India Current Affairs Quiz — Last 6 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
In April 2026 the Union Cabinet extended PMGSY-III up to which month and year for roads in plain areas?
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Correct answer: D — March 2028
PMGSY-III was continued beyond March 2025 up to March 2028; only bridges in hilly areas get till March 2029.
Consider the following statements about the April 2026 decision on PMGSY-III: 1. The outlay of the scheme was revised upward from ₹80,250 crore to ₹83,977 crore. 2. The deadline for completing bridges in hilly areas was set at March 2029. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Cabinet decision of 18 April 2026.
Under PMGSY-III, Through Routes and Major Rural Links are consolidated to connect habitations to which of the following? 1. Gramin Agricultural Markets (GrAMs) 2. Higher secondary schools 3. Hospitals 4. Railway stations Select the correct answer:
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Correct answer: B — 1, 2 and 3 only
The Cabinet release lists GrAMs, higher secondary schools and hospitals; railway stations are not mentioned.
The Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool approved by the Cabinet in April 2026 is backed by a sovereign guarantee of:
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Correct answer: D — ₹12,980 crore
The BMI pool has a sovereign guarantee of ₹12,980 crore; ₹950 crore is its combined underwriting capacity.
Consider the following statements about the Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool: 1. It covers only Indian-flagged vessels and excludes foreign vessels bound for Indian ports. 2. It covers War risk in addition to Hull and Machinery, Cargo and P&I risks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the pool covers Indian-flagged or controlled vessels and also vessels destined to or starting from India. Statement 2 is correct.
The Cabinet cited high dependence of Indian vessels on which body for Protection and Indemnity (P&I) cover of third-party liabilities such as oil pollution and wreck removal?
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Correct answer: B — International Group of P&I Clubs (IGP&I)
The release says Indian vessels depend heavily on the International Group of Protection and Indemnity (IGP&I) Club for P&I insurance.
According to the PIB backgrounder of April 2026, how many centrally protected monuments does the Archaeological Survey of India safeguard?
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Correct answer: D — 3,686
The backgrounder says the ASI safeguards 3,686 centrally protected monuments.
Consider the following statements, based on the PIB backgrounder on monuments (April 2026): 1. India has 44 UNESCO World Heritage Sites, the latest being the Maratha Military Landscapes. 2. The Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958 empowers the government, through the ASI, to regulate construction around protected monuments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the backgrounder.
The Rajahmundry (Nidadavolu)–Visakhapatnam (Duvvada) 3rd and 4th line approved by the CCEA in April 2026 is located in which state?
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Correct answer: C — Andhra Pradesh
Nidadavolu–Duvvada is in Andhra Pradesh; the two projects together cover 15 districts of UP and AP.
The Ghaziabad–Sitapur section, approved for 3rd and 4th lines in April 2026, forms part of which High Density Network of Indian Railways?
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Correct answer: B — Delhi–Guwahati (HDN 4)
The CCEA release says Ghaziabad–Sitapur is a key part of the Delhi–Guwahati High Density Network (HDN 4).
The DA/DR instalment approved by the Cabinet on 18 April 2026 raised the rate by 2% over an existing rate of what percentage of basic pay/pension?
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Correct answer: D — 58%
The increase is 2% over the existing rate of 58% of basic pay/pension.
The formula used to revise Dearness Allowance for Central Government employees, as cited in the April 2026 Cabinet decision, is based on the recommendations of:
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Correct answer: B — 7th Central Pay Commission
The Cabinet release says the increase is in accordance with the accepted formula based on the recommendations of the 7th Central Pay Commission.
Who was appointed Secretary in the Rajya Sabha Secretariat with effect from 18 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Dr K.S. Somashekhar
Rajya Sabha Chairman C.P. Radhakrishnan appointed Dr K.S. Somashekhar as Secretary from 18 April 2026.
Consider the following statements about Dr K.S. Somashekhar, appointed Secretary in the Rajya Sabha Secretariat in April 2026: 1. He joined the Rajya Sabha Secretariat in 1993. 2. He has served in senior capacities in the Government of Karnataka. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Rajya Sabha Secretariat release.
The Technology and Policy Expert Committee (TPEC) constituted by MeitY in April 2026 is chaired by:
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Correct answer: A — Secretary, MeitY
The TPEC is chaired by the Secretary, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
Consider the following statements about India's AI governance architecture as described by MeitY in April 2026: 1. The AI Governance and Economic Group (AIGEG) sets strategic direction and coordinates policy across government. 2. The TPEC is a temporary task force that will be dissolved after drafting a single report. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the TPEC is a standing expert advisory body.
How many women are among the 958 candidates recommended in the Civil Services Examination 2025, as stated by the Personnel Minister in April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 299
Out of 958 recommended candidates, 299 are women, over 31% of the total.
According to Union Minister Jitendra Singh, women formed roughly what share of successful Civil Services candidates about a decade before CSE 2025?
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Correct answer: B — About 20%
The Minister said women were roughly around 20% of successful candidates a decade ago; the CSE 2025 share is over 31%.
Under which scheme did the Centre approve procurement of 20 LMT of potatoes in Uttar Pradesh in April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Market Intervention Scheme
The potato procurement was approved under the Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) for 2025-26.
Consider the following pairs from the Agriculture Ministry's approvals of 18 April 2026: 1. Uttar Pradesh – Potato procurement of 20 LMT 2. Andhra Pradesh – Tur procurement extended till 15 May 2026 3. Karnataka – Chana procurement limit raised to 1,13,250 MT How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
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Correct answer: A — Only one
Only pair 1 is correct. The chana limit of 1,13,250 MT was for Andhra Pradesh, and the tur extension to 15 May 2026 was for Karnataka.
The 'Run for Nutrition' half marathon held in Mizoram on 18 April 2026 was part of which edition of Poshan Pakhwada?
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Correct answer: C — 8th
The run was organised under the 8th Poshan Pakhwada.
Consider the following statements about the 'Run for Nutrition' event of April 2026: 1. It was organised in Mizoram under the Ministry of Women and Child Development's Poshan Pakhwada. 2. About 5,000 participants took part in it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: about 500 adults and children took part.
Where did the National Health Authority hold its two-day Chintan Shivir on AB PM-JAY and ABDM that concluded on 18 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Pune
The Chintan Shivir was held in Pune, Maharashtra.
At the NHA Chintan Shivir in April 2026, which organisation's team briefed states on the ABDM State Adoption Index?
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Correct answer: A — World Bank
States were briefed by the World Bank team on the ABDM State Adoption Index.
India's indicative Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) blending target in ATF for international flights for the year 2030 is:
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Correct answer: C — 5%
The indicative targets are 1% in 2027, 2% in 2028 and 5% in 2030.
The amendment notified on 17 April 2026 to bring SAF-blended fuel under regulation was made to which instrument?
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Correct answer: D — Aviation Turbine Fuel (Regulation of Marketing) Order, 2001
The Government amended the ATF (Regulation of Marketing) Order, 2001, the ATF Control Order.
Consider the following statements about CORSIA, cited in the April 2026 ATF Control Order amendment: 1. CORSIA is a scheme implemented by the International Civil Aviation Organization to control emissions from international flights. 2. The mandatory phase of CORSIA begins from 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the mandatory phase begins from 2027, requiring international flights to offset emissions above a baseline.
In the Lok Sabha vote of 17 April 2026 on the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, how many members voted in favour and against?
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Correct answer: A — 298 in favour, 230 against
With 528 members present, 298 voted in favour and 230 against (The Hindu, Indian Express); the Bill needed 352.
Under Article 368(2) of the Constitution, a Bill to amend the Constitution must be passed in each House by:
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Correct answer: D — A majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting
Article 368(2) requires both limbs in each House: a majority of the total membership and not less than two-thirds of members present and voting. In April 2026, 298 of 528 met the first limb but not the second (352 needed).
Consider the following statements about the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026, as summarised by PRS Legislative Research: 1. It proposed raising the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha from 550 to 850, with up to 35 members from Union Territories. 2. It proposed raising the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha above 250. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: PRS notes the Bill left the Rajya Sabha maximum of 250 (Article 80) unchanged.
The existing freeze on the allocation of Lok Sabha seats among states, based on the 1971 census, was extended until the first census after 2026 by which Constitutional Amendment?
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Correct answer: C — 84th Amendment, 2001
PRS notes the 42nd Amendment (1976) froze seats on the 1971 census until the first census after 2000, and the 84th Amendment (2001) extended it until the first census after 2026.
Which two countries were added in April 2026 to the eligible destinations under the RELIEF export support intervention?
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Correct answer: B — Egypt and Jordan
Egypt and Jordan were added for shipments meant for delivery or transhipment.
RELIEF – Resilience & Logistics Intervention for Export Facilitation is implemented through which nodal agency?
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Correct answer: C — ECGC
RELIEF is implemented through ECGC as the nodal agency, under the Export Promotion Mission.
Which document was released during the first Naval Commanders' Conference of 2026 (14–17 April 2026)?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Navy Maritime Security Strategy (INMSS-2026)
The Indian Navy Maritime Security Strategy (INMSS-2026) was released during the conference.
The Naval Commanders' Conference concluded in April 2026 was held at which venue?
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Correct answer: D — Nausena Bhawan, New Delhi
The conference was held at Nausena Bhawan, New Delhi, from 14 to 17 April 2026.
Who was elected Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha unopposed on 17 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Harivansh
Harivansh was elected unopposed; the Chairman noted it was his third election to the office.
Consider the following statements about the election of the Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman in April 2026: 1. The election was unopposed. 2. It was Harivansh's first election to the office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Chairman said it was his election to the office for the third time.
According to ECI data up to 17 April 2026, total election-related seizures in Tamil Nadu and West Bengal crossed:
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Correct answer: C — ₹865 crore
Seizures crossed ₹865 crore: ₹438 crore in Tamil Nadu and ₹427 crore in West Bengal.
Consider the following statements about the ECI seizure figures released on 17 April 2026: 1. Tamil Nadu recorded higher total seizures than West Bengal. 2. Cash formed the largest component of the total seizures. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct (₹438 crore vs ₹427 crore). Statement 2 is wrong: freebies/other items (₹350 crore) were the largest; cash was ₹99 crore.
Which state had the highest number of DPIIT-recognised startups as on 31 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Maharashtra
Maharashtra led with 38,660+ recognised startups, followed by Karnataka and Uttar Pradesh.
Consider the following statements about Startup India data released in April 2026: 1. More than 55,200 startups were recognised in FY 2025-26, the highest in a single year. 2. About 48% of recognised startups have at least one woman director or partner. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: 55,200+ were recognised in FY 2025-26, and 1.07 lakh+ (about 48%) have a woman director or partner.
How many coal blocks are offered in the 15th round of commercial coal mine auctions launched on 17 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 11
11 coal blocks are offered (7 fully and 4 partially explored); 6 more are offered in the second attempt of the 13th round.
Consider the following statements about the 15th round of commercial coal mine auctions: 1. Of the 11 blocks, 8 are offered under the MMDR Act, 1957 and 3 under the CMSP Act, 2015. 2. All 11 blocks are coking coal blocks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: only 1 block is coking coal; 10 are non-coking.
India's first water-neutral coaching depot, announced by the Railways in April 2026, is located in:
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Correct answer: D — Ahmedabad
The Kankaria Coaching Depot is in Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
The wastewater treatment at the Kankaria Coaching Depot is based on 'phytoremediation'. This refers to:
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Correct answer: A — Use of plants to remove impurities from water
Phytoremediation is a natural process where plants are used to purify water; the depot uses a wetland-based system.
The Scientific Conclave on Indian Pharmacopoeia 2026, held on 17 April 2026, took place at which institute?
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Correct answer: C — CSIR-IIIM, Jammu
It was held at CSIR-Indian Institute of Integrative Medicine (CSIR-IIIM), Jammu.
The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission organised the IP 2026 conclave in April 2026 in collaboration with:
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Correct answer: B — CSIR
The IPC organised the conclave in collaboration with the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
At its 129th Enforcement Task Force meeting on 17 April 2026, CAQM reviewed how many inspections carried out by its flying squads during the 15-day reporting period?
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Correct answer: D — 162
162 inspections were carried out between 27 March and 10 April 2026, finding 64 violations.
In the CAQM inspections reviewed in April 2026, which category accounted for the largest number of inspections and violations?
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Correct answer: C — Diesel generator sets
DG sets accounted for 109 of 162 inspections and 42 of 64 violations.
The SEZ notified in April 2026 for India's first chip fabrication plant, by Tata Semiconductor Manufacturing, is located at:
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Correct answer: B — Dholera
The SEZ is at Dholera, Gujarat; Sanand hosts Micron's ATMP SEZ and Dharwad the Aequs SEZ.
The amendment to the SEZ Rules, 2006 notified on 3 June 2025 for semiconductor and electronics SEZs reduced the minimum land requirement:
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Correct answer: D — From 50 hectares to 10 hectares
The minimum land requirement was reduced from 50 hectares to 10 hectares.
Consider the following statements about the Dholera SEZ notified in April 2026: 1. It will be spread over 66.166 hectares. 2. It is expected to provide employment to 21,000 persons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Commerce Ministry.
The motion to introduce the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026 in the Lok Sabha on 16 April 2026 was carried by what vote in the division?
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Correct answer: A — 251 to 185
The Hindu and BusinessLine report 251 in favour and 185 against at the introduction stage; 298–230 was the vote on passage on 17 April.
Under the Delimitation Bill, 2026 (as summarised by PRS), the proposed Delimitation Commission would consist of: 1. A chairperson who is or has been a Supreme Court judge 2. The Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner nominated by the CEC 3. The State Election Commissioner of the state concerned 4. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer:
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3 only
PRS lists the chairperson (serving or former SC judge), the CEC or a nominated EC, and the State Election Commissioner; the Speaker is not a member.
The Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2026 proposed that the Delimitation Commission fix the number of Assembly seats at not less than the existing number. Match the UT with that minimum: 1. Puducherry – 30 2. Delhi – 70 3. Jammu and Kashmir – 90 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
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Correct answer: B — Only two
Pairs 1 and 2 are correct. PRS gives the existing figure for Jammu and Kashmir under the 2019 Reorganisation Act as 114, not 90.
Consider the following statements, based on PRS Legislative Research's analysis of the Delimitation Bills of 2026: 1. The last Delimitation Commission was constituted in 2002 and its orders were finalised in 2008. 2. The Delimitation Bill, 2026 provided that the census to be used is the latest one published when the Commission is constituted, implying the 2011 Census. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per PRS.
With which two regulators did FIU-India sign separate MoUs on 16 April 2026 to combat money laundering?
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Correct answer: B — SEBI and PFRDA
FIU-IND signed separate MoUs with SEBI and PFRDA.
The FIU-IND MoUs of April 2026 state that information exchange with foreign financial intelligence units will follow which principles?
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Correct answer: C — Egmont Principles of Information Exchange
The MoUs will assist exchange of information with foreign FIUs through the Egmont Principles of Information Exchange.
GRAP Stage-I was invoked across the NCR on 16 April 2026 when Delhi's daily average AQI was recorded at:
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Correct answer: B — 226
Delhi's AQI was 226, in the 'Poor' category (201–300).
Consider the following statements about the GRAP action of April 2026: 1. The AQI range for the 'Poor' category, as cited by CAQM, is 201–300. 2. Stage-I was applied only to Delhi and not to the rest of the NCR. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Stage-I actions were invoked across the entire NCR.
Who chairs the AI Governance and Economic Group (AIGEG) constituted by MeitY in April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Ashwini Vaishnaw
The AIGEG is chaired by Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw, with MoS Jitin Prasada as Vice Chairperson.
The constitution of the AIGEG gives formal effect to institutional recommendations made in which two documents?
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Correct answer: B — AI Governance Guidelines and the Economic Survey
MeitY says the AIGEG gives effect to recommendations in India's AI Governance Guidelines and the Economic Survey.
The Final Conference of WADA's GAIIN, addressed by the Sports Minister in New Delhi in April 2026, relates to which area?
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Correct answer: A — Anti-doping intelligence and investigations
GAIIN is WADA's Global Anti-Doping Intelligence & Investigations Network.
Which statute did the Sports Minister cite in April 2026 as India's statutory framework against doping, later aligned with global standards by a 2025 amendment?
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Correct answer: B — National Anti-Doping Act, 2022
He cited the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 and the National Anti-Doping Amendment Act, 2025.
In April 2026, the NHRC heard 216 cases of alleged bonded labour in brick kilns of which state?
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Correct answer: D — Uttar Pradesh
The cases related to brick kilns across various districts of Uttar Pradesh.
The law under which bonded labourers are entitled to rescue, release and rehabilitation, cited by the NHRC in April 2026, is the:
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Correct answer: A — Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976
The NHRC cited the Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976 and the Central Sector Scheme.
The Brackishwater Aquaculture Cluster reviewed by the Fisheries Secretary in April 2026 is located at:
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Correct answer: D — Bhimavaram
The review was of the PMMSY Brackishwater Aquaculture Cluster at Bhimavaram, Andhra Pradesh.
The Bhimavaram aquaculture cluster reviewed in April 2026 was notified under which scheme?
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Correct answer: D — Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana
The cluster is notified under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY).