Desert Vipers beat MI Emirates by 46 runs in the final in Dubai to win their first ILT20 title.
Who was named Player of the Tournament in ILT20 2025-26 after finishing as top run-scorer with 397 runs?
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Correct answer: B — Sam Curran
ESPNcricinfo and BBC: Sam Curran finished as the top run-scorer with 397 runs and was Player of the Tournament as well as Player of the Match in the final.
Between which two places will India's first Vande Bharat Sleeper train run, as announced during its inspection in January 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Guwahati – Howrah
PIB (Railways): the first Vande Bharat Sleeper will operate between Guwahati in Assam and Howrah in West Bengal.
Which indigenous automatic train protection system is fitted on the first Vande Bharat Sleeper train inspected in January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — KAVACH
PIB (Railways): the train is equipped with the KAVACH safety system, automatic doors, improved fire safety and CCTV in all coaches.
Consider the following statements about the first Vande Bharat Sleeper train, as described by the Railways Ministry on 3 January 2026: 1. Its full cycle of trials, testing and certification has been completed. 2. The train starting from Guwahati will serve Assamese cuisine. 3. It was flagged off by the Prime Minister on 3 January 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Railways): trials, testing and certification are complete, and the Guwahati-origin train will serve authentic Assamese cuisine. The PM was to flag it off later in January; on 3 January the train was only inspected, so statement 3 is wrong.
How many proposals were approved in the third tranche of the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS) on 2 January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 22
PIB (MeitY): 22 proposals were approved in the third tranche; 24 had been approved earlier, taking the total to 46.
What is the projected investment of the 22 ECMS proposals approved in January 2026?
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Correct answer: B — ₹41,863 crore
PIB (MeitY): projected investment is ₹41,863 crore; ₹2,58,152 crore is projected production and ₹12,704 crore was the earlier tranche.
Consider the following statements about the third tranche of ECMS approvals (January 2026): 1. The approved products include anode material, a critical item for lithium-ion cells. 2. The approved units are spread across eight states. 3. The approvals cover only bare components and no sub-assemblies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MeitY): anode material is among the supply-chain items, and the units are in eight states. Three sub-assemblies (camera module, display module, optical transceiver) were also approved, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the NIRYAT PROTSAHAN intervention launched in January 2026, what is the base interest subvention on pre- and post-shipment rupee export credit?
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Correct answer: A — 2.75%
PIB (Commerce): a base interest subvention of 2.75% is provided, with additional incentive for exports to notified under-represented or emerging markets.
With which institution is the collateral guarantee support for MSME export credit under the Export Promotion Mission being introduced?
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Correct answer: A — CGTMSE
PIB (Commerce): the collateral guarantee support is being introduced in partnership with the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE).
Consider the following statements about the Export Promotion Mission: 1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet on 12 November 2025 with an outlay of ₹25,060 crore. 2. Its two sub-schemes are NIRYAT PROTSAHAN and NIRYAT DISHA. 3. It is implemented by the Department of Commerce alone. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Commerce): the Mission was approved on 12 November 2025 with ₹25,060 crore and has two sub-schemes, NIRYAT PROTSAHAN and NIRYAT DISHA. It is jointly implemented by the Department of Commerce, Ministry of MSME and Ministry of Finance, so statement 3 is wrong.
According to the Cabinet Secretary's briefing on 2 January 2026, which was the single biggest cause of issues raised under PRAGATI?
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Correct answer: D — Land acquisition
Indian Express and The Hindu: land acquisition accounted for 35% of issues, forest/wildlife/environment 20% and right of use/way 18%.
What does the acronym PRAGATI, the project-review mechanism chaired by the Prime Minister, stand for?
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Correct answer: A — Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation
PIB (Cabinet Secretariat): PRAGATI stands for Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation, chaired by the Prime Minister.
Consider the following statements based on the Cabinet Secretary's PRAGATI briefing of 2 January 2026: 1. PRAGATI has reviewed over 3,300 projects worth more than ₹85 lakh crore. 2. Of 7,735 issues raised, 7,156 have been resolved. 3. The government announced plans to amend the land acquisition law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Indian Express and The Hindu: over 3,300 projects worth ₹85 lakh crore reviewed; 7,156 of 7,735 issues resolved. The Cabinet Secretary said there was no plan to change the land acquisition law, so statement 3 is wrong.
Indian Pharmacopoeia 2026, released on 2 January 2026, is which edition of India's official book of drug standards?
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Correct answer: D — 10th
PIB (Health): IP 2026 is the 10th edition of India's official book of drug standards.
Which new category of monographs has been included for the first time in Indian Pharmacopoeia 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Blood component monographs for transfusion medicine
PIB (Health): IP 2026 includes, for the first time, 20 blood component monographs pertaining to transfusion medicine.
Consider the following statements about the Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP): 1. IP is published by the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission to fulfil the requirements of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940. 2. IP is recognised in 19 countries of the Global South. 3. India ranked 8th in 2025 in contributions to the WHO pharmacovigilance database, up from 123rd in 2009–2014. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Health): IP is published by the IPC under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940; it is recognised in 19 Global South countries; and India rose from 123rd (2009–2014) to 8th (2025). All three are correct.
From which date has NHAI discontinued the Know Your Vehicle (KYV) process for new car FASTags?
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Correct answer: C — 1 February 2026
PIB (MoRTH): NHAI discontinued KYV for cars for all new FASTag issuances with effect from 1 February 2026.
Under NHAI's revised FASTag norms announced in January 2026, vehicle details must be validated against which database before activation?
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Correct answer: B — VAHAN
PIB (MoRTH): FASTag activation is permitted only after validation of vehicle details from the VAHAN database.
Who has been designated Chairperson of the NPS Trust Board by PFRDA, as announced in January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Dinesh Kumar Khara
PIB (Finance): Dinesh Kumar Khara, former Chairman of SBI, has been appointed a trustee and designated Chairperson of the NPS Trust Board.
Consider the following statements about the PFRDA reforms announced in January 2026: 1. Scheduled Commercial Banks may independently set up pension funds to manage NPS, under an in-principle framework. 2. The revised Investment Management Fee for pension funds applies from 1 April 2026. 3. Three new trustees were appointed to the NPS Trust Board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Finance): the board approved in principle a framework for banks to set up pension funds; the revised IMF applies from 1 April 2026; and three new trustees were appointed. All three are correct.
The #SkillTheNation Challenge launched by President Droupadi Murmu on 1 January 2026 is part of which initiative?
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Correct answer: A — SOAR (Skilling for AI Readiness)
PIB (President's Secretariat): the President launched the #SkilltheNation challenge under the SOAR (Skilling for AI Readiness) initiative of MSDE.
Where is the IGNOU Regional Centre and Skill Centre that President Murmu inaugurated virtually on 1 January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Rairangpur, Odisha
PIB (President's Secretariat): the President virtually inaugurated the IGNOU Regional Centre and Skill Centre at Rairangpur, Odisha.
Consider the following statements about the SOAR initiative: 1. It is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. 2. It was launched in July 2025. 3. Its courses are offered on the Skill India Digital Hub. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (MSDE): SOAR – Skilling for AI Readiness is MSDE's flagship programme launched in July 2025, and the President urged citizens to enrol in the SOAR course on the Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH). All three are correct.
According to DRDO on its 68th Foundation Day, what was the approximate value of Acceptances of Necessity accorded in 2025 for DRDO-developed systems?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1.30 lakh crore
PIB (MoD): 22 AoNs worth approximately ₹1.30 lakh crore were accorded in 2025, the highest in any single year; ₹26,000 crore was the value of 11 contracts signed.
'Anant Shastra', mentioned by DRDO in January 2026 among systems accorded AoN, is the name of which system?
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Correct answer: A — Quick Reaction Surface to Air Missile System
PIB (MoD): the AoNs include the Quick Reaction Surface to Air Missile System 'Anant Shastra'.
Who is the Chairman of DRDO and Secretary, Department of Defence R&D, who addressed DRDO staff on its 68th Foundation Day?
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Correct answer: A — Dr Samir V. Kamat
PIB (MoD): Secretary, Department of Defence R&D and Chairman DRDO Dr Samir V. Kamat addressed DRDO staff.
Who took charge as Vice Chief of the Air Staff, Indian Air Force, on 1 January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Air Marshal Nagesh Kapoor
PIB (MoD): Air Marshal Nagesh Kapoor took charge as Vice Chief of the Air Staff on 1 January 2026.
Which IAF command did Air Marshal Seethepalli Shrinivas take over as AOC-in-C on 1 January 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Training Command
PIB (MoD): Air Marshal Seethepalli Shrinivas took over as AOC-in-C, Training Command; Air Marshal Tejinder Singh took over South Western Air Command.
Consider the following statements about Air Marshal Nagesh Kapoor, who became Vice Chief of the Air Staff in January 2026: 1. He served as Defence Attaché to Pakistan. 2. Immediately before this, he was AOC-in-C, South Western Air Command. 3. He was commissioned in the transport stream of the IAF. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoD): Kapoor was Defence Attaché to Pakistan and served as AOC-in-C Training Command and thereafter South Western Air Command before becoming VCAS. He was commissioned in the fighter stream, so statement 3 is wrong.
BSNL's Voice over WiFi (VoWiFi) service, rolled out nationwide on 1 January 2026, is based on which network architecture?
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Correct answer: A — IMS (IP Multimedia Subsystem)
PIB (Communications): VoWiFi is an IMS-based service supporting seamless handovers between Wi-Fi and mobile networks, without third-party apps.
India's broadband subscriber base crossed which milestone in November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1 billion
PIB (Communications): the broadband subscriber base crossed the 1 billion (100 crore) mark in November 2025, reaching 100.37 crore.
By how much has India's broadband subscriber base grown between November 2015 and November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — More than six times
PIB (Communications): the base grew from 13.15 crore in November 2015 to 100.37 crore in November 2025 — more than six times.
Pralay, of which DRDO conducted a salvo launch on 31 December 2025, is best described as a:
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Correct answer: B — Solid-propellant quasi-ballistic missile
PIB (MoD): Pralay is an indigenously developed solid propellant quasi-ballistic missile capable of carrying multiple types of warheads.
Which DRDO laboratory led the development of the Pralay missile?
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Correct answer: A — Research Centre Imarat, Hyderabad
PIB (MoD): Pralay has been developed by Research Centre Imarat, Hyderabad, in collaboration with other DRDO laboratories such as DRDL, ASL and ARDE.
Consider the following statements about the Pralay salvo test of 31 December 2025: 1. Two missiles were launched in quick succession from the same launcher. 2. The test was part of user evaluation trials. 3. Tracking was done by the Integrated Test Range, Chandipur. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (MoD): two Pralay missiles were launched in quick succession from the same launcher as part of user evaluation trials, and their trajectories were confirmed by sensors of ITR Chandipur. All three are correct.
PRAGATI, whose 50th meeting PM Modi chaired on 31 December 2025, was built on the experience of which platform he launched as Gujarat Chief Minister?
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Correct answer: C — SWAGAT
PIB (PMO): the PM recalled that as Gujarat Chief Minister he launched the SWAGAT platform (State Wide Attention on Grievances by Application of Technology), which he later expanded nationally through PRAGATI.
In the 50th PRAGATI meeting on 31 December 2025, the PM reviewed five infrastructure projects with a cumulative cost of more than:
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Correct answer: A — ₹40,000 crore
PIB (PMO): the PM reviewed five critical infrastructure projects spanning five states with a cumulative cost of more than ₹40,000 crore.
Consider the following statements about the 50th PRAGATI meeting (31 December 2025): 1. The PM's mantra for the next phase was 'Reform to Simplify, Perform to Deliver, Transform to Impact'. 2. Around 94% of issues identified in projects reviewed under PRAGATI since 2014 have been resolved. 3. The PM asked states to set up PRAGATI-like mechanisms, especially for the social sector, at the Chief Secretary level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (PMO): the mantra was 'Reform to Simplify, Perform to Deliver, Transform to Impact'; 2,958 of 3,162 issues (about 94%) were resolved; and the PM encouraged states to institutionalise PRAGATI-like mechanisms for the social sector at Chief Secretary level. All three are correct.
From which date did select provisions of the National Sports Governance Act, 2025 come into force, as notified on 31 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1 January 2026
PIB (Sports): the Central Government appointed 1 January 2026 as the date for select provisions; the Act itself was notified in the Gazette on 18 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about the National Sports Governance Act, 2025: 1. It was notified in the Official Gazette on 18 August 2025. 2. Its section 1(2) allows different dates to be appointed for different provisions. 3. The provisions brought into force from 1 January 2026 include the constitution of the National Sports Board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Sports): the Act was gazetted on 18 August 2025; section 1(2) permits different dates for different provisions; and the provisions in force from 1 January 2026 include the constitution of the National Sports Board. All three are correct.
In his video-conference with MGNREGA functionaries on 30 December 2025 about the VB-G RAM G Act, Shivraj Singh Chouhan interacted with roughly how many functionaries?
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Correct answer: D — Over 2 lakh
PIB (Rural Development): more than 2 lakh MGNREGA functionaries joined from about 45,000 locations.
The Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) (VB-G RAM G) Act, 2025 replaces which law?
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Correct answer: B — Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
PIB (assent release, 21 December 2025): the Act replaces the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005.
Consider the following statements about the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. It guarantees not less than 125 days of wage employment per rural household in each financial year. 2. States may notify a pause period aggregating sixty days in a financial year to free labour for peak sowing and harvesting. 3. Its cost is shared 75:25 between the Centre and all States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (assent release): Section 5(1) guarantees at least 125 days and Section 6 allows a 60-day aggregate pause. Cost-sharing is 60:40, 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States and 100% central for UTs without legislatures, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, what is the Centre–State cost-sharing ratio for North Eastern and Himalayan States?
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Correct answer: C — 90:10
PIB (assent release): the cost-sharing pattern is 60:40 between Centre and States, 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States, and 100% central funding for UTs without legislatures.
Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SMFCL) began lending at its 51st Board Meeting on 30 December 2025 by sanctioning loans of about:
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Correct answer: C — ₹4,300 crore
PIB (Ports, Shipping and Waterways): SMFCL approved loan sanctions of about ₹4,300 crore at its 51st Board Meeting on 30 December 2025. ₹8,000 crore is its FY26 lending target and ₹25,000 crore its borrowing limit.
Consider the following statements about Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SMFCL): 1. SMFCL is India's first maritime-focused Non-Banking Financial Company. 2. SMFCL is targeting a loan book of ₹8,000 crore in 2025-26. 3. The largest share of its first tranche of sanctions went to Goa Shipyard. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: SMFCL is India's first maritime-focused NBFC and targets an ₹8,000 crore loan book in FY26. About ₹4,000 crore of the ₹4,300 crore went to a greenfield port project; Goa Shipyard got ₹110 crore, so statement 3 is wrong.
The 48 heavyweight torpedoes contracted on 30 December 2025 for the Indian Navy's Kalvari-class submarines will be supplied by a firm from which country?
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Correct answer: B — Italy
PIB (Defence): the torpedo contract was signed with WASS Submarine Systems S.R.L., Italy.
Consider the following statements about the defence contracts signed on 30 December 2025: 1. The Close Quarter Battle carbines are for the Indian Army and the Indian Air Force. 2. The heavyweight torpedoes are for the Kalvari-class (P-75) submarines. 3. Delivery of the torpedoes will begin from April 2028. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 2 and 3 only
PIB (Defence): the carbines are for the Indian Army and the Indian Navy, not the Air Force. The torpedoes are for the six Kalvari-class (P-75) submarines, with deliveries from April 2028 to early 2030.
Under PM-YUVA 3.0, whose results were declared on 30 December 2025, each selected young author receives a monthly scholarship of:
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Correct answer: A — ₹50,000
PIB (Education): each selected author gets a scholarship of ₹50,000 per month during six months of mentorship, plus a 10% lifetime royalty.
Consider the following statements about PM-YUVA 3.0: 1. It selected book proposals from authors below 30 years of age. 2. It is implemented by the Sahitya Akademi under the Ministry of Culture. 3. Selected authors get a lifetime royalty of 10% on their published books. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Education): authors are below 30 and receive a 10% lifetime royalty. The scheme is implemented by the National Book Trust, India under the Ministry of Education, not the Sahitya Akademi.
What is 'Jal Seva Aankalan', launched by the Ministry of Jal Shakti on 30 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — A Gram Panchayat-led digital self-assessment of drinking water service functionality in Har Ghar Jal villages
PIB (Jal Shakti): Jal Seva Aankalan is a Gram Panchayat-led digital drinking water service functionality assessment tool on the JJM portal for Har Ghar Jal villages.
Jal Seva Aankalan was launched on the portal of which mission?
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Correct answer: C — Jal Jeevan Mission
PIB: the tool was e-launched on the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) portal by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
Arjun Erigaisi settled for bronze at the FIDE World Blitz Championship 2025 in Doha after losing the semifinal to:
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Correct answer: A — Nodirbek Abdusattorov
The Hindu and Sportstar: Erigaisi lost the semifinal 2.5–0.5 to Uzbekistan's Nodirbek Abdusattorov. Carlsen beat Caruana in the other semifinal and won the title.
Consider the following statements about Arjun Erigaisi at the FIDE World Rapid and Blitz Championships 2025 in Doha: 1. Erigaisi topped the Open Swiss stage of the World Blitz Championship. 2. Erigaisi also won bronze at the World Rapid Championship the same week. 3. Erigaisi is the first Indian ever to win medals at both the world rapid and blitz championships. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Sportstar and ESPN: Erigaisi topped the Swiss stage and also won rapid bronze. Viswanathan Anand did the rapid–blitz double in 2017, so Erigaisi is the first since Anand, not the first ever.
NFAP-2025, effective 30 December 2025, identifies which frequency band for International Mobile Telecommunications (IMT) to expand mid-band spectrum for 5G and 6G?
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Correct answer: D — 6425–7125 MHz
PIB (DoT): NFAP-2025 identifies the 6425–7125 MHz band for IMT, significantly enhancing mid-band availability for 5G, 5G Advanced and future 6G.
The National Frequency Allocation Plan 2025, which governs radio-frequency spectrum allocation in India, was released by:
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Correct answer: A — Department of Telecommunications
PIB: NFAP-2025 was released by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Ministry of Communications.
What is the motto of the National Cadet Corps, recalled at the start of the Republic Day Camp 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Unity and Discipline
PIB (Defence): the Republic Day Camp upholds the NCC motto 'Unity and Discipline'.
How many cadets are taking part in the NCC Republic Day Camp 2026, the highest so far?
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Correct answer: B — 2,406
PIB: 2,406 cadets including 898 girl cadets from 28 states and 8 UTs are participating, the highest to date.
In its maiden flight test on 29 December 2025, the Pinaka Long Range Guided Rocket was tested for its maximum range of:
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Correct answer: D — 120 km
PIB (Defence): LRGR 120 was tested for its maximum range of 120 km at ITR Chandipur, demonstrating all planned in-flight manoeuvres.
Consider the following statements about the Pinaka LRGR 120 test of 29 December 2025: 1. The rocket was designed by ARDE in association with HEMRL. 2. A new dedicated launcher had to be developed to fire the rocket. 3. The test was carried out at the Integrated Test Range, Chandipur. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Defence): ARDE designed the rocket with HEMRL and the test was at ITR Chandipur. It was fired from the in-service Pinaka launcher, not a new one, so statement 2 is wrong.
The National Technology Readiness Assessment Framework (NTRAF), unveiled on 29 December 2025, assesses projects across how many Technology Readiness Levels?
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Correct answer: B — 9
PIB (Office of PSA): NTRAF assesses projects across 9 TRLs, from proof of concept (TRL 1-3) to prototype (TRL 4-6) and operational deployment (TRL 7-9).
The Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser developed NTRAF in collaboration with which industry body?
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Correct answer: D — Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
PIB (Office of PSA): NTRAF was developed in collaboration with the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).
According to the quick estimate released on 29 December 2025, India's Index of Industrial Production grew by how much in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 6.7%
PIB (MoSPI): IIP grew 6.7% in November 2025. 0.4% was October's growth, 8.0% manufacturing and 5.4% mining.
Which IIP sector recorded a contraction in November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Electricity
PIB (MoSPI): growth rates for November 2025 were Mining 5.4%, Manufacturing 8.0% and Electricity (−)1.5%.
Consider the following statements about the Index of Industrial Production (IIP): 1. The current IIP series uses 2011-12 as its base year. 2. The quick estimate of IIP is released on the 28th of every month, or the next working day if the 28th is a holiday. 3. In November 2025, electricity was the fastest-growing IIP sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoSPI): the IIP base is 2011-12=100 and quick estimates come out on the 28th of every month (or the next working day). In November 2025 electricity contracted 1.5% while manufacturing grew fastest at 8.0%.
The Defence Acquisition Council meeting of 29 December 2025 accorded Acceptance of Necessity to proposals worth about:
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Correct answer: B — ₹79,000 crore
PIB (Defence): the DAC chaired by Rajnath Singh accorded AoN for proposals of the three Services amounting to about ₹79,000 crore.
For which Service did the DAC approve the leasing of High Altitude Long Range (HALE) Remotely Piloted Aircraft Systems on 29 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Indian Navy
PIB (Defence): AoN was accorded to the Indian Navy for leasing HALE RPAS to ensure continuous ISR and maritime domain awareness over the Indian Ocean Region.
The India AI Impact Summit 2026 is anchored in which three guiding 'Sutras'?
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Correct answer: A — People, Planet and Progress
PIB (MeitY): the Summit is anchored in three guiding Sutras: People, Planet and Progress.
The three Sutras of the India AI Impact Summit 2026 are operationalised through how many thematic 'Chakras' (working groups)?
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Correct answer: B — Seven
PIB (MeitY): the Sutras are operationalised through seven thematic Chakras, or working groups.