India Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Whom did Madhura Dhamangaonkar beat in the women's compound final at the Archery World Cup Stage 2, Shanghai, on 10 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Carson Krahe
She beat USA's Carson Krahe 139–138 in the final; Hazal Burun was her semi-final opponent and Jyothi Surekha Vennam her quarter-final opponent.
What was the score in Madhura Dhamangaonkar's winning final?
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Correct answer: D — 139–138
She won the final 139–138; 143–141 was her semi-final score and 232–228 the men's team final score.
Consider the following statements about India at the Archery World Cup Stage 2, Shanghai: 1. The men's compound team of Abhishek Verma, Rishabh Yadav and Ojas Deotale beat Mexico 232–228 in the final. 2. Madhura Dhamangaonkar also won women's team silver and compound mixed team bronze with Abhishek Verma. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Which compound archery event is set to mark compound archery's Olympic debut at LA 2028?
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Correct answer: A — Mixed team
The compound mixed team event will feature at LA 2028, marking compound archery's Olympic debut.
IMD installations at which two locations were specifically to receive bolstered security, as per the review of 10 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Srinagar and Leh
The vital IMD installations in Srinagar and Leh were to receive bolstered security.
Consider the following directions given to scientific institutions on 10 May 2025: 1. Upcoming examinations were to be advanced and held immediately. 2. Each institution was to develop and circulate SOPs for emergency response. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Upcoming examinations and research proposal calls were to be postponed until further notice.
Who attended the 10 May 2025 security review as Director General of IMD?
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Correct answer: D — Mrutyunjay Mohapatra
Mrutyunjay Mohapatra is DG, IMD; Abhay Karandikar is Secretary DST, Rajesh Gokhale Secretary DBT and N. Kalaiselvi DG CSIR.
How many households were covered in the first phase of piped natural gas supply in Guwahati inaugurated on 10 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 101
The first phase covered 101 households in the Geetanagar locality; 23 is the approximate number of CNG stations in Assam.
Consider the following statements: 1. Purba Bharati Gas Pvt Ltd is a joint venture of Assam Gas Company Ltd, Oil India Ltd and GAIL Gas Ltd. 2. Barak Valley's first CNG station was inaugurated at Silchar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
About how many CNG stations were operational in Assam at the time of the 10 May 2025 launch?
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Correct answer: A — 23
The Chief Minister said Assam has about 23 CNG stations and more need to be set up.
Preliminary work for piped gas was launched on 10 May 2025 in which areas adjoining Guwahati?
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Correct answer: B — Hajo, Sualkuchi, Rangia and Baihata Chariali
Preliminary work was launched in Hajo, Sualkuchi, Rangia and Baihata Chariali, areas adjoining Guwahati in Kamrup district.
The 'Bharat Bodh Kendra', inaugurated on 10 May 2025, is a new section of which facility?
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Correct answer: A — Habitat Library & Resource Centre, India Habitat Centre
It is a dedicated section of the Habitat Library & Resource Centre at the India Habitat Centre, New Delhi.
Who inaugurated the Bharat Bodh Kendra?
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Correct answer: C — Manohar Lal
Union Minister Manohar Lal inaugurated it; Katikithala Srinivas is IHC President, K. G. Suresh IHC Director and Sanjay Kulshrestha CMD, HUDCO.
Consider the following statements: 1. The India Habitat Centre campus spans 9 acres. 2. The Bharat Bodh Kendra is open to the general public without membership. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The Kendra is accessible to IHC members.
Consider the following statements about the high-level meeting of 10 May 2025: 1. It was held at Rashtrapati Bhavan. 2. It was chaired by the Defence Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the meeting was chaired by PM Narendra Modi at 7, Lok Kalyan Marg; the Defence Minister attended.
Who attended the 10 May 2025 high-level meeting as Chief of Defence Staff?
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Correct answer: B — General Anil Chauhan
CDS General Anil Chauhan attended; Ajit Doval is the NSA and Rajnath Singh the Defence Minister.
Consider the following statements about the training of 10 May 2025: 1. It was organised by DARPG in collaboration with the Capacity Building Commission. 2. The programme comprised four modules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Which of the following was one of the modules of the 'Rashtriya Karmayogi Jan Seva Program' training held on 10 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Who is a Rashtriya Karmayogi?
The four modules were: Who is a Rashtriya Karmayogi?; Expanding Our Vision of Success and Fulfillment; Creating a Karmayogi; Rashtriya Karmayogi as a Nation-Builder.
Consider the following statements about the 72nd Miss World pageant: 1. It opened at the Gachibowli Indoor Stadium, Hyderabad, on 10 May 2025. 2. Its finale was scheduled for 31 May 2025 at the Hitex Exhibition Centre. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Who represented India at the 72nd Miss World pageant?
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Correct answer: B — Nandini Gupta
Nandini Gupta represented India; Krystyna Pyszková was the reigning Miss World and Julia Morley the organisation's Chairperson and CEO.
At the opening of the 72nd Miss World, Perini Natyam was performed by how many children?
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Correct answer: B — 250
A performance of Perini Natyam by 250 children set the tone for the evening.
As reported by India at UNFF20, what share of India's geographical area is under forest and tree cover?
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Correct answer: C — 25.17%
India reported forest and tree cover of 25.17% of its geographical area as per the latest India State of Forest Report.
Consider the following statements about India at UNFF20: 1. India invited all UN Member States to join the International Big Cat Alliance. 2. India recalled the Country-Led Initiative it hosted in Dehradun in October 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct; the Dehradun initiative focused on forest fire management and forest certification.
On which date were PMJJBY, PMSBY and Atal Pension Yojana launched?
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Correct answer: A — 9 May 2015
The three Jan Suraksha schemes were launched by PM Narendra Modi on 9 May 2015.
Which Jan Suraksha scheme had over 51 crore cumulative enrolments as on 23 April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — PMSBY
PMSBY had over 51.06 crore enrolments; PMJJBY had over 23.63 crore and APY over 7.66 crore.
Consider the following statements (data as on 23 April 2025): 1. More than 7.66 crore individuals had subscribed to the Atal Pension Yojana. 2. ₹3,121.02 crore had been paid under PMJJBY. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. ₹3,121.02 crore was paid under PMSBY; PMJJBY payouts were ₹18,397.92 crore.
After the expansion notified in May 2025, what is the ceiling on guarantee cover per borrower under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20 crore
The ceiling was raised from ₹10 crore to ₹20 crore.
Consider the following statements about the expanded CGSS: 1. Guarantee cover is 85% of the amount in default for loans up to ₹10 crore. 2. The Annual Guarantee Fee for startups in Champion Sectors was raised to 2% per annum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The Annual Guarantee Fee for Champion Sectors was reduced from 2% to 1% per annum.
The reduced Annual Guarantee Fee under the expanded CGSS applies to startups in how many Champion Sectors?
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Correct answer: D — 27
The fee was cut to 1% for startups in 27 Champion Sectors identified under 'Make in India'.
To which rating did Morningstar DBRS upgrade India's long-term foreign and local currency issuer ratings in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — BBB
The ratings were upgraded from BBB (low) to BBB with a Stable trend.
Consider the following statements about the Morningstar DBRS upgrade: 1. India's short-term ratings were upgraded to R-1 (low). 2. The agency cited average GDP growth of 6.5% during FY22–25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: short-term ratings went to R-2 (high) from R-2 (middle), and average growth cited was 8.2%.
On which date was the India–New Zealand FTA launched by Piyush Goyal and Todd McClay?
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Correct answer: A — 16 March 2025
The FTA was launched on 16 March 2025; the first round was held from 5 to 9 May 2025.
Consider the following statements: 1. The first round of India–New Zealand FTA negotiations was held from 5 to 9 May 2025 in New Delhi. 2. India–New Zealand merchandise trade reached USD 1.3 billion in 2024–25, a growth of 48.6%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Commerce Ministry release.
Who is New Zealand's Minister for Trade and Investment who launched the FTA with Piyush Goyal?
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Correct answer: B — Todd McClay
Todd McClay is New Zealand's Minister for Trade and Investment; Christopher Luxon is New Zealand's Prime Minister.
How many priority corridors for zero-emission trucking were identified in the report released by the PSA on 9 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 10
The report identified the top 10 corridors from an initial list of 230.
Consider the following statements about the zero-emission trucking report: 1. It notes that nearly 40% of fuel consumption and transport emissions in India originate from long-distance trucks. 2. It was prepared by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The report is by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser.
For what initial period did TRAI recommend that spectrum be assigned for NGSO-based FSS and GSO/NGSO-based MSS?
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Correct answer: B — Up to 5 years
TRAI recommended assignment for up to five years, which the Government may extend by up to two years.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's satellite spectrum recommendations of 9 May 2025: 1. Ku and Ka bands should be considered for user links of Mobile Satellite Services. 2. Satellite earth station gateways should be commissioned within 12 months of permission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. For MSS user links, TRAI recommended L and S bands; C, Ku, Ka and Q/V are for feeder links.
The Victory Day celebrations in Moscow on 9 May 2025, attended by Sanjay Seth, marked which anniversary of the Soviet victory in the Second World War?
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Correct answer: B — 80th
The celebrations commemorated the 80th anniversary of the victory of the Soviet people in the Second World War (1941–45).
Colonel General Alexander Fomin, with whom Sanjay Seth held a bilateral meeting in Moscow, is Russia's:
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Correct answer: B — Deputy Defence Minister
Colonel General Alexander Fomin is Russia's Deputy Defence Minister.
Consider the following statements about the PM's tribute to Rabindranath Tagore on 9 May 2025: 1. It was paid on Tagore's Jayanti. 2. The PM recalled Tagore's efforts in nurturing Sabarmati Ashram. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The PM recalled how Tagore nurtured Santiniketan.
As per the Ayush Ministry, the Second WHO Global Traditional Medicine Summit was to be held in India on:
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Correct answer: D — 2–4 December 2025
The Second WHO Global Traditional Medicine Summit was to be held in India from 2 to 4 December 2025; 23 May 2025 was the GFTM side event at WHA78.
Consider the following statements about the sixth GFTM meeting: 1. It was held at the Permanent Mission of India in Geneva. 2. The GFTM was to host a high-level side event during the 78th World Health Assembly on 23 May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
How many notices did the CCPA issue to e-commerce platforms over the sale of walkie-talkies on 9 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 13
The CCPA issued thirteen notices to digital marketplaces.
Equipment Type Approval (ETA), whose absence the CCPA flagged in walkie-talkie listings, is issued by:
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Correct answer: B — Wireless Planning and Coordination (WPC) Wing
Listings lacked valid Equipment Type Approval from the Wireless Planning and Coordination (WPC) Wing.
Which form should shareholders file to claim physical shares already transferred to the IEPFA?
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Correct answer: D — IEPF-5
Shareholders whose shares have been transferred can initiate a claim by filing Form IEPF-5.
The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) functions under which ministry?
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Correct answer: D — Ministry of Corporate Affairs
IEPFA is under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Prime Minister paid tributes to Maharana Pratap on his Jayanti on 9 May 2025. 2. The Lok Sabha Speaker also paid tribute to Maharana Pratap on 9 May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per PIB releases of 9 May 2025.
The Tri-Services Future Warfare Course (FWC-02) was coordinated by which body?
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Correct answer: A — Centre for Joint Warfare Studies (CENJOWS)
FWC-02 was conducted under HQ Integrated Defence Staff and coordinated by CENJOWS; the Manekshaw Centre was the venue.
Consider the following statements about FWC-02: 1. For the first time, 15 representatives from the private defence industry took part. 2. The inaugural edition of the course was held in September 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
The eco-friendly lubricant developed at IASST, Guwahati uses which bio-based oil as its base?
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Correct answer: D — Castor oil
Surface-modified graphitic carbon nitride was integrated into bio-based castor oil.
Consider the following statements about the IASST lubricant: 1. It reduced friction by around 54% compared with castor oil alone. 2. IASST, which developed it, is located in Shillong. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. IASST is in Guwahati and is an autonomous institute of the DST.
Iranian Foreign Minister Abbas Araghchi's visit in May 2025 marked which anniversary of India–Iran diplomatic relations?
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Correct answer: C — 75th
The President noted the visit came on the 75th anniversary of diplomatic relations.
Consider the following statements about the meeting of 8 May 2025: 1. President Murmu welcomed ongoing cooperation in realising the full potential of Chabahar Port. 2. Abbas Araghchi is Iran's Defence Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Abbas Araghchi is Iran's Minister of Foreign Affairs.
What was the theme of World Thalassemia Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Together for Thalassemia: Uniting Communities, Prioritizing Patients
The 2025 theme was 'Together for Thalassemia: Uniting Communities, Prioritizing Patients'.
Consider the following statements about the Thalassemia Bal Sewa Yojana (TBSY): 1. It is a CSR initiative of Coal India Limited supporting free bone marrow transplants for children with thalassemia and aplastic anaemia. 2. The Coal Minister announced a 'One State, One Hospital' goal for bone marrow transplants under it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Thalassemia, as described by the DEPwD, is what type of genetic disorder?
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Correct answer: B — Autosomal recessive
Thalassemia is a genetic autosomal recessive disorder inherited from one or both parents.
The warship 'Arnala', delivered to the Indian Navy on 8 May 2025, is named after a historic fort located off:
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Correct answer: A — Vasai, Maharashtra
Arnala is named after the historic Arnala fort located off Vasai, Maharashtra.
Consider the following statements about 'Arnala': 1. It is the first of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft built by GRSE. 2. It is the largest Indian naval warship propelled by a diesel engine–waterjet combination. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
What is the length of the warship 'Arnala'?
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Correct answer: B — 77 m
Arnala is a 77 m long warship.
IOS Sagar was jointly crewed by personnel from how many Indian Ocean Region navies?
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Correct answer: D — Nine
IOS Sagar was jointly crewed by personnel from nine IOR navies.
From where was INS Sunayna flagged off as IOS Sagar on 5 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Karwar
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh flagged off IOS Sagar from Karwar; it returned to Kochi on 8 May 2025.
Consider the following statements about IOS Sagar's deployment: 1. The ship made port calls at Dar-es-Salaam, Nacala, Port Louis, Port Victoria and Male. 2. It took part in AIKEYME 2025 alongside INS Chennai and INS Kesari. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
When was the India–Chile Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) signed?
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Correct answer: B — March 2006
The PTA was signed in March 2006; the Framework Agreement in January 2005; the expanded PTA was signed in September 2016 and took effect on 16 May 2017.
Consider the following statements about the India–Chile CEPA: 1. The first round of negotiations was scheduled to be held in Santiago. 2. The expanded India–Chile PTA became effective in January 2005. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the first round was scheduled for 26–30 May 2025 in New Delhi, and the expanded PTA took effect on 16 May 2017.
As noted at the NITI Frontier Tech Hub workshop, India accounts for what share of global datacentre capacity?
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Correct answer: A — 3%
India generates nearly 20% of the world's data but accounts for just 3% of global datacentre capacity.
Consider the following statements about the AI datacentre workshop of 8 May 2025: 1. It was organised by the Ministry of Electronics and IT. 2. It noted that India generates about 3% of the world's data. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: it was hosted by the NITI Aayog Frontier Tech Hub, and India generates nearly 20% of the world's data (3% is its share of datacentre capacity).
How many Anganwadi centres in PVTG areas did the Jharkhand cabinet approve under PM-JANMAN on 8 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 275
The cabinet approved 275 Anganwadi centres; 103 and 168 were the posts created for the eye institute and medical colleges.
Consider the following decisions of the Jharkhand cabinet on 8 May 2025: 1. Dearness allowance for state employees was raised to 60%. 2. 103 posts were created for the proposed Regional Eye Institute at RIMS, Ranchi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Dearness allowance was raised to 55%.
What is the total outlay of the Financial Incentive Scheme for Coal Gasification launched in January 2024?
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Correct answer: A — ₹8,500 crore
The scheme, launched on 24 January 2024, has a total outlay of ₹8,500 crore.
Consider the following statements about the Coal Gasification Financial Incentive Scheme: 1. It aims to achieve 100 million tonnes of coal gasification by 2030. 2. It was launched on 24 January 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The scheme was launched on 24 January 2024.