SF Prep

Economy Current Affairs Quiz — All time

Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.

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1653 news · 3998 MCQs
Score: 0 / 0 attempted · 75 questions
Retail inflation at 3.40% in March 2026 on the new CPI base 2024=100
Q1

What was the All India CPI (Combined) inflation rate for March 2026 (provisional), on base year 2024?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 3.40%

Combined CPI inflation was 3.40%; 3.21% was February, 3.87% food inflation and 3.63% rural inflation.

Q2 Advanced

The CPI data released by MoSPI on 13 April 2026 for March 2026 uses which base year?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 2024

The release is for the Consumer Price Index on base 2024=100.

Q3 Advanced

Which item recorded the highest year-on-year inflation at the All India combined level in March 2026 (CPI base 2024)?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Silver jewellery

Silver jewellery topped at 148.61%, followed by gold/diamond/platinum jewellery (45.92%), copra (45.52%) and tomato (35.99%).

Labour Ministry signs MoUs with Porter and Gigin to expand jobs on the National Career Service portal
Q4

Under its MoU with the Labour Ministry, Porter aims to generate how many logistics and driving opportunities by 2030?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Over 30 lakh

Porter targets the creation of over 30 lakh opportunities by 2030.

Q5 Advanced

According to the Labour Minister in April 2026, roughly how many establishments are registered on the National Career Service portal?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 59 lakh

Nearly 59 lakh establishments have registered on NCS; 7 lakh is the number of active vacancies.

Seafood Exporters Meet 2026: exports rise to about ₹68,000 crore
Q6

According to the Fisheries Minister at the Seafood Exporters Meet 2026, India's seafood exports this year are approximately:

Show answer

Correct answer: D — ₹68,000 crore

Exports grew from ₹62,000 crore last year to about ₹68,000 crore this year.

Q7 Advanced

Consider the following statements about India's seafood exports as stated at the Seafood Exporters Meet 2026: 1. Growth was driven largely by strong performance in non-US markets. 2. The net increase over last year was about ₹6,000 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct as per the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying.

Mineral Concession rules amended to set ASP for haematite iron ore below threshold, including BHQ and BHJ
Q8

What is the notified threshold value for haematite iron ore, below which mined material can be discarded as waste?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 45% Fe (min.)

The notified threshold value for haematite iron ore is 45% Fe (min.).

Q9 Advanced

Under the Mineral Concession (Third Amendment) Rules, 2026, the average sale price of haematite iron ore of 35% to below 45% Fe grade will be what percentage of the ASP of the 45% to below 51% Fe grade?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 75%

For 35% to below 45% Fe, the ASP is 75% of the ASP of the 45% to below 51% Fe grade; for below 35% Fe, it is 50%.

Q10 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the April 2026 amendment to the Mineral Concession rules: 1. Banded Haematite Quartzite (BHQ) and Banded Haematite Jasper (BHJ) are covered by the new ASP methodology. 2. If processing of run-of-mine lowers its economic value, royalty is charged on lumps and fines after initial screening of unprocessed run-of-mine. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct as per the Ministry of Mines.

MoSPI releases first pilot study in decades on unincorporated construction sector
Q11 Advanced

According to MoSPI's April 2026 pilot study, about how many households undertook own-account construction for their own use during the 365-day reference period?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 98.54 lakh

An estimated 98.54 lakh households undertook own-account construction; 10.27 lakh is the number of unincorporated construction agencies.

Q12 Advanced

Consider the following statements about MoSPI's pilot study on unincorporated construction: 1. About 77% of unincorporated construction agencies engaged at least one hired worker on a fairly regular basis. 2. Nearly 23% of rural households doing own-account construction availed institutional funding. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct as per MoSPI.

Ministry of Cooperation holds 7th National Review Conference in Varanasi
Q13

The Ministry of Cooperation's 7th National Review Conference, held on 9–10 April 2026, took place in:

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Varanasi

The conference was held in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.

Q14 Advanced

At the 7th National Review Conference of the Ministry of Cooperation in April 2026, which body outlined expanded financing support for FPOs, fisheries and emerging cooperative sectors?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — National Cooperative Development Corporation

The NCDC outlined expanded financing support for FPOs, fisheries and emerging cooperative sectors.

FIU-IND and I4C sign MoU to fight cyber fraud and financial crimes
Q15

The Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND) signed an MoU announced on 9 April 2026 with which body to combat cyber fraud and financial crimes?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C)

The Finance Ministry said FIU-IND and the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) signed the MoU.

Q16 Advanced

Consider the following statements: 1. The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) is an attached office of the Ministry of Finance. 2. FIU-IND is the central national agency for receiving, processing, analysing and disseminating information on suspect financial transactions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Statement 1 is wrong: I4C is an attached office of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Statement 2 is correct as per the Finance Ministry release.

DRI busts gold smuggling syndicate at Mumbai airport in Operation Dhahabu Blitz
Q17

Under which operation did the DRI seize about 29.37 kg of gold from 24 women carriers at Mumbai airport in April 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Operation Dhahabu Blitz

The Finance Ministry said the 24 foreign nationals were intercepted under Operation Dhahabu Blitz.

Q18 Advanced

The women carriers intercepted in Operation Dhahabu Blitz at Mumbai airport had arrived from which city?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Nairobi

The DRI said the group of female carriers was arriving from Nairobi.

Rare earth magnet scheme draws 25+ firms to pre-bid meeting; bids due 28 May
Q19

What is the outlay of the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — ₹7,280 crore

The Ministry of Heavy Industries said the scheme has an outlay of ₹7,280 crore.

Q20 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the rare earth permanent magnet scheme: 1. The government will select a maximum of five entities through bidding. 2. Each selected entity can set up facilities of up to 1,200 MTPA, adding up to a maximum of 6,000 MTPA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct: MHI said at most five entities will be selected, each with up to 1,200 MTPA, for a total of up to 6,000 MTPA.

Q21 Advanced

The rare earth permanent magnet facilities sought under the ₹7,280 crore scheme are for which type of magnet?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Sintered NdFeB

The RFP is for integrated sintered NdFeB (neodymium–iron–boron) rare earth permanent magnet manufacturing facilities.

Saraswat Cooperative Bank and Amul cross ₹1 lakh crore turnover in 2025–26
Q22

Which two cooperatives were congratulated by Amit Shah on 7 April 2026 for crossing ₹1 lakh crore annual turnover in 2025–26?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Saraswat Cooperative Bank and Amul

The Ministry of Cooperation said Shah congratulated Saraswat Cooperative Bank and Amul.

Q23 Advanced

In which financial year did Saraswat Cooperative Bank and Amul cross ₹1 lakh crore in annual turnover, as per the Ministry of Cooperation?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2025–26

Amit Shah's message refers to crossing the ₹1 lakh crore annual turnover mark in 2025–26.

CCI orders 17 firms to stop bid-rigging in Assam Police Housing tenders
Q24 Advanced

The CCI case on bid-rigging in Assam Police Housing Corporation's electrification tenders arose from a complaint by which office?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Office of the Accountant General (Audit), Assam

CCI said the proceedings arose out of a complaint dated 10 August 2020 from the Office of the Accountant General (Audit), Assam.

Q25 Advanced

In its order of 7 April 2026 on the Assam Police Housing tenders, the CCI found the parties in violation of which provision of the Competition Act, 2002?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Section 3(3)(d) read with Section 3(1)

CCI found bid-rigging in violation of Section 3(3)(d) read with Section 3(1), and issued its cease-and-desist direction under Section 27.

Q26 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the CCI order of 7 April 2026: 1. The cease-and-desist direction was issued under Section 27 of the Competition Act, 2002. 2. The tenders in question were floated by the Assam Public Works Department. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the tenders were invited by the Assam Police Housing Corporation Limited.

NSO launches first-ever Annual Survey of Incorporated Services Sector Enterprises
Q27

Which body launched the first-ever Annual Survey of Incorporated Services Sector Enterprises (ASISSE) in April 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — National Statistics Office, MoSPI

MoSPI said the National Statistics Office (NSO) launched the first-ever ASISSE.

Q28 Advanced

Which database is used as the sampling frame for the Annual Survey of Incorporated Services Sector Enterprises (ASISSE)?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — GSTN database

MoSPI said the survey uses the GSTN database as its sampling frame.

Q29 Advanced

Consider the following statements about ASISSE: 1. Its reference period is the financial year 2024-25. 2. It covers unincorporated non-agricultural enterprises, which were earlier covered by the Annual Survey of Industries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: ASISSE covers incorporated enterprises (companies and LLPs); unincorporated enterprises are covered by ASUSE, and the ASI covers registered manufacturing.

GeM crosses ₹18.4 lakh crore cumulative GMV
Q30

What cumulative Gross Merchandise Value (GMV) did the Government e Marketplace (GeM) report on 6 April 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — ₹18.4 lakh crore

The Commerce Ministry said GeM achieved a cumulative GMV of ₹18.4 lakh crore; over ₹5 lakh crore was in 2025-26 alone.

Q31 Advanced

What share of total orders on GeM in 2025-26 was executed by Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs)?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 68%

The ministry said MSEs executed 68% of total orders, accounting for 47.1% of GMV.

Department of Social Justice posts highest-ever spending of ₹11,810.82 crore in 2025-26
Q32

What was the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment's highest-ever expenditure in 2025-26?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — ₹11,810.82 crore

Dr Virendra Kumar said the department spent ₹11,810.82 crore in 2025-26; ₹10,409 crore was the 2024-25 figure.

Q33 Advanced

By roughly what percentage did the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment's expenditure grow in 2025-26 over 2024-25?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Nearly 14%

The ministry said the increase was nearly 14% over the ₹10,409 crore spent in 2024-25.

India's marine product exports reach ₹62,408 crore in 2024-25
Q34

What was the value of India's marine product exports in 2024-25, as per the Department of Fisheries?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — ₹62,408 crore

The department said marine exports rose to ₹62,408 crore in 2024-25; ₹43,334 crore was the shrimp component and ₹30,213 crore the 2013-14 figure.

Q35 Advanced

Which country was the largest destination for India's seafood exports in 2024-25?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — United States

The United States accounted for 36.42% of total export value in 2024-25.

Q36 Advanced

What was India's fish production in 2024-25, according to the Department of Fisheries?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 197.75 lakh tonnes

Fish production rose from 141.64 lakh tonnes in 2019-20 to 197.75 lakh tonnes in 2024-25.

Captive and commercial coal mines cross 200 MT for the first time in FY 2025-26
Q37

What was coal production from captive and commercial mines in FY 2025-26?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 210.46 MT

The Coal Ministry said production reached 210.46 MT; 204.61 MT was dispatch and 190.95 MT the previous year's production.

Q38 Advanced

How many captive and commercial coal blocks were operationalised through Mine Opening Permission in FY 2025-26?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 12

12 blocks were operationalised, adding over 86 MT of capacity; 7 blocks began production within the year.

Full customs duty exemption on critical petrochemicals till 30 June 2026
Q39

Till which date has the full customs duty exemption on critical petrochemical products, announced on 2 April 2026, been granted?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 30 June 2026

The Finance Ministry said the exemption is till 30 June 2026.

Q40 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the customs duty exemption on critical petrochemicals announced on 2 April 2026: 1. It is a permanent reduction in customs duty. 2. Methanol (methyl alcohol) is among the products covered. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Only 2 is correct. The ministry called it temporary and targeted relief valid till 30 June 2026, and methanol is listed in the annexure.

Income-tax Act, 2025 comes into force, replacing the 1961 Act
Q41

On which date did the Income-tax Act, 2025 receive the President's assent?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 21 August 2025

The Finance Ministry said the Bill was passed by Parliament on 12 August 2025 and received assent on 21 August 2025; the Rules were notified on 20 March 2026 and the Act came into force on 1 April 2026.

Q42 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Income-tax Act, 2025: 1. It replaces the Income-tax Act, 1961. 2. It alters the underlying tax policy to introduce new tax rates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. The ministry said the Act simplifies the law without altering the underlying tax policy.

Q43 Advanced

Which body notified the Income-tax Rules, 2026 to operationalise the Income-tax Act, 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Central Board of Direct Taxes

The Income-tax Rules, 2026 were notified by the Central Board of Direct Taxes on 20 March 2026.

RBI foundation day: Reserve Bank established on 1 April 1935
Q44

On which date was the Reserve Bank of India established?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 April 1935

The RBI says it was established on 1 April 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

Q45 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Reserve Bank of India: 1. Its Central Office was initially established in Kolkata and moved permanently to Mumbai in 1937. 2. It has been fully owned by the Government of India since its nationalisation in 1949. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct as per the RBI's 'About Us' page.

Q46 Advanced

The Reserve Bank of India was established in accordance with the provisions of which Act?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

The RBI was established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

Concessional customs duty notified for SEZ-to-domestic sales
Q47

Under the concessional customs duty notified on 1 April 2026, SEZ units can clear goods to the Domestic Tariff Area up to what limit?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 30% of the highest annual FOB export value in the preceding three years

The cap is 30% of the highest annual free-on-board export value achieved in any of the three immediately preceding financial years.

Q48 Advanced

What minimum value addition within the SEZ is required to avail the concessional duty on SEZ-to-DTA clearances?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 20%

The notification prescribes a minimum 20% value addition within the SEZ.

Defence Ministry fully utilises ₹1.86 lakh crore capital budget for FY 2025-26
Q49

What capital outlay for the Defence Services did the Ministry of Defence fully utilise in FY 2025-26 (Revised Estimates)?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — ₹1.86 lakh crore

The ministry fully utilised ₹1.86 lakh crore at the RE stage; ₹1.80 lakh crore was the original appropriation.

Q50 Advanced

What was the overall utilisation of the defence budget, including MoD (civil) and pensions, in FY 2025-26?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 99.62%

The ministry said overall utilisation stood at 99.62% against the final allocation.

RoSCTL scheme for apparel and made-ups exports extended to 30 September 2026
Q51

Up to which date has the RoSCTL scheme for apparel and made-ups exports been extended?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 30 September 2026

The Ministry of Textiles extended RoSCTL up to 30 September 2026 or until approval for the 16th Finance Commission cycle, whichever is earlier.

Q52 Advanced

Since when has the Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies (RoSCTL) scheme been operational?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 7 March 2019

The ministry said RoSCTL has been operational since 7 March 2019.

PM inaugurates Kaynes Technology semiconductor plant at Sanand, Gujarat
Q53

In March 2026, the Prime Minister inaugurated the semiconductor plant of which Indian company at Sanand, Gujarat?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Kaynes Technology

On 31 March 2026 the PM inaugurated the Kaynes Technology semiconductor plant at Sanand, Gujarat.

Q54 Advanced

Which product does the Kaynes semiconductor facility at Sanand supply to a California-based company?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Intelligent Power Modules

The facility supplies Intelligent Power Modules to a California-based company, with a large share of output booked for export.

Q55

In which year was the India Semiconductor Mission launched?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 2021

The PM recalled that the India Semiconductor Mission was launched in 2021.

Q56 Advanced

Consider the following statements about India's semiconductor push as stated on 31 March 2026: 1. Production at the Micron plant in Sanand started on 28 February 2026. 2. Under the India Semiconductor Mission, 10 projects worth over ₹1.6 lakh crore are under way across six states. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

The PM said he was in Sanand on 28 February for the start of production at the Micron plant, and that 10 projects worth over ₹1,60,000 crore are under way in six states.

CBDT signs record 219 Advance Pricing Agreements in FY 2025-26; total crosses 1,000
Q57

How many Advance Pricing Agreements (APAs) did the CBDT sign in FY 2025-26?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 219

The CBDT entered into a record 219 APAs in FY 2025-26 (174 in the previous year and 125 the year before).

Q58 Advanced

With which of the following countries did India sign its first-ever bilateral APA in FY 2025-26?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Sweden

FY 2025-26 saw India's first-ever bilateral APAs with France, Ireland, Indonesia and Sweden.

Q59 Advanced

Consider the following statements about India's APA programme (as of March 2026): 1. The total number of APAs since inception is 1,034. 2. Bilateral APAs outnumber unilateral APAs in the total. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

The total is 1,034 APAs, comprising 750 unilateral and 284 bilateral APAs, so unilateral APAs are more.

CBIC removes ₹10 lakh cap on courier export consignments from 1 April 2026
Q60

From 1 April 2026, CBIC removed which value cap per consignment on courier exports?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — ₹10 lakh

The existing ₹10 lakh value limit per consignment for courier exports was completely removed from 1 April 2026.

Q61 Advanced

Under CBIC's new Return to Origin (RTO) mechanism, uncleared courier imports will be returned after how many days?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 15 days

Uncleared courier imports beyond 15 days are to be returned through a simplified RTO process.

WTO's 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14) concludes in Yaoundé, Cameroon
Q62

The 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14) of the WTO, which concluded on 30 March 2026, was held in:

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Yaoundé, Cameroon

MC14 was held in Yaoundé, Cameroon, and concluded on 30 March 2026.

Q63

Who led the Indian delegation at the WTO's MC14?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Piyush Goyal

Union Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal led the Indian delegation to MC14.

Q64 Advanced

At MC14, India did not agree to incorporating which agreement into the WTO framework as an Annex 4 agreement?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Investment Facilitation for Development Agreement

India did not agree to incorporation of the Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) Agreement as an Annex 4 agreement.

Q65 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the outcomes of WTO MC14: 1. Members reached convergence on extending the moratorium on customs duties on electronic transmissions. 2. Ministers agreed to continue fisheries subsidies negotiations with the aim of making recommendations to MC15. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Convergence could not be reached on the e-commerce moratorium; ministers agreed to continue fisheries subsidies negotiations aiming at recommendations to MC15.

Industrial output (IIP) grows 5.2% in February 2026; manufacturing up 6.0%
Q66

What was India's IIP growth rate for February 2026 as per the Quick Estimate released on 30 March 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 5.2%

IIP grew 5.2% in February 2026 (4.8% in January 2026); manufacturing grew 6.0% and mining 3.1%.

Q67 Advanced

Which of the three IIP sectors recorded the lowest growth in February 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Electricity

Growth in February 2026: mining 3.1%, manufacturing 6.0%, electricity 2.3% – electricity was the lowest.

Mineral (Auction) Second Amendment Rules, 2026 notified for faster operationalisation of mines
Q68 Advanced

Under the Mineral (Auction) Second Amendment Rules, 2026, a non-feasible portion of a mineral block can be excluded if it contains less than what share of the block's estimated mineral resources?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 25%

The rules allow exclusion of non-feasible portions holding less than 25% of the block's total estimated resources.

Q69 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Mineral (Auction) Second Amendment Rules, 2026: 1. For blocks auctioned after 30 March 2026, the additional two-year period for executing a mining lease is available to all blocks regardless of forest land. 2. A unified mining portal will issue the letter of intent automatically on receipt of the first instalment of upfront payment and/or performance security. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Only 2 is correct. The extra two years beyond the initial three is now allowed only for blocks involving forest land.

Q70

On which date did the Ministry of Mines notify the Mineral (Auction) Second Amendment Rules, 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 30 March 2026

The rules were notified on 30 March 2026; the previous amendment to the Auction Rules was on 17 October 2025, and the MMDR Amendment Act, 2025 took effect on 1 September 2025.

Mineral Concession (Second Amendment) Rules, 2026 allow contiguous area and associated minerals in leases
Q71 Advanced

Under the Mineral Concession (Second Amendment) Rules, 2026, the one-time addition of contiguous area to a mining lease for deep-seated minerals cannot exceed what share of the existing area?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 10%

The Ministry of Mines said the contiguous area cannot exceed 10% for a mining lease and 30% for a composite licence.

Q72 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Mineral Concession (Second Amendment) Rules, 2026: 1. State governments must permit inclusion of an associated mineral in a mining lease within 30 days of the application. 2. Future mining leases for minor minerals other than sand will be granted only after exploration up to G3 level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct as per the Ministry of Mines release.

MeitY approves 29 more ECMS proposals worth ₹7,104 crore, incl. India's first rare earth magnet plant
Q73

On 30 March 2026, how many more proposals were approved under the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS)?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 29

MeitY approved 29 more proposals under ECMS, after 46 applications approved earlier.

Q74 Advanced

The ECMS approvals of 30 March 2026 include India's first facility for which of the following?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Rare earth permanent magnets

The approvals include India's first SMD passive plant for tantalum capacitors, first flexible PCB plant and first rare earth permanent magnet facility.

Q75 Advanced

The 29 ECMS proposals approved on 30 March 2026 are expected to generate how many direct jobs?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 14,246

The approvals are expected to generate 14,246 direct jobs, with projected investment of ₹7,104 crore and production of ₹84,515 crore.