Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — Last 3 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
According to the MHA in August 2026, how many fugitive criminals were brought back to India between 2019 and 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 274
274 fugitives were brought back from 36 countries; 401 is the number of Red Corner Notices in the last three years.
BHARATPOL connects more than 1,400 Indian agencies with which organisation?
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Correct answer: D — INTERPOL
BHARATPOL connects more than 1,400 agencies with INTERPOL, reducing information-sharing time to 3–10 days.
How much did the Union Government release to states as an additional tax devolution instalment on 1 August 2026?
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Correct answer: C — ₹1,09,019 crore
The Centre released ₹1,09,019 crore as an additional instalment, besides the normal monthly devolution due on 10 August.
Which state received the largest share of the additional tax devolution instalment released on 1 August 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh received ₹19,208 crore, the largest share, followed by Bihar (₹10,845 crore).
Consider the following statements about the tax devolution released on 1 August 2026: 1. It was in addition to the normal monthly devolution due on 10 August 2026. 2. Bihar received the highest amount among all states. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Uttar Pradesh received the highest amount (₹19,208 crore).
How much did the Centre approve on 1 August 2026 as advance release from the Central share of SDRF to flood-affected states?
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Correct answer: C — ₹2,117.85 crore
Amit Shah approved an advance release of ₹2,117.85 crore from the Central share of SDRF.
To which states had Inter-Ministerial Central Teams (IMCTs) already been deputed to assess flood damage, as of 1 August 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Arunachal Pradesh and Assam
IMCTs had been deputed to Arunachal Pradesh and Assam; one was being constituted for Nagaland.
Consider the following statements about the SDRF advance approved on 1 August 2026: 1. Gujarat was approved ₹500 crore as advance release of the first instalment. 2. Assam was sanctioned ₹379.35 crore as advance release of the first instalment. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the MHA release.
Who was the topper of the 2024 batch of Indian Forest Service probationers at IGNFA, Dehradun, whose convocation was held on 1 August 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Pratiksha Nanasaheb Kale
Pratiksha Nanasaheb Kale of the Rajasthan cadre emerged as the batch topper.
Under CAQM's Direction No. 98, as amended in July 2026, from which date will the revised PM emission standard for Delhi-NCR industries apply?
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Correct answer: D — 1 October 2026
The amendment issued on 31 July 2026 makes the revised PM emission standard effective from 1 October 2026.
What uniform particulate matter emission limit does CAQM's Direction No. 98 prescribe for identified categories of industries in Delhi-NCR?
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Correct answer: C — 50 mg/Nm³
Direction No. 98, notified on 20 February 2026, prescribes a uniform PM emission standard of 50 mg/Nm³, based on CPCB recommendations and IIT Kanpur studies.
In July 2026 the NHRC took suo motu cognizance of reported malaria deaths in which district of Chhattisgarh?
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Correct answer: B — Kanker
The NHRC took cognizance of five malaria deaths in 13 days in Kanker district, Chhattisgarh.
On 30 July 2026 the Rajya Sabha passed an amendment to which law, completing its passage through Parliament?
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Correct answer: B — Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024
The Rajya Sabha passed the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, as passed by the Lok Sabha.
Under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, what is the jail term for individual offenders?
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Correct answer: D — 5 to 10 years
The Bill raises the jail term for individual offenders from 3–5 years to 5–10 years, with a fine of up to Rs 50 lakh.
Consider the following statements about the Public Examinations Amendment Bill, 2026: 1. Investigation of an exam fraud case must be completed within two months. 2. Special Fast Track Courts must complete the trial within 3 months of the chargesheet. 3. It was passed by the Rajya Sabha by division vote. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
The Bill sets a two-month deadline for investigation and a 3-month deadline for trial by Special Fast Track Courts; the Rajya Sabha passed it by voice vote, not a division.
Under the 2026 amendment, organised exam-fraud syndicates face a minimum fine of how much?
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Correct answer: C — Rs 10 crore
For organised crime (Section 11), the jail term becomes 7–10 years with a fine of at least Rs 10 crore (earlier at least Rs 1 crore).
In July 2026 the Union Jal Shakti Minister met the Chief Ministers of which two states to facilitate settlement of the Mahanadi water dispute?
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Correct answer: B — Chhattisgarh and Odisha
C. R. Paatil chaired a meeting with the CMs of Chhattisgarh (Vishnu Deo Sai) and Odisha (Mohan Charan Majhi).
The Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal was constituted in which year under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956?
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Correct answer: C — 2018
The Government of India constituted the Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal on 12 March 2018 at Odisha's request.
SAMPATH, approved by the Kerala Cabinet in July 2026, is a platform for what purpose?
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Correct answer: D — A registry of all government-owned assets
SAMPATH (Special Asset Management Platform for Administration, Tracking and Harmonisation) will maintain records of all government assets – land, buildings, roads, bridges, dams, vehicles and machinery.
PlanSpace 2.0, approved by the Kerala Cabinet on 29 July 2026, is:
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Correct answer: B — A geotagged GIS-based register of government capital projects
PlanSpace 2.0 expands the existing PlanSpace portal into a GIS-based, geotagged register of all capital projects approved by government departments.
DAANVEER, launched in July 2026, enables citizens to voluntarily contribute computers to Gram Panchayats through which app?
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Correct answer: D — Meri Panchayat App
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj's DAANVEER lets citizens contribute computers and other identified needs of Gram Panchayats through the Meri Panchayat App.
In the 'Model OSR Rules' for Panchayats released in July 2026, what does OSR stand for?
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Correct answer: C — Own Source of Revenue
OSR stands for Own Source of Revenue; the Model OSR Rules give States a framework to strengthen Panchayat revenues.
The SAMARTH Panchayat Portal launched on 27 July 2026 is mainly meant to:
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Correct answer: B — Strengthen efficiency in Panchayat revenue collection
The SAMARTH Panchayat Portal is meant to strengthen efficiency in Panchayat revenue collection.
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj received the Gold Award under the National Awards for e-Governance (NAeG) 2026 for which initiative?
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Correct answer: D — Panchayat Advancement Index
The Gold Award under NAeG 2026 was for the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) – Data Driven Governance for Viksit Bharat.
'Chongpreng', a three-stringed bamboo musical instrument mentioned in Mann Ki Baat on 26 July 2026, belongs to which State?
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Correct answer: C — Tripura
The PM described Chongpreng as an instrument from Tripura, popular among its tribal communities, whose tune resembles the sarod.
The traditional 'Vagu' mat, whose revival was praised in the 136th Mann Ki Baat, is made from what and belongs to which region?
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Correct answer: A — Reeds and paddy straw – Kashmir
Vagu is Kashmir's traditional mat crafted from reeds and paddy straw; it keeps cool in summer and warm in winter.
According to the PM's Mann Ki Baat of 26 July 2026, Khadi sales have grown how much over the last 12 years?
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Correct answer: B — Six-fold, to nearly ₹8,000 crore
The PM said Khadi sales have increased six-fold over the last 12 years and reached nearly ₹8,000 crore.
'Aksharakanduk', mentioned in the 136th episode of Mann Ki Baat, is:
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Correct answer: D — A school project in Ernakulam, Kerala that teaches Sanskrit letters through football terms
Aksharakanduk is a project of a school Sanskrit club in South Chittoor, Ernakulam, Kerala, where a teacher explains Sanskrit letters by linking them to football terms.
Who heads the high-powered task force on examination reforms announced by the Prime Minister on 26 July 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Nandan Nilekani
The task force is led by Nandan Nilekani. S. Somanath and V. Kamakoti are members.
The Nilekani-led task force constituted in July 2026 is to recommend reforms mainly for examinations conducted by which body?
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Correct answer: B — National Testing Agency
The task force will recommend technology-driven and structural reforms for examinations conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA).
Which of the following is a former Director of the Intelligence Bureau named as a member of the examination-reforms task force in July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Tapan Deka
Tapan Deka is the former IB director on the panel. Anita Karwal is a former education secretary and Amrit Lal Meena a logistics expert and former civil servant.
Consider the following statements about the examination-reforms task force announced on 26 July 2026: 1. It has six members. 2. Former ISRO chairman S. Somanath is a member. 3. The Director of IIT Madras is a member. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: the six members are Nandan Nilekani (chair), S. Somanath, Tapan Deka, V. Kamakoti (Director, IIT Madras), Anita Karwal and Amrit Lal Meena.
Who took charge of the Union Ministry of Education on 26 July 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Pralhad Joshi
Pralhad Joshi took charge of the Ministry of Education at Kartavya Bhavan. Jayant Chaudhary is the Minister of State for Education.
Besides Education, which of the following Ministries does Pralhad Joshi also hold, as stated when he took charge in July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — New and Renewable Energy
He also holds Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, and New and Renewable Energy.
Pralhad Joshi took over the Education Ministry after the resignation of which minister on 25 July 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Dharmendra Pradhan
Dharmendra Pradhan resigned as Education Minister on 25 July 2026.
'Prarambh', which concluded on 26 July 2026, was:
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Correct answer: B — A two-day orientation workshop for newly elected and nominated Rajya Sabha members
Prarambh was a two-day orientation workshop for new Rajya Sabha members; Deputy Chairman Harivansh gave the valedictory address.
Which Union Minister resigned from the Council of Ministers on 25 July 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Dharmendra Pradhan
The President accepted Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan's resignation; Pralhad Joshi was given additional charge of Education.
Under which constitutional provision did the President accept a Union Minister's resignation on 25 July 2026, on the Prime Minister's advice?
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Correct answer: A — Article 75(2)
The communique cited clause (2) of Article 75, under which Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. Article 164 deals with State ministers.
Consider the following statements about the events of 25 July 2026: 1. Pralhad Joshi was given the Education Ministry in addition to his existing portfolio. 2. The Cockroach Janta Party called off its agitation after the government accepted its demands. 3. The agitation was mainly over the NEET paper leak and exam irregularities. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct, as per the President's Secretariat communique and media reports of 25 July 2026.
As of 30 April 2026, how many Fast Track Special Courts (including exclusive POCSO courts) were functional in India?
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Correct answer: A — 775
775 FTSCs, including 398 exclusive POCSO courts, were functional in 29 States/UTs. 790 was the target under the last extension.
The Centrally Sponsored Scheme for Fast Track Special Courts has been temporarily extended up to which date?
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Correct answer: C — 30 September 2026
After the last extension expired on 31 March 2026, the scheme was temporarily extended up to 30 September 2026.
What is the approved outlay of the DISHA 2.0 scheme for 2026-31?
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Correct answer: B — ₹255 crore
DISHA 2.0 is a Central Sector Scheme with an approved outlay of ₹255 crore for 2026-31.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four components of DISHA 2.0?
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Correct answer: D — e-Courts Phase III
The four components are Tele-Law, Nyaya Bandhu, Legal Literacy and Legal Awareness, and VIDHI-Sanjeevani. e-Courts Phase III is a separate scheme.
Under the TV Rating Policy 2026, the number of metered homes for audience measurement is to be expanded to:
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Correct answer: D — 80,000
Metered homes are to be increased from 50,000 to 80,000.
The TV Rating Policy 2026 reduced the net-worth requirement for TV rating agencies from ₹20 crore to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹5 crore
The net-worth criterion was reduced from ₹20 crore to ₹5 crore.
Consider the following statements about the TV Rating Policy 2026: 1. It replaces the Guidelines for TV Rating Agencies issued in January 2014. 2. It provides for establishment surveys every three years. 3. It excludes the landing page from computation of viewership data. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct per the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting.
On 23 July 2026, the Prime Minister announced that the government would set up which of the following for paper leak cases?
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Correct answer: C — Fast-track courts
PM Modi announced fast-track courts to ensure swift and stringent punishment for those involved in paper leaks.
What was the stated purpose of the fast-track courts announced by the Prime Minister on 23 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — To ensure swift and stringent punishment for those involved in paper leaks
The courts are meant to ensure swift and stringent punishment for those involved in paper leaks.
Who presided over the 8th Meeting of BRICS Heads of Prosecution Services hosted by India in July 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Attorney General for India R. Venkataramani
The meeting was presided over by the Attorney General for India, R. Venkataramani.
Which edition of the Meeting of BRICS Heads of Prosecution Services did India host virtually on 20–21 July 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 8th
India hosted the 8th Meeting of BRICS Heads of Prosecution Services.
On which date did the Monsoon Session 2026 of Parliament begin?
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Correct answer: C — 20 July 2026
The Monsoon Session began on 20 July 2026, when PM Modi addressed the media at Parliament.
How many newly elected or re-elected members took oath in the Rajya Sabha on 20 July 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Nine
Nine members took oath: five in Hindi, two in English and two in Bengali.
Who administered the oath to the new Rajya Sabha members on 20 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Rajya Sabha Chairman C. P. Radhakrishnan
Rajya Sabha Chairman C. P. Radhakrishnan administered the oath/affirmation in the Rajya Sabha Chamber.
NAKSHA, the GIS-based urban land-parcel mapping initiative, is executed under which programme?
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Correct answer: D — Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP)
NAKSHA (National Geospatial Knowledge-based Land Survey of Urban Habitations) is executed under DILRMP.
Against how many restaurants did the CCPA initiate suo motu action in July 2026 for levying service charge by default?
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Correct answer: B — 41
CCPA initiated suo motu action against 41 restaurants based on National Consumer Helpline complaints.
Under which section of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 did the CCPA find the default levy of service charge to be an unfair trade practice?
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Correct answer: D — Section 2(47)
CCPA held that the practice amounts to an unfair trade practice under Section 2(47) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
Who chaired the all-party meeting held on 19 July 2026 ahead of the Monsoon Session?
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Correct answer: D — Rajnath Singh
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh chaired the meeting; it was called by Parliamentary Affairs Minister Kiren Rijiju.
How many sittings were planned for the Monsoon Session 2026 of Parliament?
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Correct answer: C — 19
The session was to provide 19 sittings over 25 days, from 20 July to 13 August 2026.
How many leaders and parties attended the all-party meeting of 19 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 58 leaders from 40 parties
The meeting was attended by 58 leaders from 40 political parties, including Ministers.
How many downloads had the Aadhaar App crossed, as announced by UIDAI on 18 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 40 million
The Aadhaar App crossed 40 million (4 crore) downloads.
Until when has the email update feature (earlier priced at ₹75) been made free on the Aadhaar App?
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Correct answer: D — 31 December 2026
The email update feature, earlier priced at ₹75, is free on the Aadhaar App till 31 December 2026.
Which body hosted the Draft Advocates (Amendment) Bill, 2026 on its website on 18 July 2026 for public consultation?
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Correct answer: B — Bar Council of India
The Bar Council of India hosted the draft Bill on its official website on 18 July 2026.
What was the last date for submitting comments on the Draft Advocates (Amendment) Bill, 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 31 July 2026
Comments were invited on or before 31 July 2026 (3:00 PM).
In which two States did self-enumeration under Phase I of Census 2027 begin on 17 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Tamil Nadu and Tripura
Self-enumeration began in Tamil Nadu and Tripura; houselisting field work was underway in Kerala and Nagaland.
By 17 July 2026, in how many States/UTs had the first phase (Houselisting and Housing Census) of Census 2027 been completed?
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Correct answer: A — 29
The release states that the first phase of Census 2027 has been completed in 29 States/UTs.
Consider the following statements about Census 2027 operations in Tamil Nadu and Tripura: 1. Self-enumeration is open till 31 July 2026. 2. House-to-house field enumeration will follow from 1 to 30 August 2026. 3. Information is collected under the Census Act, 1948. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct as per the Ministry of Home Affairs release.
What penalty did the CCPA impose on SpiceJet for dark patterns on its flight booking platform (announced 17 July 2026)?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1 lakh
CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹1,00,000 on SpiceJet Limited.
Automatic enrolment of consumers into SpiceJet's loyalty programme through a pre-ticked checkbox was flagged by CCPA as which dark pattern?
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Correct answer: C — Forced Action
CCPA classified the pre-ticked automatic enrolment into the SpiceClub Loyalty Programme as 'Forced Action'.
The commencement of which two laws was notified by the Government of India, as announced on 17 July 2026, to strengthen the anti-doping framework?
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Correct answer: D — National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 and National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Act, 2025
The Government notified the commencement of the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 and the National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Act, 2025.
India's anti-doping Acts fulfil India's obligations under which international convention?
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Correct answer: B — UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport
The Acts fulfil India's obligations under the UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport and align with the World Anti-Doping Code.