India Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How many Aadhaar authentication transactions were carried out in June 2025, according to UIDAI?
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Correct answer: C — 229.33 crore
UIDAI: Aadhaar number holders carried out 229.33 crore authentication transactions in June 2025.
What record did UIDAI's face authentication set in June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 15.87 crore transactions
UIDAI: in June 2025, a record number of 15.87 crore face authentication transactions were recorded, against 4.61 crore in June 2024.
How much land has the Odisha Government offered for the proposed Science City in Bhubaneswar (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: A — 100 acres
Ministry of Science & Technology: the Odisha Government has offered 100 acres of land for the proposed Science City.
Which national honour of Ghana was conferred on PM Narendra Modi on 2 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Officer of the Order of the Star of Ghana
PMO: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi was conferred the national honour of Ghana - Officer of the Order of the Star of Ghana - by the President of Ghana.
Who conferred Ghana's national honour on PM Modi on 2 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — President John Dramani Mahama
PMO: the honour was conferred by the President of Ghana, H.E. John Dramani Mahama.
Ghana's national honour was conferred on PM Modi (July 2025) in recognition of what?
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Correct answer: D — His distinguished statesmanship and influential global leadership
PMO: the honour was conferred in recognition of his distinguished statesmanship and influential global leadership.
Consider the following about PM Modi's acceptance of Ghana's national honour (2 July 2025): 1. He accepted it on behalf of 1.4 billion Indians. 2. He dedicated it to the aspirations of India's youth, its cultural traditions and diversity, and India–Ghana historical ties. 3. He received it during his address to Ghana's Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (PMO). Statement 3 is wrong: the honour was conferred on 2 July by President Mahama; the address to Ghana's Parliament took place the next day, 3 July.
To what level did India and Ghana elevate their relationship during PM Modi's visit on 2 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Comprehensive Partnership
PMO: the two leaders agreed to elevate the relationship to a Comprehensive Partnership.
PM Modi's State Visit to Ghana in July 2025 was described by PMO as the first such visit in how long?
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Correct answer: A — Three decades
PMO: Prime Minister's visit to Ghana is the first such visit in the last three decades.
An India–Ghana MoU of July 2025 on traditional medicine was signed between Ghana's ITAM and which Indian institute?
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Correct answer: C — Institute of Teaching & Research in Ayurveda
PMO list of outcomes: MoU between the Institute of Traditional & Alternative Medicine (ITAM), Ghana and the Institute of Teaching & Research in Ayurveda (ITRA), India.
Consider the following about PM Modi's visit to Ghana (2 July 2025): 1. President John Dramani Mahama received him at the airport. 2. An MoU was signed between the Bureau of Indian Standards and the Ghana Standards Authority. 3. Modi thanked Mahama for taking care of the roughly 15,000-strong Indian community in Ghana. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct (PMO): President Mahama received him at the airport, BIS and the Ghana Standards Authority signed an MoU, and Modi thanked Mahama for taking care of the 15,000-strong Indian community.
Which Governor did the Mission Karmayogi team call on in Hyderabad on 2 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jishnu Dev Varma
DoPT: the Mission Karmayogi team called on the Governor of Telangana, Shri Jishnu Dev Varma, on 2nd July 2025 in Hyderabad.
Which digital platform, central to Mission Karmayogi, was highlighted in the team's discussions in Telangana (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — iGOT Karmayogi
DoPT: a key highlight of the discussions was the iGOT Karmayogi platform for digital learning and competency-based training.
The draft amendments released on 2 July 2025 aim to allow more TV rating agencies besides which existing body?
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Correct answer: C — Broadcast Audience Research Council
I&B Ministry: the draft removes restrictive provisions to allow more players besides the current BARC (Broadcast Audience Research Council).
According to the I&B Ministry (July 2025), about how many people meters are used to capture TV viewership in India?
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Correct answer: D — 58,000
I&B Ministry: only about 58,000 people meters are presently used, representing just 0.025% of the roughly 230 million TV homes.
The Policy Guidelines for Television Rating Agencies, proposed for amendment in July 2025, were originally issued in which year?
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Correct answer: A — 2014
I&B Ministry: the ministry proposed amendments to the Policy Guidelines for Television Rating Agencies, originally issued in 2014.
Where did the Karnataka cabinet hold its meeting on 2 July 2025, approving projects worth ₹3,400 crore?
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Correct answer: A — Nandi Hills
PTI/Hindustan Times: the Karnataka cabinet, in a meeting held atop the Nandi Hills, approved development projects worth ₹3,400 crore.
The Karnataka cabinet decided on 2 July 2025 to rename Bengaluru Rural district as what?
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Correct answer: D — Bengaluru North
Economic Times/Deccan Herald: CM Siddaramaiah said the cabinet decided to rename Bengaluru Rural district as Bengaluru North.
Under which scheme is the Centre considering a ₹100-crore Integrated Aqua Park for Jammu and Kashmir (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: C — PMMSY Phase-II
Fisheries Ministry: the Government of India is considering a ₹100-crore proposal for an Integrated Aqua Park in J&K under PMMSY Phase-II.
From which country were genetically improved eyed ova of rainbow and brown trout imported for J&K?
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Correct answer: B — Denmark
Fisheries Ministry: the Government of India facilitated import of 13.40 lakh genetically improved eyed ova of rainbow and brown trout from Denmark for J&K.
The ICMR–NCDC studies on sudden unexplained deaths (July 2025) focused on adults of which age group?
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Correct answer: D — 18–45 years
Health Ministry: ICMR and NCDC worked to understand sudden unexplained deaths, especially in young adults between the ages of 18 and 45 years.
Which ICMR institute conducted the multicentric matched case–control study on sudden deaths across 47 hospitals in 19 states/UTs?
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Correct answer: A — National Institute of Epidemiology
Health Ministry: the first study, conducted by ICMR's National Institute of Epidemiology (NIE), was carried out from May to August 2023 across 47 tertiary care hospitals in 19 states and UTs.
C-FLOOD, inaugurated on 2 July 2025, was developed by C-DAC Pune together with which body?
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Correct answer: A — Central Water Commission
Jal Shakti Ministry: C-FLOOD was collaboratively developed by C-DAC, Pune and the Central Water Commission (CWC).
How far in advance does C-FLOOD provide village-level inundation forecasts?
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Correct answer: C — Two days
Jal Shakti Ministry: C-FLOOD is a web-based platform that provides two-days advance inundation forecasts up to village level.
Which river basins does C-FLOOD currently cover (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — Mahanadi, Godavari and Tapi
Jal Shakti Ministry: at present, the system covers the Mahanadi, Godavari and Tapi river basins.
According to Amit Shah (2 July 2025), the global drug cartel busted by NCB operated across how many continents?
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Correct answer: A — 4
MHA: the ring operates across 4 continents and 10+ nations; the probe resulted in 8 arrests and seizures of 5 consignments.
Which department organised the first-ever National Workshop on Pension Litigation on 2 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Department of Pension & Pensioners' Welfare
DoPPW: Dr. Jitendra Singh chaired the first-ever National Workshop on Pension Litigation organised by the Department of Pension & Pensioners' Welfare at Vigyan Bhawan.
The National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development (NIPCCD) was renamed after whom in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Savitribai Phule
WCD Ministry: NIPCCD has officially been renamed as the Savitribai Phule National Institute of Women and Child Development.
What is the corpus of the Research Development and Innovation (RDI) Scheme approved on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹1 lakh crore
Cabinet: the Cabinet approved the RDI Scheme with a corpus of ₹1 lakh crore.
Which department will serve as the nodal department for implementing the RDI Scheme?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Science and Technology
Cabinet: the Department of Science and Technology (DST) will serve as the nodal department for implementation of the RDI Scheme.
Who chairs the Governing Board of the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), which gives strategic direction to the RDI Scheme?
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Correct answer: C — Prime Minister
Cabinet: the Governing Board of ANRF, chaired by the Prime Minister, will provide overarching strategic direction to the RDI Scheme.
What is the outlay of the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme approved by the Cabinet on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹99,446 crore
Cabinet: with an outlay of ₹99,446 crore, the ELI Scheme aims to incentivize the creation of more than 3.5 crore jobs over 2 years.
Under Part A of the ELI Scheme, first-time employees get one month's EPF wage up to what amount?
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Correct answer: C — ₹15,000
Cabinet: Part A offers first-time employees registered with EPFO one-month EPF wage up to ₹15,000 in two instalments.
ELI Scheme benefits apply to jobs created during which period?
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Correct answer: D — 1 August 2025 – 31 July 2027
Cabinet: the benefits of the Scheme would be applicable to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027.
Consider the following about the ELI Scheme (July 2025): 1. It was announced in the Union Budget 2024-25 as part of the PM's package of five schemes. 2. For the manufacturing sector, employer incentives extend to the third and fourth years. 3. Employers get up to ₹15,000 per month for each additional employee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (Cabinet). Statement 3 is wrong: employers get up to ₹3,000 per month per additional employee; ₹15,000 is the cap on the one-month EPF wage for first-time employees.
The National Sports Policy 2025, approved on 1 July 2025, supersedes the National Sports Policy of which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2001
Cabinet: the new policy supersedes the existing National Sports Policy, 2001.
How many key pillars is the National Sports Policy 2025 anchored on?
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Correct answer: D — Five
Cabinet: the policy is anchored on five key pillars.
Which Olympic Games does the National Sports Policy 2025 specifically mention as a target for excellence?
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Correct answer: A — 2036 Olympic Games
Cabinet: NSP 2025 lays out a roadmap to make India a strong contender at international events, including the 2036 Olympic Games.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five pillars of the National Sports Policy 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Sports for Defence Preparedness
Cabinet: the five pillars are Excellence on the Global Stage, Sports for Economic Development, Sports for Social Development, Sports as a People's Movement, and Integration with Education (NEP 2020); Sports for Defence Preparedness is not a pillar.
Where was INS Tamal commissioned on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Yantar Shipyard, Kaliningrad
Indian Navy: INS Tamal (F 71) was commissioned on 01 Jul 2025 at Yantar Shipyard, Kaliningrad, Russia.
INS Tamal is the second ship of which class of frigates?
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Correct answer: B — Tushil class
Indian Navy: INS Tamal is the eighth multi-role stealth frigate of Project 1135.6 and the second of the additional follow-on Tushil class of ships.
What share of indigenous components does INS Tamal have, according to the Navy (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — 26%
Indian Navy: though built in Russia, the ship has 26% indigenous components, including the BrahMos long-range cruise missile and HUMSA-NG sonar system.
On which date was the Digital India programme launched, completing ten years on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 1 July 2015
MyGov/Indian Express: Digital India was launched by PM Narendra Modi on 1 July 2015 and turned 10 on 1 July 2025.
Digital India's stated vision, as recalled on its tenth anniversary, is to transform India into what?
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Correct answer: D — A digitally empowered society and knowledge economy
Indian Express: Digital India was launched with the vision to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.
What was India's record gross GST collection in 2024–25, as GST completed eight years?
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Correct answer: B — ₹22.08 lakh crore
PIB: in 2024–25, gross GST collections hit a record ₹22.08 lakh crore, marking a year-on-year growth of 9.4%.
Under which Article of the Constitution was the GST Council constituted?
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Correct answer: D — Article 279A
PIB: the GST Council was constituted as per Article 279A of the Constitution and is chaired by the Union Finance Minister.
Who chairs the GST Council?
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Correct answer: A — Union Finance Minister
PIB: the GST Council consists of the Union Finance Minister (Chairperson), the Union MoS in charge of Revenue or Finance, and state Finance/Taxation Ministers.
The 4-lane Paramakudi–Ramanathapuram section approved by the Cabinet on 1 July 2025 is part of which National Highway?
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Correct answer: D — NH-87
Cabinet: the project will upgrade approximately 46.7 km of NH-87 from Paramakudi to Ramanathapuram to a 4-lane configuration.
Under which mode will the Paramakudi–Ramanathapuram NH-87 section be developed?
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Correct answer: B — Hybrid Annuity Mode
Cabinet: the project will be developed on Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM) at a total capital cost of ₹1,853 crore.
By how much per km did AC class fares rise under the railway fare rationalisation effective 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 2 paise
Ministry of Railways/Indian Express: AC classes saw an increase of 02 paisa per passenger-km, Mail/Express non-AC classes one paisa per km.
Under the 1 July 2025 fare rationalisation, Second Class Ordinary fares saw no increase up to what distance?
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Correct answer: D — 500 km
Ministry of Railways: there was no increase in fare of Second Class Ordinary up to 500 km, and thereafter an increase of half paisa per km.
Consider the following about the railway fare rationalisation of 1 July 2025: 1. Suburban fares and season tickets were not increased. 2. Mail/Express non-AC classes rose by 1 paisa per km. 3. Tickets booked before 1 July 2025 were charged the revised fare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: India Today/Indian Express report revised fares apply to tickets booked on or after 1 July 2025; earlier tickets stayed at the old fare.
Udaygiri, delivered to the Indian Navy on 1 July 2025, belongs to which project?
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Correct answer: A — Project 17A
Indian Navy: Yard 12652 (Udaygiri), the second ship of Project 17A stealth frigates, was delivered on 01 July 2025.
Project 17A frigates are a follow-on of which class of frigates?
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Correct answer: A — Shivalik class
Indian Navy: the Project is a follow-on of the Shivalik class (Project 17) frigates active in service.
National Doctors' Day, observed on 1 July, honours which physician who was the second Chief Minister of West Bengal?
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Correct answer: B — Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy
NDTV/The Federal: National Doctors' Day marks the birth anniversary of Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy, renowned physician and second Chief Minister of West Bengal, born on 1 July 1882.
SECI announced on 1 July 2025 that it had executed Power Sale Agreements for over how much renewable energy capacity?
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Correct answer: C — 60 GW
MNRE: SECI has achieved the milestone of executing over 60 Gigawatts (GW) of Power Sale Agreements of renewable energy capacity.
The RailOne app was launched on 1 July 2025 on the 40th Foundation Day of which organisation?
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Correct answer: C — Centre for Railway Information Systems
Ministry of Railways: Ashwini Vaishnaw launched RailOne at India Habitat Centre on the 40th Foundation Day of the Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS).
In which city did President Droupadi Murmu inaugurate the Mahayogi Guru Gorakhnath AYUSH University on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Gorakhpur
President's Secretariat: the President inaugurated the Mahayogi Guru Gorakhnath AYUSH University at Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh.
The Sigachi Industries factory explosion of 30 June 2025 took place at Pashamylaram in which district?
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Correct answer: B — Sangareddy district, Telangana
PIB and New Indian Express: the fire tragedy occurred at a factory in Pashamylaram, Sangareddy district, Telangana.
What was being manufactured at the Sigachi Industries unit when the 30 June 2025 explosion occurred?
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Correct answer: D — Microcrystalline cellulose (MCC)
New Indian Express: the explosion occurred while microcrystalline cellulose powder was being manufactured for use as a binding agent in pharmaceuticals.
Consider the following about the Sigachi Industries blast (30 June 2025): 1. The Prime Minister announced ₹2 lakh ex-gratia from PMNRF for the next of kin of each deceased. 2. The state's Technical Expert Committee traced the explosion to the spray dryer. 3. The injured were to get ₹1 lakh each from PMNRF. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct (PIB). Statement 2 is wrong: the committee traced it to the sealing machine in the packing area, not the spray dryer (The Hindu, Telangana Today). Statement 3 is wrong: the injured get ₹50,000 (PIB).
Who chaired the 8th National Level Steering Committee meeting of the Atal Bhujal Yojana on 30 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Debashree Mukherjee
PIB: the meeting was held at New Delhi under the chairpersonship of Ms. Debashree Mukherjee, Secretary, DoWR, RD & GR.
Which of the following states is NOT among the seven states where the Atal Bhujal Yojana was implemented?
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Correct answer: D — Chhattisgarh
Lok Sabha reply (PIB): the scheme was implemented in Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, so Chhattisgarh is not among them.
The Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI), which RBI asked banks to integrate on 30 June 2025, was developed by which body?
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Correct answer: B — Department of Telecommunications
PIB: RBI's advisory of 30 June 2025 directs banks to integrate the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI) developed by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT).
Into which risk categories does the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator classify a mobile number?
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Correct answer: C — Medium, High, Very High
PIB: the FRI classifies a mobile number as associated with Medium, High or Very High risk of financial fraud.
Consider the following about the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator (FRI): 1. It was launched in May 2025 by DoT's Digital Intelligence Unit. 2. RBI's advisory of 30 June 2025 excludes Co-operative Banks. 3. It is built only on data from DoT's Chakshu platform. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct (PIB). Statement 2 is wrong: the advisory covers Scheduled Commercial, Small Finance, Payments and Co-operative Banks. Statement 3 is wrong: inputs also come from I4C's NCRP and from banks and financial institutions.
Which Indian Army chief departed on a four-day official visit to Bhutan on 30 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — General Upendra Dwivedi
PIB: General Upendra Dwivedi, Chief of the Army Staff, departed for Bhutan on a four-day official visit.
During the June 2025 Bhutan visit, the Army chief was to interact with officials of IMTRAT and which Indian project in Bhutan?
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Correct answer: A — Project DANTAK
PIB: the COAS will also interact with senior officials of the Indian Embassy, the Indian Military Training Team (IMTRAT) and Project DANTAK.