Polity & Governance Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
After commissioning of EVMs for the April 2026 polls, a mock poll of how many votes is held in 5% of randomly selected EVMs?
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Correct answer: C — 1,000
ECI said commissioning is followed by a mock poll of 1,000 votes in 5% of EVMs randomly selected by candidates.
Consider the following statements about EVM allocation for the 2026 Assembly polls, as described by ECI: 1. EVMs are allotted to polling stations through a two-stage randomisation using the EVM Management System. 2. Tamil Nadu has more polling stations voting on 23 April than West Bengal Phase I. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: two-stage randomisation is done through EMS, and Tamil Nadu has 75,064 polling stations against 44,378 in West Bengal Phase I.
Who administered the oath of office to Samrat Choudhary as Chief Minister of Bihar on 15 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Governor Syed Ata Hasnain
The Hindu and Business Standard report that Governor Syed Ata Hasnain administered the oath at Lok Bhawan, Patna.
Consider the following statements about the change of government in Bihar in April 2026: 1. Samrat Choudhary is the first BJP leader to become Chief Minister of Bihar. 2. Vijay Kumar Choudhary and Bijendra Prasad Yadav, who took oath alongside him, are BJP leaders. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct per The Hindu and Business Standard. Statement 2 is wrong: both are JD(U) leaders.
Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister?
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Correct answer: B — Article 164
Article 164(1) provides for the appointment of the Chief Minister by the Governor and of other Ministers on the CM's advice. Article 163 deals with the Council of Ministers aiding and advising the Governor; Article 167 with the CM's duties to furnish information; Article 356 with failure of constitutional machinery.
Consider the following statements about Census 2027: 1. Data collected under the Census Act, 1948 remains confidential and is used only for statistical purposes and development planning. 2. The Self-Enumeration window before field operations lasts 30 days. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct per MHA. Statement 2 is wrong: the Self-Enumeration period is 15 days; the 30-day period is for house-to-house field operations.
Under which law is data collected in Census 2027 kept confidential?
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Correct answer: B — Census Act, 1948
MHA states that all data collected under the Census Act, 1948 remains strictly confidential.
Houselisting field operations of Census 2027 began on 16 April 2026 in a set of States/UTs. Which of the following was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: D — Bihar
The first group was A&N Islands, Goa, Karnataka, Lakshadweep, Mizoram, Odisha and Sikkim, plus NDMC and Delhi Cantonment. In Bihar, only the Self-Enumeration window was to start, on 17 April.
As per ECI instructions, distribution of Voter Information Slips must be completed at least how many days before polling day?
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Correct answer: C — 5 days
ECI says the process is to be completed at least 5 days before the day of poll.
Consider the following statements about Voter Information Slips (VIS) for the 2026 Assembly elections: 1. Voters with visual impairment receive Braille-enabled Accessible Voter Information Slips in addition to the regular VIS. 2. VIS may be printed in any language a voter requests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: ECI has instructed that VIS be only in the languages in which the electoral roll is published for that constituency.
How many candidates are in the fray for the 2026 West Bengal Assembly election after withdrawals, as per ECI?
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Correct answer: A — 2,926
ECI gives 2,926 in total: 1,478 in Phase I and 1,448 in Phase II.
On which date does Phase II of the 2026 West Bengal Assembly election go to the polls?
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Correct answer: B — 29 April 2026
ECI states that Phase II goes to the polls on 29 April 2026; 13 April was the last date of withdrawal.
Consider the following statements about the 2026 West Bengal Assembly election: 1. Phase I covers more assembly constituencies than Phase II. 2. Phase II has more contesting candidates than Phase I. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: 152 constituencies in Phase I against 142 in Phase II. Statement 2 is wrong: Phase II has 1,448 candidates and Phase I has 1,478.
SĀDHANA Saptah 2026, which recorded over 3.18 crore course completions, was conducted under which initiative?
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Correct answer: C — Mission Karmayogi
SĀDHANA Saptah 2026 was the National Learning Week under Mission Karmayogi, on the iGOT Karmayogi platform.
Consider the following statements about SĀDHANA Saptah 2026: 1. Frontline workers accounted for nearly 47% of the total course completions. 2. Central Ministries accounted for nearly 80% of total learning engagement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: States and UTs, not Central Ministries, contributed nearly 80% of total learning engagement.
How many employees took at least one AI-related course during SĀDHANA Saptah 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 36.61 lakh
36.61 lakh employees took at least one AI-related course; 46.9 lakh completed at least one course of any kind.
The updated Constitution of India in Sindhi, released on 10 April 2026, was brought out in which two scripts?
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Correct answer: B — Devanagari and Persian
It was released in Devanagari script (first edition) and Persian script (second edition).
Which department prepared the updated Constitution of India in Sindhi released in April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Legislative Department
The Legislative Department, Ministry of Law and Justice, brought out the updated version.
Sindhi was added to the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India by which amendment?
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Correct answer: D — 21st Amendment Act, 1967
Sindhi was added to the Eighth Schedule by the Constitution (Twenty-first Amendment) Act, 1967.
According to ECI's final statistical report, what was Puducherry's state polling percentage in the Assembly election held on 9 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 91.19%
ECI's Highlight report for Puducherry 2026 gives a state polling percentage of 91.19% (EVM + postal). 86.33% was Assam's figure, 79.53% Kerala's, and 86.19% Puducherry's earlier record (2011).
Consider the following statements about the 2026 Assembly elections held on 9 April: 1. Assam's final state polling percentage of 86.33% was higher than its previous highest of 84.67%, recorded in 2016. 2. In Kerala, the polling percentage of male electors was higher than that of female electors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: ECI's final report gives Assam 86.33%, and ECI had noted the previous high of 84.67% (2016). Statement 2 is wrong: in Kerala women polled 81.17% against 74.9% for men (excluding postal ballots).
How many Assembly constituencies in total went to the polls in Assam, Kerala and Puducherry on 9 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 296
ECI said 296 ACs in Assam (126), Kerala (140) and Puducherry (30) went to the polls on 9 April 2026.
Which of the following was ensured for the first time in the Assam, Kerala and Puducherry Assembly polls of 9 April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Live webcasting from 100% of polling stations
ECI said live webcasting was ensured in 100% of polling stations for the first time in Assam, Kerala and Puducherry.
Article 330A of the Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats for women in which body?
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Correct answer: C — House of the People
Article 330A is titled 'Reservation of seats for women in the House of the People'. Article 332A covers State Legislative Assemblies.
Consider the following statements about reservation for women in legislatures: 1. As nearly as may be, one-third of the seats to be filled by direct election to the House of the People are to be reserved for women. 2. Under Article 334A, the reservation takes effect immediately on the commencement of the amending Act, without any delimitation exercise. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 reflects Article 330A(3). Statement 2 is wrong: Article 334A says the provisions come into effect after a delimitation exercise based on the first census taken after the 106th Amendment Act, 2023.
Article 334A links the start of women's reservation to the first census taken after the commencement of which Constitution Amendment Act?
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Correct answer: A — One Hundred and Sixth Amendment Act, 2023
Article 334A refers to the first census taken after the commencement of the Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023.
Parth Ajit Pawar, who took oath as a Rajya Sabha member on 9 April 2026, represents which State?
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Correct answer: B — Maharashtra
The Rajya Sabha Secretariat said the newly elected member Parth Ajit Pawar represents Maharashtra.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by the members of the Council of States from among themselves. 2. Parth Ajit Pawar took his Rajya Sabha oath in Marathi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong. Under Article 89(1) the Vice-President is the ex officio Chairman of the Council of States (it is the Deputy Chairman whom the Council chooses), and Pawar took the oath in English.
Who was present at Parth Ajit Pawar's oath on 9 April 2026 in his capacity as Leader of the House in the Rajya Sabha?
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Correct answer: B — J. P. Nadda
The Rajya Sabha Secretariat named Jagat Prakash Nadda as Leader of the House, Rajya Sabha, among those present.
How many Digital Life Certificates (DLCs) were generated between 1 April 2025 and 31 March 2026, as reported for DLC Campaign 4.0?
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Correct answer: D — Over 1.91 crore
DoPPW said over 1.91 crore DLCs were generated in this period; 1.16 crore is the number made using face authentication.
Consider the following statements about Digital Life Certificate Campaign 4.0: 1. More than 60% of DLCs in the period were generated using face authentication technology. 2. The campaign was held from 1 to 30 November 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per DoPPW: over 1.16 crore DLCs (more than 60%) used face authentication, and the campaign ran from 1 to 30 November 2025.
How many newly elected or re-elected members did Rajya Sabha Chairman C.P. Radhakrishnan administer the oath to on 6 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 19
The Rajya Sabha Secretariat said the Chairman administered the oath or affirmation to nineteen members.
With reference to Article 99 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. Every member of either House of Parliament must make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the President, or a person appointed by the President, before taking the seat. 2. The form of this oath or affirmation is set out in the Fourth Schedule. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 restates Article 99. Statement 2 is wrong: Article 99 says the form is set out in the Third Schedule.
What was the total value of seizures in the five poll-bound states and UT from 26 February to 5 April 2026, as reported by the ECI?
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Correct answer: D — ₹651.51 crore
The ECI table shows a total of ₹651.51 crore; ₹319 crore is West Bengal's share.
Within how much time are the ECI's flying squads expected to attend to complaints during the 2026 Assembly elections?
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Correct answer: B — 100 minutes
The ECI said over 5,173 flying squads were deployed to ensure complaints are attended to within 100 minutes.
Consider the following statements about election seizures reported by the ECI on 5 April 2026: 1. West Bengal accounted for the largest value of seizures among the five states and UT. 2. The Electronic Seizure Management System (ESMS) was activated on 26 February 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: West Bengal led with ₹319 crore, and the data runs from ESMS activation on 26 February 2026.
The first-ever 'Administrative Capacity Building' programme launched on 5 April 2026 under Mission Karmayogi is aimed at which group?
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Correct answer: A — Scientists and academicians
DoPT said the programme is for scientists and academicians moving into leadership roles.
On 5 April 2026, the Capacity Building Commission signed an MoU with which institution for global knowledge partnerships in capacity building?
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Correct answer: D — Research and Information System for Developing Countries (RIS)
The release says the MoU was between the Capacity Building Commission and RIS.
Who is the Chairperson of the Capacity Building Commission, as per the DoPT release of 5 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — S. Radha Chauhan
The release names S. Radha Chauhan as Chairperson; Alka Mittal is Member (Administration) of the CBC.
Under which provision is an employed elector entitled to a paid holiday on polling day?
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Correct answer: C — Section 135B of the RP Act, 1951
The ECI cited Section 135B of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
As per the ECI schedule cited on 3 April 2026, on which date was the second phase of polling in West Bengal?
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Correct answer: A — 29 April 2026
The ECI listed West Bengal polling on 23 April (Phase I) and 29 April 2026 (Phase II).
Consider the following statements about the paid holiday on polling day, as clarified by the ECI: 1. Employers may deduct wages for the polling-day holiday if the worker is a casual or daily-wage worker. 2. Electors working outside their constituency but registered in a constituency going to polls are not entitled to the paid holiday. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct: the ECI said no wages may be deducted and casual and daily-wage workers are entitled, and electors working outside their constituency are also entitled.
Who is the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, who was present at Om Birla's Census 2027 self-enumeration on 3 April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Mritunjay Kumar Narayan
The Lok Sabha Secretariat named Mritunjay Kumar Narayan as the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.
Which phrase did the Lok Sabha Speaker invoke while urging participation in Census 2027?
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Correct answer: B — Jan Ganana se Jan Kalyan
Om Birla reaffirmed the vision of 'Jan Ganana se Jan Kalyan' (Census for Public Welfare).
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 amends 784 provisions across how many Central Acts?
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Correct answer: B — 79
The Commerce Ministry said 784 provisions across 79 Central Acts administered by 23 ministries are amended.
Consider the following statements about the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026: 1. The Lok Sabha Select Committee that examined its 2025 predecessor was chaired by Tejasvi Surya. 2. Of the 784 provisions amended, 717 were amended to facilitate ease of living. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The 717 provisions were decriminalised to promote ease of doing business; 67 provisions were amended for ease of living.
On which date did the Rajya Sabha pass the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 2 April 2026
PRS Bill Track records passage by the Lok Sabha on 1 April and by the Rajya Sabha on 2 April 2026; it was introduced on 27 March.
SAMPANN, the Department of Telecommunications platform adopted by Goa on 2 April 2026, stands for:
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Correct answer: D — System for Accounting and Management of Pension
The release expands SAMPANN as System for Accounting and Management of Pension.
Besides the Government of Goa, which body signed on 2 April 2026 to adopt SAMPANN as a platform-as-a-service?
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Correct answer: A — Cochin Port Authority
The agreement covered the State Government of Goa and the Cochin Port Authority.
Who was the first to complete self-enumeration when Census 2027 began on 1 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — President Droupadi Murmu
The Home Ministry said the exercise began with the enumeration of President Droupadi Murmu, upholding the tradition of starting with the First Citizen.
Between which dates will the Houselisting and Housing Census phase of Census 2027 be conducted across the country?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April – 30 September 2026
The HLO phase runs nationally from 1 April to 30 September 2026; 16 April–15 May is the houselisting window in the first set of states/UTs.
How many questions have been notified for Phase I (Houselisting and Housing Census) of Census 2027?
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Correct answer: C — 33
A total of 33 questions for Phase I were notified in January 2026; 16 is the number of regional languages for self-enumeration.
Which Bill, passed by the Lok Sabha on 1 April 2026, designates Amaravati as the sole capital of Andhra Pradesh?
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Correct answer: A — Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026
The Lok Sabha passed the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026, which confers legal status on Amaravati as the sole capital.
As per PRS Bill Track, on which date did the Rajya Sabha pass the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 2 April 2026
PRS records introduction and passage in the Lok Sabha on 1 April and passage by the Rajya Sabha on 2 April 2026.
Where was the Madhya Pradesh–Uttar Pradesh Sahyog Sammelan held on 31 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Varanasi
The MP-UP Cooperation Conference was held in Varanasi on 31 March 2026.
The MoU signed at the MP-UP Sahyog Sammelan between the Kashi Vishwanath Temple Trust and the Mahakaleshwar temple is expected to help preparations for which event?
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Correct answer: B — Simhastha 2028, Ujjain
CM Mohan Yadav said the experience gained in Varanasi would be useful for preparations for Simhastha-2028 in Ujjain.
From which date did the first phase of Census 2027 begin, as announced on 30 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2026
The Registrar General said the first phase of Census 2027 would begin from 1 April 2026.
Census 2027 is which census in India's series, and which since Independence?
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Correct answer: B — 16th in series, 8th since Independence
Census 2027 will be the 16th in the series and the 8th since Independence; the last census was in 2011.
What is the reference date of Census 2027 for most of India?
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Correct answer: C — 00:00 hours, 1 March 2027
The reference date is 00:00 hours of 1 March 2027; for Ladakh, snow-bound J&K, Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh it is 1 October 2026.
Consider the following statements about Census 2027: 1. It is the first census in India to be conducted digitally, with a self-enumeration option. 2. Enumeration of castes will be done during the first phase (House Listing). 3. The self-enumeration portal and mobile app are available in 16 languages. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
Census 2027 is the first digital census with self-enumeration, available in 16 languages; caste enumeration will be done in the second phase (Population Enumeration), not the first.
The optional home voting facility for electors above 85 years and Persons with Disabilities is provided under which provision?
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Correct answer: A — Section 60(c) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
ECI provides the optional home voting facility under Section 60(c) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
As per ECI data of 30 March 2026, which state had the highest number of electors aged 85+ approved for home voting?
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Correct answer: D — Kerala
Kerala had 1,45,521 electors aged 85+ approved for home voting (71.27%), compared with 19,774 in Assam and 2,066 in Puducherry.
Which state's Assembly passed a Platform Based Gig Workers (Registration, Social Security and Welfare) Bill, 2026 on 30 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Telangana
The Telangana Assembly passed the Telangana Platform Based Gig Workers (Registration, Social Security and Welfare) Bill, 2026 on 30 March 2026.
Under Telangana's gig workers law of 2026, aggregators must contribute what share of their transaction value to the welfare fund?
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Correct answer: B — 1–2%
Aggregators must contribute 1 to 2% of their transaction value to a state-managed welfare fund.
The Gyan Bharatam Survey, highlighted in the 132nd Mann Ki Baat on 29 March 2026, collects information about:
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Correct answer: D — Manuscripts
The PM said the objective of the Gyan Bharatam Survey is to collect information about manuscripts across the country, through the Gyan Bharatam App.
According to the PM in Mann Ki Baat (March 2026), about how many artificial water harvesting structures have been created under the Jal Sanchay Abhiyan?
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Correct answer: C — 50 lakh
Nearly 50 lakh artificial water harvesting structures have been created under the Jal Sanchay Abhiyan; nearly 70,000 Amrit Sarovars have been built.
Chizami village, praised in Mann Ki Baat for women preserving over 150 traditional seed varieties in a community seed bank, is in which state?
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Correct answer: A — Nagaland
The PM cited Chizami village in Nagaland, where women preserve over 150 varieties of traditional seeds.
Match the place with its mention in Mann Ki Baat (29 March 2026): 1. Wangmun – a. Seed bank run by women 2. Chizami – b. Rooftop rainwater harvesting in Jampui Hills Which is the correct match?
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Correct answer: B — 1-b, 2-a
Wangmun village in Tripura's Jampui Hills adopted rooftop rainwater harvesting; Chizami village in Nagaland has a women-run community seed bank.
Which Indian athlete, mentioned in Mann Ki Baat in March 2026, became the first Indian to complete a half marathon in under an hour?
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Correct answer: B — Gulveer Singh
The PM said Gulveer Singh of Uttar Pradesh finished third in the New York City Half Marathon and became the first Indian to complete a half marathon in under an hour.
The Tele-Law initiative is part of which scheme of the Ministry of Law and Justice?
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Correct answer: A — DISHA
Tele-Law is an initiative of the Designing Innovative Solutions for Holistic Access to Justice (DISHA) scheme.
Who addressed the National Consultation 2026 on Tele-Law in New Delhi on 29 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Vice President C. P. Radhakrishnan
Vice President C. P. Radhakrishnan addressed the National Consultation 2026 on Tele-Law.
Who chaired the first meeting of the Informal Group of Ministers (IGoM) on the West Asia situation on 28 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Rajnath Singh
Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh chaired the first IGoM meeting at Kartavya Bhawan-2, New Delhi.
Where was the first meeting of the IGoM on the West Asia situation held?
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Correct answer: A — Kartavya Bhawan-2, New Delhi
The meeting was held at Kartavya Bhawan-2, New Delhi, on 28 March 2026.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 proposes to amend how many provisions of Central Acts?
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Correct answer: D — 784
It proposes amending 784 provisions of 79 Central Acts, of which 717 are to be decriminalised.
Who chaired the Select Committee that examined the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Tejasvi Surya
The Select Committee chaired by Tejasvi Surya held 49 sittings and reported on 13 March 2026.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Jan Vishwas Act, 2023 decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts. 2. The Jan Vishwas Bill, 2026 was introduced in the Rajya Sabha. 3. The 2026 Bill proposes replacing imprisonment for minor defaults with monetary penalties or warnings. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
The 2023 Act decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Acts, and the 2026 Bill replaces imprisonment with penalties or warnings. It was introduced in the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha.
The grants of over ₹592 crore released to Goa and Maharashtra panchayats in March 2026 were recommended by which Finance Commission?
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Correct answer: B — Fifteenth
The Union Government released Fifteenth Finance Commission (XV FC) untied and tied grants to PRIs in Goa and Maharashtra.
Under the TV Ratings Policy 2026, the net-worth requirement for registering as a TV rating agency has been reduced from ₹20 crore to:
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Correct answer: C — ₹5 crore
The net-worth requirement was reduced from ₹20 crore to ₹5 crore.
Consider the following about the TV Ratings Policy 2026: 1. Landing-page viewership is excluded from ratings measurement. 2. At least 50% of a rating agency's board must be independent directors. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The policy excludes landing-page viewership from measurement and requires at least 50% independent directors.