Economy Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
During which period will the NSO conduct its Survey on Migration, announced in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — July 2026–June 2027
MoSPI said the NSO proposes to conduct the Survey on Migration from July 2026 to June 2027.
Which National Sample Survey round, conducted in 2007–08, was a dedicated round on migration?
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Correct answer: B — 64th round
MoSPI listed the 18th (1963–64) and 64th (2007–08) rounds as dedicated migration rounds.
What was India's provisional CPI-based headline inflation for October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 0.25%
MoSPI put October 2025 headline CPI inflation at 0.25%, the lowest of the current series and 119 basis points below September.
What was all-India food inflation, based on the Consumer Food Price Index, in October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — −5.02%
All-India CFPI food inflation was −5.02%; −4.85% and −5.18% were the rural and urban figures.
Consider the following statements about CPI data for October 2025: 1. Headline inflation was the lowest year-on-year rate of the current CPI series. 2. Rural headline inflation was 0.88%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Headline inflation of 0.25% was the lowest of the current series. Rural headline inflation was −0.25%; 0.88% was the urban figure.
What is the total outlay of the Export Promotion Mission approved by the Union Cabinet on 12 November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹25,060 crore
The Export Promotion Mission has an outlay of ₹25,060 crore for FY 2025–26 to FY 2030–31. ₹20,000 crore is the credit support under the separate Credit Guarantee Scheme for Exporters.
Consider the following statements about the Export Promotion Mission: 1. NIRYAT PROTSAHAN focuses on access to affordable trade finance for MSMEs. 2. NIRYAT DISHA focuses on non-financial enablers such as branding, compliance and logistics. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The EPM has two sub-schemes: NIRYAT PROTSAHAN for trade finance and NIRYAT DISHA for non-financial support.
Which existing export support schemes are consolidated into the Export Promotion Mission?
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Correct answer: A — Interest Equalisation Scheme and Market Access Initiative
The Cabinet release says the EPM consolidates the Interest Equalisation Scheme (IES) and the Market Access Initiative (MAI).
Under the royalty rates approved by the Cabinet in November 2025, what is the royalty on graphite with 80% or more fixed carbon?
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Correct answer: C — 2% of ASP
Graphite with 80% or more fixed carbon attracts 2% of ASP; graphite with less than 80% fixed carbon attracts 4%.
Consider the following statements in the context of the Cabinet decision on mineral royalties of 12 November 2025: 1. Graphite and zirconium are among the 24 critical and strategic minerals listed in the MMDR Act, 1957. 2. India imports about 90% of its graphite requirement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Graphite and zirconium are among the 24 critical and strategic minerals in the MMDR Act. India imports 60%, not 90%, of its graphite requirement.
Which of the minerals covered by the November 2025 royalty decision is mainly used in atomic clocks and GPS systems?
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Correct answer: D — Caesium
The Cabinet release says caesium is mainly used in high-tech electronics, particularly atomic clocks and GPS systems.
Which entity will provide 100% credit guarantee cover under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Exporters approved in November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited
NCGTC will give 100% guarantee cover to Member Lending Institutions for the additional credit to exporters.
Up to how much additional collateral-free credit to exporters is envisaged under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Exporters?
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Correct answer: B — ₹20,000 crore
The CGSE envisages up to ₹20,000 crore of additional credit to eligible exporters, including MSMEs.
What was the unemployment rate for persons aged 15 years and above in July–September 2025, as per the PLFS quarterly bulletin?
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Correct answer: A — 5.2%
The unemployment rate fell to 5.2% in July–September 2025 from 5.4% in April–June.
What was the female Labour Force Participation Rate (15 years and above) in July–September 2025, as per PLFS?
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Correct answer: D — 33.7%
Female LFPR rose to 33.7% in July–September 2025 from 33.4% in April–June 2025.
Consider the following statements about the PLFS: 1. Its sampling methodology was revamped from January 2025 to give monthly and quarterly estimates for rural and urban India. 2. The overall LFPR fell to 54.1% in July–September 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The PLFS was revamped from January 2025 under the CWS framework. The overall LFPR rose slightly to 55.1%, not fell to 54.1%.
The proposed mandatory 'Country of Origin' filter for e-commerce platforms is to be introduced by amending which rules?
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Correct answer: C — Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 2011
The draft amends rule 6(10) of the Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 2011.
Consider the following statements about the draft 'Country of Origin' filter rules of November 2025: 1. The filter must be provided by every e-commerce entity selling imported products. 2. The draft was issued by the Department of Commerce. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The proviso applies to every e-commerce entity selling imported products. The draft was issued by the Department of Consumer Affairs, not the Department of Commerce.
How much gold did the DRI seize in Mumbai under 'Operation Bullion Blaze' in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 11.88 kg
DRI seized 11.88 kg of 24-carat gold worth ₹15.05 crore; 8.72 kg was the silver seized.
Under which law were the gold and silver seized in 'Operation Bullion Blaze'?
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Correct answer: A — Customs Act, 1962
The gold and silver were seized under the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962.
According to Amit Shah at Co-Op Kumbh 2025, to what level has the NPA of urban cooperative banks fallen in the past two years?
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Correct answer: B — 0.6%
Shah said the NPA fell from 2.8% to 0.6% in the past two years.
Which two apps were launched for urban cooperative banks at Co-Op Kumbh 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sahkar Digi-Pay and Sahkar Digi-Loan
The umbrella organisation launched the 'Sahkar Digi-Pay' and 'Sahkar Digi-Loan' apps.
The proposed India–Australia CECA builds on the India–Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA). When did ECTA enter into force?
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Correct answer: C — December 2022
The Commerce Ministry said ECTA entered into force in December 2022.
What was India–Australia bilateral merchandise trade in FY 2024–25, as per the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — USD 24.1 billion
India–Australia merchandise trade stood at USD 24.1 billion in FY 2024–25.
Where was the fourth round of India–New Zealand FTA negotiations, concluded on 8 November 2025, held?
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Correct answer: D — Auckland and Rotorua
The fourth round concluded in Auckland and Rotorua after five days of discussions.
What was India's bilateral merchandise trade with New Zealand in FY 2024–25, as per the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — USD 1.3 billion
Trade stood at USD 1.3 billion in FY 2024–25, up nearly 49% year on year. USD 24.1 billion was India–Australia trade.
Who is New Zealand's Minister for Trade with whom Piyush Goyal reviewed progress in the India–NZ FTA talks in November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Todd McClay
Piyush Goyal and New Zealand Minister for Trade Todd McClay acknowledged steady progress in the fourth round. Don Farrell is Australia's Trade Minister.
With which European Commission official did Commerce Secretary Rajesh Agrawal hold stocktaking meetings on the India–EU FTA on 5–6 November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sabine Weyand
Rajesh Agrawal met Sabine Weyand, Director-General for Trade, European Commission, for two days of stocktaking.
Where and when was the India–EU FTA negotiating round held in November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — New Delhi, 3–7 November
The EU negotiating team visited New Delhi from 3 to 7 November 2025; the stocktake meetings were on 5–6 November.
With which New Zealand minister did Piyush Goyal co-chair the India–New Zealand CEOs Roundtable on 6 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Todd McClay
Goyal and New Zealand Trade Minister Todd McClay co-chaired the India–New Zealand CEOs Roundtable.
Te Puia in Rotorua, where Piyush Goyal received a traditional Pōwhiri on 6 November 2025, is New Zealand's national centre for what?
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Correct answer: A — Māori culture and arts
Te Puia is the national centre for Māori culture and arts, where Goyal was accorded a traditional Māori welcome (Pōwhiri).
Where was the 9th round of India–Peru Trade Agreement negotiations held from 3 to 5 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Lima
The 9th round was held in Lima, Peru, from 3 to 5 November 2025.
Who led the Indian delegation as Chief Negotiator at the 9th round of India–Peru trade talks in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Vimal Anand
The Indian delegation was led by Vimal Anand, Joint Secretary and Chief Negotiator; Vishvas Vidu Sapkal is India's Ambassador to Peru.
The 3rd round of India–Chile CEPA negotiations, mentioned alongside the 9th India–Peru round, was held in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Santiago
The 3rd round of India–Chile CEPA negotiations was held in Santiago, Chile, from 27 to 30 October 2025.
MOIL, which recorded its best-ever October production in October 2025 (1.60 lakh tonnes), mainly produces which ore?
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Correct answer: A — Manganese ore
MOIL recorded production of 1.60 lakh tonnes of manganese ore in October 2025, its best October since inception.
In November 2025, APEDA facilitated the export of 20 metric tonnes of fortified rice from Chhattisgarh to which country?
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Correct answer: B — Papua New Guinea
APEDA facilitated the export of 20 MT of fortified rice from Chhattisgarh to Papua New Guinea.
The Rules for 'Sustainable Harnessing of Fisheries in the Exclusive Economic Zone', notified on 4 November 2025, fulfil an announcement made in which Union Budget?
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Correct answer: C — 2025–26
The Rules fulfil the Budget 2025–26 announcement of an enabling framework for sustainable fisheries from the Indian EEZ and high seas.
According to the Fisheries Ministry (November 2025), the Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep together account for what share of India's EEZ area?
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Correct answer: D — 49%
The ministry said the island regions of Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep together account for 49% of India's EEZ area.
Consider the following statements about the EEZ fisheries Rules notified in November 2025: 1. Mechanised and large motorised vessels need an Access Pass, available free of cost through the ReALCraft portal. 2. Foreign fishing vessels can obtain an Access Pass through joint-venture arrangements with Indian firms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The Access Pass is free through ReALCraft for mechanised and large motorised vessels, but foreign fishing vessels are not allowed an Access Pass under any arrangement.
Which vessel concept, allowing mid-sea transshipment, is introduced by the EEZ fisheries Rules of November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Mother-and-child vessels
The Rules introduce the mother-and-child vessel concept, allowing mid-sea transshipment under RBI-regulated monitoring.
Who launched the third round (PLI 1.2) of the PLI Scheme for Specialty Steel on 4 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — H.D. Kumaraswamy
Union Minister for Steel and Heavy Industries H.D. Kumaraswamy launched PLI 1.2 at Udyog Bhawan, New Delhi.
The PLI Scheme for Specialty Steel was approved by the Union Cabinet in July 2021 with what outlay?
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Correct answer: A — ₹6,322 crore
The scheme was approved in July 2021 with an overall outlay of ₹6,322 crore.
Consider the following statements about the PLI Scheme for Specialty Steel (as of November 2025): 1. It covers 22 product sub-categories, including super alloys and CRGO steel. 2. Incentive rates range from 4% to 15% for five years starting FY 2025–26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The scheme covers 22 product sub-categories including super alloys and CRGO, with incentives of 4% to 15% for five years starting FY 2025–26.
In November 2025, APEDA facilitated the first export of Fortified Rice Kernel from Chhattisgarh to which country?
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Correct answer: D — Costa Rica
APEDA facilitated the first export consignment of 12 MT of Fortified Rice Kernel from Chhattisgarh to Costa Rica.
Which Indian cooperative ranked first in the World Cooperative Monitor 2025 ranking by turnover relative to GDP per capita?
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Correct answer: B — Amul (Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation)
Amul (GCMMF) ranked first and IFFCO second in the turnover-over-GDP-per-capita ranking of the World Cooperative Monitor 2025.
On what basis did Amul and IFFCO top the World Cooperative Monitor 2025 list?
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Correct answer: A — Turnover relative to GDP per capita
The ICA said that by turnover relative to GDP per capita, India's Amul and IFFCO top the global list; the leading organisations by absolute turnover include Groupe Crédit Agricole and State Farm.
The World Cooperative Monitor 2025, released in Doha on 3 November 2025, was prepared by the International Cooperative Alliance in collaboration with which body?
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Correct answer: D — EURICSE
The ICA released the report in collaboration with the European Research Institute on Cooperative and Social Enterprises (EURICSE).
The 2025 edition of the World Cooperative Monitor was described by the ICA as a special report marking which observance?
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Correct answer: C — UN International Year of Cooperatives
The ICA called the 2025 World Cooperative Monitor a special report marking the UN International Year of Cooperatives.
In November 2025, the Union Government released over how much in XV Finance Commission grants to rural local bodies in Odisha?
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Correct answer: A — ₹444 crore
The Centre released over ₹444 crore: ₹342.60 crore as the second instalment of Untied Grants and ₹101.78 crore withheld from the first instalment.
Who chaired the Fifteenth Finance Commission, whose grants were released to Odisha's rural local bodies in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — N.K. Singh
The Fifteenth Finance Commission was headed by N.K. Singh.
The Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted on 27 November 2017 under which Article of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: D — Article 280
The Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted in pursuance of clause (1) of Article 280 of the Constitution with effect from 27 November 2017.
Where did Vice-President C.P. Radhakrishnan interact with members of the Federation of Indian Coir Exporters' Associations on 3 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Kollam
The Vice-President interacted with FICEA members in Kollam, Kerala.
Vice-President C.P. Radhakrishnan earlier served as Chairman of which body from 2016 to 2020, a period in which coir exports doubled?
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Correct answer: D — Coir Board
FICEA members recalled his tenure as Chairman of the Coir Board (2016–2020), when exports doubled.
Coal India Limited, which celebrated its foundation day on 1 November 2025, completed how many years of its establishment?
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Correct answer: A — 50 years
CIL completed 50 years of its establishment and stepped into its 51st year on 1 November 2025.
According to Coal India's chairman at its 51st Foundation Day, the company meets about what share of the nation's energy requirements?
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Correct answer: D — 55%
CIL Chairman Sanoj Kumar Jha said the company currently meets about 55% of the nation's energy requirements.
In which city did IEPFA and SEBI hold a 'Niveshak Shivir' on 1 November 2025, after earlier editions in Pune and Hyderabad?
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Correct answer: D — Amritsar
The Niveshak Shivir was held in Amritsar, Punjab, on 1 November 2025.
The passenger from whom DRI seized 4.7 kg of cocaine at Mumbai airport on 31 October 2025 had arrived from:
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Correct answer: B — Colombo
The woman passenger was arriving from Colombo when DRI officers intercepted her at CSMIA, Mumbai.
In the DRI seizure at Mumbai airport on 31 October 2025, the cocaine was concealed inside:
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Correct answer: D — Coffee packets
Nine pouches of cocaine were found concealed inside coffee packets.
Where was the third round of India-Chile CEPA negotiations held from 27 to 30 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Santiago
The third round of India-Chile CEPA negotiations was held in Santiago, Chile.
Which round of India-Chile Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement negotiations took place in October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Third
PIB reported that the 3rd round of India-Chile CEPA negotiations was held in Santiago from 27 to 30 October 2025.
Consider the following statements about the third round of India-Chile CEPA talks: 1. It was held from 27 to 30 October 2025. 2. Critical minerals were among the chapters discussed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The round ran from 27 to 30 October 2025 and covered chapters including critical minerals.
According to Chile's SUBREI, the India-Chile Partial Scope Agreement, which entered into force in 2007, was expanded in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2017
SUBREI notes that the Partial Scope Agreement entered into force in 2007 and was later expanded in 2017.
How much did NHAI save in the cost of toll collection at public-funded toll plazas in FY 2024-25 compared with FY 2023-24?
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Correct answer: A — ₹2,062 crore
The cost fell from ₹4,736 crore in FY 2023-24 to ₹2,674 crore in FY 2024-25, saving ₹2,062 crore.
NHAI's cost of toll collection, as a percentage, fell from 17.27% in FY 2023-24 to what in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: D — 9.27%
In percentage terms, the cost of toll collection decreased from 17.27% to 9.27%.
According to the PM at India Maritime Week 2025, the new port at Vadhavan, Maharashtra, is being built at a cost of:
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Correct answer: B — ₹76,000 crore
The PM announced that a new port is being built at Vadhavan, Maharashtra, at a cost of ₹76,000 crore.
What was the theme of India Maritime Week 2025, held in Mumbai from 27 to 31 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Uniting Oceans, One Maritime Vision
IMW 2025 was organised under the theme 'Uniting Oceans, One Maritime Vision'.
The PM said the maritime event that grew into India Maritime Week began in Mumbai in which year?
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Correct answer: A — 2016
The PM remarked that the event began in Mumbai in 2016 and has evolved into a global summit.
In which city did NITI Aayog unveil its roadmap 'Reimagining Manufacturing' on 29 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Pune
The roadmap was unveiled in Pune with Maharashtra CM Devendra Fadnavis and NITI CEO B.V.R. Subrahmanyam.
NITI Aayog's 'Reimagining Manufacturing' roadmap maps the impact of frontier technologies across how many priority manufacturing sectors?
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Correct answer: B — 13
The roadmap maps the implications of AI/ML, advanced materials, digital twins and robotics across 13 priority manufacturing sectors.
NITI Aayog's roadmap warns that if India fails to adopt key frontier technologies, the potential loss in additional manufacturing GDP by 2047 could be:
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Correct answer: C — US$1 trillion
The roadmap cautions of a potential loss of US$270 billion by 2035 and US$1 trillion by 2047 in additional manufacturing GDP.
Which provision was introduced for the first time in the 14th round of commercial coal mine auctions launched on 29 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Underground Coal Gasification (UCG)
For the first time, provisions for Underground Coal Gasification were introduced; 21 of the 41 mines have UCG potential.
How many coal mines were offered in the 14th round of commercial coal mine auctions?
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Correct answer: C — 41
A total of 41 coal mines were offered, of which 21 have UCG potential.
Before the 14th round, how many coal mines had the Ministry of Coal auctioned across 12 rounds of commercial auctions?
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Correct answer: D — 133
The ministry has auctioned 133 coal mines across 12 rounds, with a peak rated capacity of about 276 MTPA.