SF Prep Notes

Karnataka Current Affairs Quiz — All time

Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.

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247 news · 581 MCQs
Score: 0 / 0 attempted · 78 questions
₹720 crore quantum fabrication facilities announced at IIT Bombay, IISc, IIT Kanpur and IIT Delhi
Q1

Under which mission were ₹720 crore Quantum Fabrication and Central Facilities announced in November 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — National Quantum Mission

The four facilities worth ₹720 crore were announced under the National Quantum Mission.

Q2 Advanced

Which of the following institutions is NOT among the four sites of the Quantum Fabrication and Central Facilities announced in November 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — IIT Madras

The four facilities are at IIT Bombay, IISc Bengaluru, IIT Kanpur and IIT Delhi; IIT Madras is not among them.

Q3 Advanced

The Technology Innovation Hub (TIH) at IIT Bombay, which supports 96 technology projects and over 50 deep-tech start-ups, functions under which mission?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems

The TIH at IIT Bombay is under the National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS).

CSIR–ISRO Space Meet 2025 held in Bengaluru for human spaceflight preparedness
Q4 Advanced

Which institute was the nodal host of the CSIR–ISRO Space Meet 2025 in Bengaluru?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — CSIR–National Aerospace Laboratories

The meet was hosted by CSIR–National Aerospace Laboratories (CSIR–NAL), Bengaluru, the nodal organising institute.

New Mangalore Port Authority marks Golden Jubilee with ₹1,500 crore projects
Q5

The New Mangalore Port Authority, which celebrated its Golden Jubilee in November 2025, is located in which state?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Karnataka

The New Mangalore Port Authority is at Mangaluru, Karnataka.

Q6 Advanced

What cargo-handling target has the New Mangalore Port Authority set for 2047?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 100 million tonnes

Sonowal said NMPA, with a usable capacity of 74 MT and over 46 MT handled a year, aims to reach 100 million tonnes by 2047.

Q7 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the New Mangalore Port Authority, as stated at its Golden Jubilee in November 2025: 1. It began operations in 1975 with four berths. 2. It is 100% solar powered. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Sonowal said the port began in 1975 with four berths and 90,000 tonnes of cargo, and that it has become 100% solar powered.

Indian Navy sets up its tenth recruitment centre at INS Kadamba, Karwar
Q8 Advanced

With the new centre at INS Kadamba, Karwar, how many recruitment establishments does the Indian Navy have across India?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Ten

The Navy said INS Kadamba became its tenth recruitment establishment pan-India.

Q9

INS Kadamba, where the Indian Navy opened a new recruitment centre in November 2025, is located at Karwar in which state?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Karnataka

INS Kadamba is at Karwar in Karnataka, under the Flag Officer Commanding Karnataka Naval Area.

India–Sri Lanka Exercise Mitra Shakti XI begins at Belagavi
Q10

Where did the 11th edition of the India–Sri Lanka joint military exercise Mitra Shakti begin on 10 November 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Belagavi, Karnataka

Mitra Shakti XI began at the Foreign Training Node, Belagavi, Karnataka.

Q11 Advanced

Which Sri Lankan Army regiment mainly represented Sri Lanka at Exercise Mitra Shakti 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Gajaba Regiment

The 135-strong Sri Lankan side was mainly from the Gajaba Regiment; the Indian side was mainly from the Rajput Regiment.

Q12 Advanced

Exercise Mitra Shakti 2025 aims to jointly rehearse sub-conventional operations under which Chapter of the United Nations mandate?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Chapter VII

The Defence Ministry said the aim is to rehearse sub-conventional operations under Chapter VII of the UN mandate. Chapter VI covers peaceful settlement of disputes.

Vice-President Radhakrishnan attends Acharya Shantisagar centenary at Shravanabelagola
Q13 Advanced

The centenary commemorated at Shravanabelagola on 9 November 2025 marked Acharya Shantisagar Maharaj's 1925 visit for which ceremony?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Mahamastakabhisheka

The event marked the centenary of Acharya Shantisagar Maharaj's visit to Shravanabelagola in 1925 for the Mahamastakabhisheka ceremony.

Q14

At Shravanabelagola in November 2025, Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan praised the government's recognition of which language as a classical language?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Prakrit

The Vice-President praised the recognition of Prakrit as a classical language and manuscript digitisation under the Gyan Bharatam Mission.

PM Modi flags off four new Vande Bharat Express trains from Varanasi
Q15

Which of the following Vande Bharat Express trains was flagged off by PM Modi from Varanasi on 8 November 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Banaras–Khajuraho

The four trains were Banaras–Khajuraho, Firozpur–Delhi, Lucknow–Saharanpur and Ernakulam–Bengaluru.

Q16 Advanced

With the four new trains flagged off on 8 November 2025, the number of operational Vande Bharat trains in India crossed which figure?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 160

PM Modi said that with these four trains, the total number of operational Vande Bharat trains had exceeded 160.

Q17 Advanced

Consider the following trains: 1. Lucknow–Saharanpur Vande Bharat 2. Patna–Howrah Vande Bharat Which of the above was/were among the four Vande Bharat trains flagged off from Varanasi on 8 November 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Lucknow–Saharanpur was among the four (with Banaras–Khajuraho, Firozpur–Delhi and Ernakulam–Bengaluru); Patna–Howrah was not.

Third India–France AI Policy Roundtable held at IISc Bengaluru ahead of AI Impact Summit 2026
Q18

Where was the Third India–France AI Policy Roundtable held on 7 November 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — IISc Bengaluru

The roundtable was held at the Council Chamber, Main Building, IISc Bengaluru.

Q19 Advanced

Who co-chaired the Third India–France AI Policy Roundtable from the French side?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Anne Bouverot

It was co-chaired by Anne Bouverot, Special Envoy of the French President for Artificial Intelligence, and Amit A. Shukla of the MEA.

NITI Aayog holds national workshop on reuse of treated wastewater in Bengaluru
Q20

In which city did NITI Aayog hold the National Workshop on 'Reuse of Treated Wastewater in India' on 6–7 November 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Bengaluru

The workshop was organised with the Government of Karnataka and BWSSB in Bengaluru on 6–7 November 2025.

Q21 Advanced

NITI Aayog's November 2025 workshop on reuse of treated wastewater was organised under which NITI Aayog initiative?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — State Support Mission

The workshop was organised under NITI Aayog's State Support Mission.

QNu Labs demonstrates India's first 500-km Quantum Key Distribution network
Q22

Which Bengaluru-based startup demonstrated India's first extensive Quantum Key Distribution network spanning over 500 km, announced in November 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — QNu Labs

QNu Labs Pvt. Ltd., Bengaluru, one of 8 startups supported under the National Quantum Mission, demonstrated the network.

Q23 Advanced

The Quantum Key Distribution network demonstrated by QNu Labs and announced at ESTIC 2025 spans over how many kilometres?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 500 km

The QKD network, deployed over existing optical fibre, spans over 500 kilometres.

Q24 Advanced

The National Quantum Mission, which supports QNu Labs, was approved by the Union Cabinet in April 2023 at what total cost?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — ₹6,003.65 crore

The Cabinet approved the NQM on 19 April 2023 at a total cost of ₹6,003.65 crore for 2023–24 to 2030–31.

Karnataka, Kerala, Haryana, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh mark formation days on 1 November
Q25 Advanced

Haryana, which celebrates Haryana Day on 1 November, was formed in 1966 under which Act?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966

Section 3 of the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966 formed the State of Haryana on the appointed day, 1 November 1966.

Q26 Advanced

Consider the following statements: 1. The Union Territory of Chandigarh was formed on 1 November 1966 under the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966. 2. 1 November 2000 was notified as the appointed day of the Madhya Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2000, which created Chhattisgarh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. Section 4 of the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966 formed the UT of Chandigarh on 1 November 1966, and MHA notified 1 November 2000 as the appointed day of the Madhya Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2000.

Q27 Advanced

Under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, the new State of Kerala was formed on 1 November 1956 from which existing State?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Travancore-Cochin

The Act defines the new State of Kerala as corresponding to the existing State of Travancore-Cochin.

Q28 Advanced

At the Chhattisgarh Rajat Mahotsav in Nava Raipur on 1 November 2025, marking 25 years of the state, the PM inaugurated and laid foundation stones for projects worth over:

Show answer

Correct answer: A — ₹14,260 crore

PIB reported that the PM inaugurated and laid foundation stones for projects worth over ₹14,260 crore covering roads, industry, healthcare and energy.

First regional meeting of Urban Development Ministers of southern states held in Bengaluru
Q29

Where was the first regional meeting of Urban Development Ministers of southern states and UTs held on 30 October 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Bengaluru

The first regional meeting was held in Bengaluru under the chairmanship of Union Minister Manohar Lal.

DRDO hands over 12 technology transfer licences for eight products at SAMANVAY 2025 in Bengaluru
Q30 Advanced

At SAMANVAY 2025 on 29 October 2025, DRDO handed over how many Licensing Agreements for Transfer of Technology, and for how many products?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 12 agreements for 8 products

DRDO handed over 12 LATOTs for eight products to industry partners.

Q31

In which city was DRDO's industry meet SAMANVAY 2025 held?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Bengaluru

SAMANVAY 2025 was organised by DRDO's ECS cluster in Bengaluru on 29-30 October 2025.

APEDA facilitates first-ever air shipment of GI-tagged Indi and Puliyankudi limes to the UK
Q32

The GI-tagged Indi lime, shipped by air to the UK for the first time on 28 October 2025, comes from which district of Karnataka?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Vijayapura

PIB: 350 kg of GI-tagged Indi Lime from Vijayapura, Karnataka was part of the consignment.

Q33 Advanced

Puliyankudi, often called the 'Lemon City of Tamil Nadu', lies in which district?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Tenkasi

PIB: Puliyankudi, often referred to as the 'Lemon City of Tamil Nadu', lies in Tenkasi district.

Q34 Advanced

When did the Puliyankudi lime officially receive its Geographical Indication (GI) tag?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — April 2025

PIB: the Puliyankudi lime officially received its GI tag in April 2025.

Shivraj Singh Chouhan inaugurates NSC seed processing plants, launches Seed Management 2.0
Q35 Advanced

In which year was the National Seeds Corporation (NSC), a Mini Ratna Category-I company, established?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 1963

PIB: since its establishment in 1963, NSC has been producing and supplying quality seeds to farmers.

Q36

Which system did Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan launch along with an online seed booking platform on 27 October 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Seed Management 2.0

PIB: Chouhan launched the 'Seed Management 2.0' system and an online seed booking platform for farmers.

Mines Ministry recognises IISc Bangalore and C-MET Hyderabad as critical-mineral Centres of Excellence
Q37 Advanced

Which two institutes were recognised as Centres of Excellence under the National Critical Mineral Mission in October 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — IISc Bangalore and C-MET Hyderabad

PIB: the Ministry of Mines recognised IISc Bangalore and the Centre for Materials for Electronics Technology (C-MET), Hyderabad, besides 7 institutes recognised earlier.

Q38 Advanced

After the October 2025 recognition, how many Centres of Excellence are there under the National Critical Mineral Mission, and on what model do they operate?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 9; hub-and-spoke consortium

PIB: with 2 new CoEs added to the 7 recognised earlier, there are 9. Each operates as a consortium on a Hub & Spoke model, with at least two industry and two R&D/academic partners; together they have about 90 spokes.

Year-long 200th anniversary of Rani Chennamma's Kittur victory ends; ₹200 coin released
Q39 Advanced

The 200th anniversary commemoration that concluded in October 2025 marked Rani Chennamma's victory at Kittur against the British in which year?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1824

PIB: the commemoration marked 200 years of Rani Chennamma's victory at Kittur, where she defended Kittur against the British force in 1824.

Q40 Advanced

What was the denomination of the special commemorative coin released in October 2025 to mark 200 years of Rani Chennamma's victory at Kittur?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — ₹200

PIB: a special commemorative coin of ₹200 denomination was released by Union Minister Gajendra Singh Shekhawat.

Kurnool bus fire: 19 passengers and a motorcyclist killed near Chinnatekur; PM announces ex-gratia
Q41

The private sleeper bus that caught fire near Chinnatekur in Kurnool district on 24 October 2025 was travelling on which route?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Hyderabad to Bengaluru

The Hindu and Indian Express: the V. Kaveri Travels bus was travelling from Hyderabad to Bengaluru when it hit a motorcycle and caught fire near Kurnool.

Q42 Advanced

What ex-gratia did the Prime Minister announce from the PMNRF after the Kurnool bus fire of October 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — ₹2 lakh per deceased and ₹50,000 per injured

PIB: an ex-gratia of ₹2 lakh from PMNRF for the next of kin of each deceased and ₹50,000 to the injured.

PM Modi celebrates Diwali with Navy personnel on board INS Vikrant off Goa and Karwar
Q43

Off which coastal locations did PM Modi celebrate Diwali 2025 with naval personnel on INS Vikrant?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Goa and Karwar

PIB: the PM said he was among naval personnel on the western seaboard off Goa and Karwar, with INS Vikrant as the flagship.

Q44 Advanced

Which song written by naval personnel did PM Modi mention from the cultural programme on INS Vikrant in October 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Kasam Sindoor Ki

PIB: the PM said the naval personnel penned a song 'Kasam Sindoor Ki' which will remain etched in his memory.

Q45 Advanced

Consider the following statements based on PM Modi's remarks on INS Vikrant (October 2025): 1. INS Vikrant was commissioned at Mumbai. 2. INS Vikrant is the largest warship constructed indigenously. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Only 2 is correct. PIB: the PM called it the largest warship constructed indigenously and recalled the programme in Kochi when it was commissioned — not Mumbai.

Centre approves advance release of ₹1,950.80 crore SDRF share to Karnataka and Maharashtra
Q46

Of the ₹1,950.80 crore SDRF advance approved in October 2025, which state received the larger share?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Maharashtra

PIB: Maharashtra was approved ₹1,566.40 crore and Karnataka ₹384.40 crore out of ₹1,950.80 crore.

Q47 Advanced

As of 19 October 2025, how much had the Centre released to states under SDRF during 2025-26?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — ₹13,603.20 crore to 27 states

PIB: the Centre released ₹13,603.20 crore to 27 states under SDRF; the other figures relate to NDRF (₹2,189.28 crore), SDMF (₹4,571.30 crore) and NDMF (₹372.09 crore).

Q48 Advanced

Consider the following statements about disaster response funding and deployment in 2025: 1. The advance release to Karnataka and Maharashtra was the second instalment of the Central share of SDRF for 2025-26. 2. During the 2025 monsoon, NDRF teams were deployed in only 15 States/UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: the ₹1,950.80 crore was the 2nd instalment of the Central share of SDRF; up to 199 NDRF teams were deployed in 30 States/UTs (15 is the number of states that received NDRF funds).

100th Network Planning Group meeting under PM GatiShakti evaluates five rail, road and metro projects
Q49

Jaipur Metro Phase 2, evaluated at the 100th NPG meeting under PM GatiShakti, is a north–south corridor between which two points?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Prahladpura and Todi Mod

PIB: MoHUA proposed Jaipur Metro Phase 2, a 42.8 km north–south corridor from Prahladpura to Todi Mod with 36 stations.

Q50 Advanced

The Gondia–Jabalpur railway doubling project evaluated at the 100th NPG meeting covers about how many kilometres, across which states?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 230.5 km; Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh

PIB: the Ministry of Railways proposed doubling of the Gondia–Jabalpur line, covering 230.5 km across Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. The 65 km project is Hosapete–Ballari in Karnataka.

Q51 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the 100th meeting of the Network Planning Group (October 2025): 1. It evaluated five projects, including one metro rail project of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. 2. The Mahwa–Mandawar section evaluated at the meeting is part of NH-921 in Rajasthan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. PIB: the NPG evaluated 5 projects — 2 MoRTH road, 2 rail and 1 MoHUA metro project; the Mahwa–Mandawar stretch is on National Highway 921 in Rajasthan.

New Mangalore Port Authority marks Golden Jubilee curtain raiser; eight maritime projects launched
Q52

New Mangalore Port Authority, which began its Golden Jubilee celebrations in October 2025, is India's which major port, established in 1975?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Ninth

PIB: Sonowal said the New Mangalore Port, 'our ninth major port established in 1975', has become a key hub for the region.

Q53 Advanced

According to the Ports Minister in October 2025, how many projects are being implemented under Sagarmala by 2035, and at what total value?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 840 projects worth ₹5.8 lakh crore

PIB: under Sagarmala, 840 projects worth ₹5.8 lakh crore are being implemented by 2035; 272 worth ₹1.41 lakh crore are complete and 217 worth ₹1.65 lakh crore are under way.

Navy Chief inaugurates residential towers under Project Seabird Phase IIA at Karwar
Q54

Project Seabird, under whose Phase IIA housing was inaugurated in October 2025, is being developed at which naval base?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Karwar

PIB: Adm Dinesh K Tripathi inaugurated residential accommodation as part of Project Seabird Phase IIA at Naval Base, Karwar, on 14 October 2025.

Q55 Advanced

Which of the following is included in Phase IIA of Project Seabird, as stated by the Navy in October 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — A dual-use Naval Air Station and four covered dry berths

PIB: Phase IIA also includes a dual-use Naval Air Station, a full-fledged Naval Dockyard, four Covered Dry Berths and logistics for ships and aircraft.

DoT and ITU host 'Robotics for Good Youth Challenge India 2025' at IMC; winners to represent India in Geneva
Q56

The 'Robotics for Good Youth Challenge India 2025' at IMC 2025 was co-hosted by the Department of Telecommunications and which UN agency?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — International Telecommunication Union

PIB: the event was co-hosted by DoT and the International Telecommunication Union (ITU); it is a flagship of ITU's AI for Good programme.

Q57 Advanced

Where will the winners of the Robotics for Good Youth Challenge India 2025 represent India at the Global Grand Finale?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Geneva, July 2026

PIB: Team Heyansh (Junior) and The Ambitious Avengers (Senior) will represent India at the Global Grand Finale in Geneva, Switzerland, in July 2026.

Q58 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Robotics for Good Youth Challenge India 2025: 1. Students aged 10 to 18 developed solutions focusing on agriculture and food security. 2. It was organised in partnership with the Technology Innovation Hub of IIT Bombay. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: students aged 10–18 tackled agriculture and food security; the partner was the I-Hub Foundation for Cobotics (IHFC), the Technology Innovation Hub of IIT Delhi, not IIT Bombay.

Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 launched: 60-day drive, 4th National Tobacco Testing Laboratory at NIMHANS
Q59 Advanced

What is the duration of the Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 launched in October 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 60 days

PIB: the 60-day Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 prioritises six enhanced key strategies.

Q60 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Tobacco Free Youth Campaign: 1. The first campaign was launched on 31 May 2023 to mark World No Tobacco Day. 2. At the launch of TFYC 3.0, the 4th National Tobacco Testing Laboratory was dedicated at AIIMS, New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: the inaugural campaign was launched on 31 May 2023 to mark World No Tobacco Day; the 4th National Tobacco Testing Laboratory was dedicated at NIMHANS, Bengaluru, not AIIMS.

Defence Ministry signs ₹62,370 crore contract with HAL for 97 LCA Mk1A jets
Q61

How many LCA Mk1A aircraft did the Defence Ministry contract from HAL on 25 September 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 97

The contract covers 97 LCA Mk1A aircraft – 68 fighters and 29 twin-seaters.

Q62 Advanced

What is the approximate value of the LCA Mk1A contract signed with HAL on 25 September 2025 (excluding taxes)?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — ₹62,370 crore

The contract is worth over ₹62,370 crore, excluding taxes.

Q63 Advanced

Under which Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020 category is the 97 LCA Mk1A purchase made?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Buy (India-IDDM)

The acquisition is under the 'Buy (India-IDDM)' category of DAP 2020.

Q64 Advanced

Which indigenous radar is among the systems to be integrated in the 97 LCA Mk1A aircraft ordered in September 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — UTTAM AESA

Indigenous systems to be integrated include the UTTAM AESA radar, Swayam Raksha Kavach and control surface actuators.

Q65 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the LCA Mk1A contract of September 2025: 1. Deliveries will begin in 2027-28. 2. The aircraft will have an indigenous content of over 80%. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: deliveries start in 2027-28 and will be completed over six years. Statement 2 is wrong: indigenous content will be over 64%.

ECI says no vote can be deleted online by the public; clarifies on Aland deletion attempts
Q66 Advanced

Which form can an elector file to apply for deletion of an entry from the electoral roll, as referred to by the ECI in September 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Form 7

Form 7 is used to apply for deletion of an entry; filing it does not by itself delete the entry.

Q67 Advanced

Consider the following statements based on the ECI's statement of 19 September 2025: 1. Under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960, no name is deleted without notice to the affected person and an opportunity of being heard. 2. Of 6,018 online deletion applications in Aland, Karnataka, 5,994 were accepted. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 only

Only statement 1 is correct: only 24 of the 6,018 Aland applications were found genuine and accepted, while 5,994 were rejected.

Seven Indian natural heritage sites added to UNESCO's Tentative List; India's count rises to 69
Q68

After seven natural sites were added in September 2025, how many Indian properties are on UNESCO's Tentative List of World Heritage Sites?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 69

The inclusion of seven natural sites raised India's count on the Tentative List from 62 to 69 properties.

Q69 Advanced

Which cave serves as the global reference point for the Meghalayan Age of the Holocene Epoch, as cited in the UNESCO Tentative List addition of September 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Mawmluh Cave

The Meghalayan Age Caves, particularly Mawmluh Cave, serve as the global reference point for the Meghalayan Age in the Holocene Epoch.

Q70 Advanced

The Eparchaean Unconformity and the Silathoranam natural arch are features of which site added to UNESCO's Tentative List in September 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Tirumala Hills

Tirumala Hills in Andhra Pradesh feature the Eparchaean Unconformity and the Silathoranam (natural arch), representing over 1.5 billion years of Earth's history.

Q71 Advanced

Consider the following pairs of sites added to UNESCO's Tentative List in September 2025 and their states: 1. Naga Hill Ophiolite — Nagaland 2. Erra Matti Dibbalu — Kerala Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 1 only

Only pair 1 is correct. Naga Hill Ophiolite is in Nagaland, but Erra Matti Dibbalu (Red Sand Hills) is near Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh; the Kerala site is Varkala Cliffs.

Q72 Advanced

Consider the following statements about UNESCO's Tentative List as described in the Ministry of Culture release of 18 September 2025: 1. Inclusion in the Tentative List is a prerequisite for a site to be nominated to the World Heritage List. 2. After the September 2025 additions, cultural properties make up the largest share of India's Tentative List. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. Under UNESCO's protocol, Tentative List inclusion is a prerequisite for nomination, and India's 69 properties comprise 49 cultural, 17 natural and 3 mixed sites.

ARM opens new Bengaluru office; 2 nm chips to be designed in India, says Vaishnaw
Q73

In which city did Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw inaugurate the new office of semiconductor design company ARM on 16 September 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Bengaluru

Ashwini Vaishnaw inaugurated ARM's new office in Bengaluru on 16 September 2025.

Q74 Advanced

Chips of which node did Ashwini Vaishnaw say would be designed at ARM's new Bengaluru unit?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 2 nm

Vaishnaw said the new Bengaluru unit of ARM will design chips including 2 nm chips for products such as mobile phones.

Q75 Advanced

According to Ashwini Vaishnaw at the ARM office launch in September 2025, what is the current size of India's electronics industry?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — ₹11.5 lakh crore

Vaishnaw said the current Indian electronics industry is worth ₹11.5 lakh crore.

11th CPA India Region Conference concludes in Bengaluru
Q76

Which state legislature hosted the 11th CPA India Region Conference that concluded on 13 September 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Karnataka

The 11th Commonwealth Parliamentary Association India Region Conference was hosted by the Karnataka Legislature in Bengaluru from 11 to 13 September 2025.

Q77 Advanced

Who is the President of the Commonwealth Parliamentary Association (CPA) India Region, as stated at the 11th CPA India Region Conference?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Lok Sabha Speaker

Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla addressed the conference as President of the CPA India Region.

Q78 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the 11th CPA India Region Conference: 1. Its theme centred on dialogue and discussion in legislative institutions as a foundation of public trust. 2. The valedictory address was delivered by the Chief Justice of the Karnataka High Court. Which of the above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct: the theme was 'Dialogue and Discussion in Legislative Institutions: A Foundation of Public Trust and a Means to Fulfill Public Aspirations'. Statement 2 is incorrect: the valedictory address was delivered by Karnataka Governor Thaawar Chand Gehlot.