UKSSSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What was the theme of the International Conference on Disaster Resilient Infrastructure 2025, addressed by PM Modi on 7 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Shaping a Resilient Future for Coastal Regions
The theme of ICDRI 2025 was ‘Shaping a Resilient Future for Coastal Regions’, and the Prime Minister underscored the vulnerability of coastal regions and islands.
Consider the following statements about PM Modi's address to ICDRI 2025: 1. The conference was being hosted in Europe for the first time. 2. The Prime Minister said India helped establish a tsunami warning system that benefits 29 countries. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. ICDRI 2025 marked the conference's first-ever hosting in Europe, and the Prime Minister said India contributed to a tsunami warning system benefiting 29 countries.
In his ICDRI 2025 address, PM Modi said India recognises Small Island Developing States as
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Correct answer: D — Large Ocean Countries
The Prime Minister said India recognises Small Island Developing States as Large Ocean Countries.
What was the theme of World Food Safety Day 2025, observed on 7 June?
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Correct answer: B — Food Safety: Science in Action
This year's World Food Safety Day theme was “Food Safety: Science in Action”, which the Union Health Minister reaffirmed at the FSSAI event.
Where was FSSAI's World Food Safety Day 2025 programme, addressed by Union Health Minister J P Nadda, held?
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Correct answer: C — NIMHANS, Bengaluru
The FSSAI programme themed ‘Stop Obesity by Eating Safe and Healthy’ was held at NIMHANS, Bengaluru, where the Health Minister delivered the keynote.
At FSSAI's World Food Safety Day 2025 event, J P Nadda reiterated the Prime Minister's call to cut oil consumption by how much?
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Correct answer: A — 10%
J P Nadda reiterated the Prime Minister's call to cut oil consumption by 10%.
The DRDO laboratory VRDE, which transferred technologies of nine systems to industry on 7 June 2025, is located at
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Correct answer: D — Ahilyanagar
The Vehicles Research & Development Establishment (VRDE) is a DRDO laboratory located in Ahilyanagar, Maharashtra.
In June 2025, DRDO's VRDE transferred technologies of how many systems to how many industries?
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Correct answer: A — Nine systems to 10 industries
VRDE transferred technologies of nine systems to 10 industries, so the answer is Nine systems to 10 industries.
To which company did DRDO's VRDE transfer the technology of the Vajra Riot Control Vehicle on 7 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Tata Advanced Systems
VRDE transferred the Vajra Riot Control Vehicle technology to Tata Advanced Systems.
What is the India Pavilion at World Expo 2025 in Osaka titled?
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Correct answer: C — Bharat Mandap
The India Pavilion at World Expo 2025 in Osaka is titled Bharat Mandap and was ranked among the top five most admired pavilions.
Which body was appointed the nodal agency to curate the India Pavilion at World Expo 2025 in Osaka?
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Correct answer: A — Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA)
With the Ministry of Culture curating the pavilion for the first time, the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) was appointed the nodal agency.
Within what period has the CCPA advised e-commerce platforms to complete self-audits to detect dark patterns, as per its advisory of 7 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 3 months
E-commerce platforms have been advised to conduct self-audits to identify dark patterns within 3 months of the issue of the advisory.
The Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, cited in the CCPA's June 2025 advisory, were issued in which year?
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Correct answer: A — 2023
E-commerce platforms were advised to comply with the Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023.
Consider the following statements about the CCPA's dark patterns advisory of 7 June 2025: 1. E-commerce platforms are encouraged to give self-declarations that they are free of dark patterns. 2. The Joint Working Group set up to identify violations includes National Law Universities. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Platforms are encouraged to give self-declarations, and the Joint Working Group constituted by the Department of Consumer Affairs includes National Law Universities along with ministries, regulators and voluntary consumer organisations.
Who was appointed a part-time Member of the 16th Finance Commission, as announced on 7 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — T. Rabi Sankar
RBI Deputy Governor T. Rabi Sankar was appointed by the President as a part-time Member of the 16th Finance Commission.
Who is the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission?
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Correct answer: C — Arvind Panagariya
The 16th Finance Commission was constituted on 31 December 2023 with former NITI Aayog Vice-Chairman Dr. Arvind Panagariya as its Chairman.
Consider the following statements about the 16th Finance Commission: 1. T. Rabi Sankar was appointed as a full-time Member of the Commission in June 2025. 2. The Commission's award period is the five years beginning 1 April 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: T. Rabi Sankar was appointed as a part-time Member. Statement 2 is correct: the Commission must recommend for the five-year award period starting 1 April 2026.
Whom did Coco Gauff beat in the French Open 2025 women's singles final on 7 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Aryna Sabalenka
Coco Gauff beat world No. 1 Aryna Sabalenka 6-7(5), 6-2, 6-4 in the final.
The French Open 2025 title was Coco Gauff's which Grand Slam singles title?
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Correct answer: C — 2nd
The win was Coco Gauff's 2nd Grand Slam singles title, after the 2023 US Open.
To what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee cut the policy repo rate on 6 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5.50%
The MPC voted to reduce the policy repo rate by 50 basis points to 5.50% with immediate effect.
To what level did the RBI decide in June 2025 to reduce the cash reserve ratio (CRR) by the end of its staggered cuts?
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Correct answer: D — 3.0% of NDTL
The RBI decided to cut the CRR by 100 bps to 3.0% of NDTL in four equal tranches of 25 bps each, releasing about ₹2.5 lakh crore by December 2025.
What monetary policy stance did the MPC adopt at its June 2025 meeting?
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Correct answer: A — Neutral
After 100 bps of repo rate cuts since February 2025, the MPC decided to change its stance to Neutral, saying monetary policy had very limited space left to support growth.
Consider the following statements about the RBI MPC decision of 6 June 2025: 1. CPI inflation for 2025-26 was projected at 3.7%. 2. All six MPC members voted for the 50-basis-point repo rate cut. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: CPI inflation for 2025-26 was projected at 3.7%. Statement 2 is incorrect: five members voted for the 50 bps cut, while Saugata Bhattacharya voted for a 25 bps cut.
What real GDP growth did the RBI project for 2025-26 in its June 2025 policy?
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Correct answer: C — 6.5%
The RBI projected real GDP growth for 2025-26 at 6.5%.
The RBI MPC's June 2025 decision was stated to be in consonance with the medium-term target for CPI inflation of
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Correct answer: A — 4% within a band of +/- 2%
The MPC said its decision is in consonance with the objective of achieving the medium-term target for CPI inflation of 4% within a band of +/- 2%, while supporting growth.
Magnus Carlsen's win at Norway Chess 2025 was his which Norway Chess title?
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Correct answer: B — 7th
Magnus Carlsen won his 7th Norway Chess title with 16 points.
Who won Norway Chess Women 2025, which concluded on 6 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Anna Muzychuk
Ukraine's Anna Muzychuk won Norway Chess Women 2025 with 16.5 points.
Consider the following statements about Indian players at Norway Chess 2025: 1. D. Gukesh finished third in the open section. 2. Koneru Humpy finished third in the women's section. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. D. Gukesh finished third in the open section with 14.5 points, and Koneru Humpy finished third in the women's section with 15 points.
The UMEED Central Portal launched on 6 June 2025 is meant for the management of
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Correct answer: C — Waqf properties
The UMEED Central Portal is a centralised digital platform for real-time uploading, verification and monitoring of Waqf properties.
What does UMEED stand for in the name of the portal launched by the Ministry of Minority Affairs in June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development
UMEED is short for Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development.
Consider the following statements about the UMEED Central Portal launched on 6 June 2025: 1. The portal was developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. 2. Its key features include a digital inventory with geo-tagging of all Waqf properties. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the portal was developed by the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Statement 2 is correct: its features include a geo-tagged digital inventory of all Waqf properties.
Where was the G7 Summit, to which Canadian PM Mark Carney invited PM Modi on 6 June 2025, to be held?
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Correct answer: B — Kananaskis
Mark Carney invited the Prime Minister to the G7 Summit in Kananaskis later in June 2025.
Consider the following statements about the phone call between PM Modi and Canadian PM Mark Carney on 6 June 2025: 1. PM Modi congratulated Mark Carney on his recent election victory. 2. The G7 Summit to which PM Modi was invited was scheduled for July 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: PM Modi congratulated Carney on his recent election victory. Statement 2 is incorrect: the G7 Summit in Kananaskis was due later in the same month, June 2025.
Which meeting of the India–Central Asia Dialogue was held in New Delhi on 6 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 4th
The Central Asian Foreign Ministers briefed the Prime Minister on the 4th Meeting of the India–Central Asia Dialogue, held in New Delhi on 6 June 2025.
To which event did PM Modi invite the leaders of all Central Asian countries in June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Second India–Central Asia Summit
The Prime Minister invited the leaders of all Central Asian countries to the Second India–Central Asia Summit to be held in India.
Consider the following statements about the Central Asian Foreign Ministers' call on PM Modi on 6 June 2025: 1. The ministers condemned the 22 April 2025 terrorist attack in Pahalgam. 2. The ministers briefed the PM on the 3rd Meeting of the India–Central Asia Dialogue. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the ministers strongly condemned the 22 April 2025 Pahalgam terror attack. Statement 2 is incorrect: they briefed the PM on the 4th Meeting of the India–Central Asia Dialogue.
The NCC team welcomed in New Delhi on 5 June 2025 completed which successful NCC expedition to Mount Everest?
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Correct answer: D — Third
The 2025 climb marked the Third successful NCC expedition to Mount Everest, following earlier successes in 2013 and 2016.
Consider the following statements about the NCC Mount Everest Expedition 2025: 1. The team consisted of ten cadets, five boys and five girls. 2. The team summited Mount Everest on 5 June 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the team had ten cadets, five boys and five girls. Statement 2 is incorrect: the team summited on 18 May 2025 and was welcomed in New Delhi on 5 June 2025.
As part of its training, the NCC Mount Everest Expedition Team 2025 made a preparatory ascent of which peak?
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Correct answer: C — Mt. Abi Gamin
The novice cadets trained with a preparatory ascent of Mt. Abi Gamin and a winter camp at the Army Mountaineering Institute, Siachen Base Camp.
What will be the reference date for Population Census-2027 for most of India, as announced on 4 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1 March 2027
The reference date for Population Census-2027 will be 00:00 hours of 1 March 2027 for most of the country.
For Ladakh and the snow-bound areas of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, what is the reference date for Census-2027?
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Correct answer: C — 1 October 2026
For Ladakh and the non-synchronous snow-bound areas of J&K, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, the reference date will be 00:00 hours of 1 October 2026.
Under which law is the Census of India conducted?
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Correct answer: B — Census Act, 1948
The Census of India is conducted under the provisions of the Census Act, 1948 and the Census Rules, 1990; the Census-2027 notification was to be issued under section 3 of the Act.
Consider the following statements about Population Census-2027: 1. It will be conducted in a single phase. 2. The last Census of India before it was conducted in 2001. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is correct. Census-2027 will be conducted in two phases along with enumeration of castes, and the last Census was conducted in 2011.
How many years did the India–Australia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership complete on 4 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5 years
The India–Australia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership completed 5 years on 4 June 2025, the day Richard Marles called on the Prime Minister.
Which Australian leader, who is Deputy Prime Minister and Defence Minister, called on PM Modi on 4 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Richard Marles
Richard Marles, Deputy Prime Minister and Minister for Defence of Australia, called on Prime Minister Narendra Modi in New Delhi.
Which edition of the Global Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction was held in Geneva in June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 8th
P K Mishra attended the 8th Global Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction in Geneva, which opened on 3 June 2025.
According to P K Mishra at Geneva in June 2025, the cumulative disaster risk reduction outlay under the 15th Finance Commission exceeds
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Correct answer: B — INR 2.32 trillion
Mishra said the cumulative outlay under the 15th Finance Commission exceeds INR 2.32 trillion (about USD 28 billion), against early Finance Commission allocations of INR 60 million.
How many Param Vishisht Seva Medals did the President confer at the Defence Investiture Ceremony 2025 (Phase-II) on 4 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 30
President Droupadi Murmu conferred 30 Param Vishisht Seva Medals at the ceremony at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
Consider the following statements about the Defence Investiture Ceremony 2025 (Phase-II): 1. Decorations were conferred on personnel of the Armed Forces, the Indian Coast Guard and the Border Roads Organisation. 2. A total of 92 Distinguished Service Decorations were conferred. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The President conferred 92 Distinguished Service Decorations on personnel of the Armed Forces, the Indian Coast Guard and the Border Roads Organisation.
Which country did India defeat in the election for the 2025-2028 Presidency of the International Institute of Administrative Sciences?
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Correct answer: A — Austria
India polled 87 votes against 54 for Austria in the IIAS election held on 3 June 2025.
Where was the IIAS Extraordinary General Assembly Meeting that elected India to the Presidency held on 3 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Brussels
The IIAS elections were held during the Extraordinary General Assembly Meeting on 3 June 2025 in Brussels.
How many votes did India poll in the IIAS Presidency election held on 3 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 87
India registered 87 votes in the IIAS Presidency election held in Brussels on 3 June 2025.
Consider the following statements about the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS): 1. India's Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances has represented India as a member state since 1998. 2. India's Presidency of the IIAS is for the period 2025-2028. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. DARPG has represented India as a member state of the IIAS since 1998, and India will hold the Presidency for 2025-2028.
Under the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India, at what reduced customs duty can approved applicants import e-4W CBUs?
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Correct answer: D — 15%
Approved applicants can import CBUs of e-4W with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 at a reduced customs duty of 15% for five years from the Application Approval Date.
What is the minimum investment commitment required from approved applicants under SPMEPCI?
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Correct answer: A — ₹4,150 crore
Approved applicants must make a minimum investment of ₹4,150 crore (about USD 500 million) within a three-year window.
What is the annual cap on the number of e-4Ws that an approved applicant can import at the reduced duty under SPMEPCI?
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Correct answer: C — 8,000
The maximum number of e-4W allowed to be imported at the reduced duty rate is capped at 8,000 per year, with carryover of unutilised limits permitted.
Consider the following statements about the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India (SPMEPCI): 1. Only e-4W CBUs with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 qualify for the reduced customs duty. 2. Approved applicants must commence manufacturing operations within five years of approval. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the reduced duty applies to e-4W CBUs with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000. Statement 2 is incorrect: applicants must set up the facility and commence manufacturing of e-4W within three years.
What were India's gross GST collections for May 2025, according to data released on 1 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2.01 lakh crore
Gross GST collections for May 2025 stood at ₹2,01,050 crore, or about ₹2.01 lakh crore.
By what percentage did gross GST collections in May 2025 grow over May 2024?
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Correct answer: D — 16.4%
Gross GST collections rose 16.4% year-on-year in May 2025, to ₹2,01,050 crore.
Consider the following statements about GST collections for May 2025: 1. GST revenue from imports grew faster than revenue from domestic transactions. 2. Collections in April 2025 had touched an all-time high of ₹2.37 lakh crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Import GST grew 25.2% against 13.7% for domestic transactions, and collections in April 2025 had reached an all-time high of ₹2.37 lakh crore.
Which component accounted for the largest share of gross GST collections in May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — IGST
IGST, at ₹1,08,836 crore, was the largest component of the ₹2,01,050 crore gross GST collected in May 2025, making it the largest single component.
Whom did D Gukesh beat for the first time in a classical game in Round 6 of Norway Chess 2025 on 1 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Magnus Carlsen
Gukesh beat world No. 1 Magnus Carlsen for the first time in a classical game in Round 6 of Norway Chess 2025.
In how many moves did Gukesh win his Round 6 game against Magnus Carlsen at Norway Chess 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 62
Gukesh turned around a losing position and won the game in 62 moves.
In which Norwegian city was Norway Chess 2025, where Gukesh beat Carlsen, held?
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Correct answer: D — Stavanger
Gukesh beat Carlsen in Round 6 of Norway Chess 2025 in Stavanger.
What is Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla's role on the Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) crew?
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Correct answer: B — Mission Pilot
The Science Ministry said Shukla will serve as Mission Pilot on Ax-4.
Who is the Commander of the Axiom Mission 4 crew that includes Shubhanshu Shukla?
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Correct answer: D — Peggy Whitson
The Commander is former NASA astronaut Peggy Whitson; Uznański-Wiśniewski and Kapu are Mission Specialists.
Who is the designated backup for Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla on Axiom Mission 4?
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Correct answer: A — Group Captain Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair
The ministry named Group Captain Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair as Shukla's designated backup.
As per the NSO's Provisional Estimates released on 30 May 2025, India's real GDP grew by how much in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — 6.5%
Real GDP growth for 2024-25 was estimated at 6.5%; 9.8% was nominal GDP growth and 7.4% was Q4 real growth.
What was India's real GDP growth in the January–March quarter (Q4) of 2024-25, as per the NSO?
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Correct answer: D — 7.4%
The NSO estimated real GDP growth of 7.4% in Q4 of 2024-25; nominal growth was 10.8%.
Which sector recorded the highest growth rate (9.4%) in FY 2024-25 as per the Provisional Estimates?
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Correct answer: A — Construction
Construction was estimated to grow 9.4%, followed by Public Administration, Defence & Other Services (8.9%).
India's common compute capacity under the IndiaAI Mission crossed which mark, as announced on 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 34,000 GPUs
MeitY said the national compute capacity had crossed 34,000 GPUs.
Which startup selected under the IndiaAI Mission in May 2025 will build a 14-billion-parameter voice AI foundation model?
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Correct answer: B — Gnani AI
Gnani AI will build the 14B voice AI model; Soket AI 120B and Gan AI 70B; Sarvam AI was selected earlier, in April.
According to MeitY, which startup will develop an open-source 120-billion-parameter foundation model optimised for India's linguistic diversity?
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Correct answer: D — Soket AI
MeitY said Soket AI will develop India's first open-source 120B-parameter foundation model optimised for linguistic diversity.
According to the provisional accounts for 2024-25, total receipts of the Government of India were what percentage of the revised estimates?
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Correct answer: A — 97.8%
Total receipts of ₹30,78,247 crore were 97.8% of RE 2024-25; 98.7% was the figure for total expenditure.
How much was transferred to state governments as devolution of share of taxes in 2024-25, as per the provisional accounts?
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Correct answer: C — ₹12,86,885 crore
₹12,86,885 crore was devolved to states. ₹10,52,007 crore was capital expenditure, ₹11,16,343 crore interest payments, and ₹24,98,885 crore net tax revenue.
Which three DPSUs were granted Miniratna status by the Defence Minister on 29 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — MIL, AVNL and IOL
Munitions India Ltd, Armoured Vehicles Nigam Ltd and India Optel Ltd were granted Miniratna status.
Which category of Miniratna status was granted to MIL, AVNL and IOL?
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Correct answer: D — Category-I
The Defence Ministry said the three DPSUs were granted Miniratna Category-I status.
Until when are the wheat stock limits imposed by the Centre in May 2025 applicable?
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Correct answer: B — 31 March 2026
The Food Ministry said the order is applicable until 31 March 2026 in all States and UTs.
What is the wheat stock limit for traders/wholesalers under the order of 27 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 3,000 MT
The stock limit for traders/wholesalers is 3,000 MT; retailers have 10 MT per outlet.
Consider the following statements about the wheat stock limits of May 2025: 1. Retailers may hold 10 MT of wheat for each retail outlet. 2. Processors may hold 50% of their monthly installed capacity multiplied by the remaining months of FY 2025-26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The processors' limit is 70% (not 50%) of monthly installed capacity times the remaining months of FY 2025-26.
For how many kharif crops did the Cabinet approve increased MSPs for marketing season 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — 14
The CCEA approved increased MSPs for 14 kharif crops.
Which kharif crop saw the highest absolute increase in MSP for marketing season 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — Nigerseed
Nigerseed had the highest absolute increase (₹820 per quintal), followed by ragi (₹596), cotton (₹589) and sesamum (₹579).
What is the MSP of common paddy for kharif marketing season 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — ₹2,369 per quintal
Common paddy MSP is ₹2,369 per quintal (up from ₹2,300); ₹2,389 is Grade A paddy and ₹2,400 is maize.
What is India's foodgrain production for 2024-25 as per the Third Advance Estimates released on 28 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 3,539.59 lakh tonnes
Foodgrain production is estimated at a record 3,539.59 LMT; 3,322.98 LMT was the 2023-24 figure.
As per the Third Advance Estimates for 2024-25, India's rice production is estimated at:
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Correct answer: D — 1,490.74 LMT
Rice is estimated at 1,490.74 LMT (up from 1,378.25 LMT); 1,175.07 LMT is wheat.
From which date did the rules under the Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act 2023 come into effect?
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Correct answer: D — 27 May 2025
The rules came into effect on 27 May 2025. The Act got assent on 15 August 2023 and came into force on 10 May 2024; ISOs were notified on 27 December 2024.
Under which section of the Inter-Services Organisations Act 2023 were the rules notified in May 2025 framed?
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Correct answer: B — Section 11
The Defence Ministry said the subordinate rules were framed under Section 11 of the Act.
Consider the following statements about the Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act 2023: 1. It received the assent of the President on 15 August 2023. 2. It came into force with effect from 10 May 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Defence release.