UKSSSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
After the hike approved on 1 October 2025, what is the Dearness Allowance rate for Central Government employees?
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Correct answer: C — 58%
The 3% increase takes DA from 55% to 58% of basic pay.
From which date is the DA/DR increase approved by the Cabinet on 1 October 2025 effective?
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Correct answer: B — 1 July 2025
The additional instalment of DA and DR is effective from 1 July 2025.
Consider the following statements about the DA hike approved in October 2025: 1. It will benefit about 68.72 lakh Central Government employees. 2. The increase follows a formula based on the recommendations of the 8th Central Pay Commission. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: 68.72 lakh is the number of pensioners (employees are 49.19 lakh), and the formula is based on the 7th Central Pay Commission.
At what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee keep the policy repo rate on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 5.50%
The MPC unanimously kept the repo rate unchanged at 5.50%.
In its October 2025 policy, what real GDP growth did the RBI project for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 6.8%
The RBI raised its 2025-26 real GDP growth projection to 6.8% from 6.5%.
After the RBI's October 2025 policy, what is the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate?
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Correct answer: D — 5.25%
With the repo rate at 5.50%, the SDF rate remains at 5.25% and the MSF rate and Bank Rate at 5.75%.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's monetary policy of 1 October 2025: 1. The MPC cut the repo rate by 25 basis points. 2. The CPI inflation projection for 2025-26 was lowered to 2.6%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the repo rate was kept unchanged at 5.50%. Statement 2 is correct: the inflation projection was cut to 2.6% from 3.1%.
What investment objective is included in the India–EFTA TEPA, which came into force on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — USD 100 billion over 15 years
TEPA includes an investment objective of USD 100 billion over 15 years and one million direct jobs in India.
Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)?
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Correct answer: C — Denmark
EFTA comprises Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein; Denmark is an EU member.
Consider the following statements about the India–EFTA TEPA: 1. Austria is one of the four EFTA countries party to the agreement. 2. The agreement entered into force on 1 January 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the four EFTA countries are Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein, and TEPA entered into force on 1 October 2025.
What did Prime Minister Narendra Modi release at the RSS centenary celebrations on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — A commemorative postage stamp and coin
The PM released a specially designed commemorative postage stamp and coin.
The commemorative stamp released at the RSS centenary in October 2025 recalls RSS volunteers marching in the Republic Day parade of which year?
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Correct answer: D — 1963
The PM said the stamp recalls RSS volunteers proudly marching in the 1963 Republic Day parade.
How much additional tax devolution did the Union Government release to States on 1 October 2025 as an advance instalment?
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Correct answer: C — ₹1,01,603 crore
The Centre released ₹1,01,603 crore on 1 October 2025, in addition to the regular instalment due on 10 October.
Which State received the largest share of the advance tax devolution released on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh received the largest share at ₹18,227 crore.
Under which legal provision did FIU-IND issue notices to offshore Virtual Digital Asset service providers in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Section 13 of the PMLA, 2002
The notices were issued under Section 13 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
How many offshore Virtual Digital Asset service providers received non-compliance notices from FIU-IND, as announced on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 25
FIU-IND issued notices to 25 offshore VDA service providers.
How many new Kendriya Vidyalayas did the Cabinet approve on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 57
The CCEA approved 57 new KVs in the civil sector.
Kendriya Vidyalayas function abroad in three cities. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: C — Dubai
The three KVs abroad are in Moscow, Kathmandu and Tehran.
Consider the following statements about Kendriya Vidyalayas: 1. The Government approved the scheme of Kendriya Vidyalayas in 1972. 2. The 57 KVs approved in October 2025 are the first to be sanctioned with Balvatikas. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the KV scheme was approved in November 1962. Statement 2 is correct.
The Biomedical Research Career Programme (BRCP), whose Phase III was approved in October 2025, is run by the Department of Biotechnology in partnership with which organisation?
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Correct answer: D — Wellcome Trust, UK
BRCP is a DBT–Wellcome Trust (UK) partnership implemented through the India Alliance SPV.
Consider the following statements about Phase III of the Biomedical Research Career Programme: 1. Its total cost is ₹1,500 crore, of which the Department of Biotechnology contributes ₹1,000 crore. 2. The programme was first launched in 2018-19. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: BRCP was launched in 2008-09; Phase II began in 2018-19.
On which date is NPS Diwas observed every year?
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Correct answer: D — 1 October
NPS Diwas is observed annually on 1 October.
At NPS Diwas 2025, PFRDA exchanged an MoU with which institution to reach farmers through Farmer Producer Organisations?
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Correct answer: B — NABARD
PFRDA exchanged an MoU with NABARD to strengthen outreach to the agriculture and rural sectors through FPOs.
On 30 September 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi welcomed whose comprehensive plan to end the Gaza conflict?
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Correct answer: B — US President Donald Trump
Modi welcomed US President Donald Trump's announcement of a comprehensive plan to end the Gaza conflict.
Consider the following statements about India's response to the US plan on Gaza (September 2025): 1. PM Modi said the plan provides a viable pathway to long-term peace for the Palestinian and Israeli people. 2. PM Modi said the plan could also bring peace, security and development to the larger West Asian region. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the PMO statement of 30 September 2025.
Which company's acquisition of Jaiprakash Associates Limited was approved by the CCI on 30 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Jindal Power Limited
The CCI approved the acquisition of JAL by Jindal Power Limited.
Consider the following statements about the Jindal Power–Jaiprakash Associates combination approved in September 2025: 1. The acquisition is pursuant to a corporate insolvency resolution process under the IBC, 2016. 2. Jaiprakash Associates is primarily engaged in the power sector. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: it is the acquirer, Jindal Power, that is primarily in the power sector; JAL is in real estate, cement, hospitality and EPC.
By how much did India's Index of Industrial Production (IIP) grow year-on-year in August 2025 as per the Quick Estimate?
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Correct answer: A — 4.0%
IIP grew 4.0% in August 2025; the July 2025 Quick Estimate was 3.5% and mining grew 6.0%.
Which manufacturing industry group grew the fastest among the top three contributors to IIP growth in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Basic metals
Basic metals grew 12.2%, motor vehicles 9.8% and coke and refined petroleum products 5.4%.
Under the revised calendar announced with the August 2025 data, on which day of every month is the Quick Estimate of IIP released?
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Correct answer: B — 28th
The Quick Estimate of IIP is now released on the 28th of every month, or the next working day if the 28th is a holiday.
Consider the following statements about India's IIP for August 2025: 1. Consumer non-durables recorded positive growth under the use-based classification. 2. The index is compiled on the base year 2011-12. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: consumer non-durables fell 6.3%. Statement 2 is correct: the base is 2011-12=100.
Under the use-based classification, which category recorded the highest year-on-year growth in India's IIP for August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Infrastructure/construction goods
Infrastructure/construction goods grew 10.6%, against 5.2% for primary goods, 4.4% for capital goods and 3.5% for consumer durables.
Who was named Player of the Match in the Men's T20 Asia Cup 2025 final between India and Pakistan on 28 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Tilak Varma
Tilak Varma scored 69 not out off 53 balls and was Player of the Match; Kuldeep Yadav took 4 for 30.
By what margin did India beat Pakistan in the Asia Cup 2025 final in Dubai?
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Correct answer: C — 5 wickets
India chased 147 and reached 150 for 5 in 19.4 overs, winning by five wickets with two balls to spare.
How many Asia Cup titles had India won after winning the 2025 edition?
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Correct answer: D — Nine
The 2025 win was India's ninth Asia Cup title.
Consider the following statements about the Men's T20 Asia Cup 2025 final: 1. Pakistan batted first and were bowled out for 146. 2. Kuldeep Yadav took four wickets in the match. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Pakistan, put in to bat, were all out for 146 in 19.1 overs, and Kuldeep Yadav took 4 for 30.
In the Asia Cup 2025 final, which Indian bowler dismissed both of Pakistan's top scorers, Sahibzada Farhan (57) and Fakhar Zaman (46)?
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Correct answer: C — Varun Chakravarthy
Varun Chakravarthy took the wickets of Farhan and Fakhar; Kuldeep Yadav took 4 for 30 later in the innings.
Which ministry organised World Food India 2025, which concluded on 28 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Food Processing Industries
World Food India 2025 was organised by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI).
What was the total value of MoUs signed at World Food India 2025?
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Correct answer: B — About ₹1.02 lakh crore
26 companies signed MoUs worth ₹1,02,046.89 crore, expected to create 64,000+ direct jobs.
Consider the following statements about the MoUs signed at World Food India 2025: 1. Twenty-six domestic and global companies signed the MoUs. 2. The MoUs are expected to generate direct employment for over 10 lakh people. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the MoUs are expected to create over 64,000 direct jobs; 10 lakh+ is the indirect figure.
The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports organised the first global Viksit Bharat Run on 28 September 2025 in collaboration with which ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of External Affairs
MYAS organised the Viksit Bharat Run 2025 across over 100 countries with the Ministry of External Affairs.
What was the tagline of the Viksit Bharat Run 2025 held across over 100 countries?
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Correct answer: C — Run to Serve the Nation
The run was held under the tagline 'Run to Serve the Nation' as part of the Seva Pakhwada.
Which festival did PM Modi say in the 126th Mann Ki Baat (28 September 2025) the government is trying to get included in UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list?
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Correct answer: B — Chhath Mahaparva
The PM said the government is striving to include Chhath Mahaparva in UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list.
How many days did Lieutenant Commanders Dilna and Roopa take to complete the Navika Sagar Parikrama, as discussed in Mann Ki Baat on 28 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 238
They sailed about 47,500 km in 238 days, from Goa on 2 October 2024 to 29 May 2025.
The 126th Mann Ki Baat on 28 September 2025 coincided with the birth anniversary of which two personalities?
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Correct answer: A — Bhagat Singh and Lata Mangeshkar
PM Modi noted that 28 September is the birth anniversary of Shaheed Bhagat Singh and Lata Mangeshkar.
Who represented India at the General Debate of the 80th session of the UN General Assembly on 27 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — S. Jaishankar
External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar delivered India's statement at the General Debate on 27 September 2025.
At UNGA 80, EAM Jaishankar said India has undertaken more than 600 development projects in how many countries?
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Correct answer: C — 78
The minister cited more than 600 development projects in 78 countries as part of India's contribution to the Global South.
Which line did EAM Jaishankar use to conclude his call for international cooperation at UNGA 80?
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Correct answer: B — "Islands of prosperity cannot flourish in an ocean of turbulence"
The minister said "International cooperation must prevail because islands of prosperity cannot flourish in an ocean of turbulence".
Consider the following statements about EAM Jaishankar's address at UNGA 80: 1. The minister called for expanding only the non-permanent membership of the Security Council. 2. The minister said the UN had overcome gridlock through recent reforms. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: he called for expanding both permanent and non-permanent membership, and said the UN "remains gridlocked" and is in a state of crisis owing to resistance to reform.
What was the theme of World Tourism Day 2025, observed on 27 September?
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Correct answer: D — Tourism and Sustainable Transformation
The 2025 theme was 'Tourism and Sustainable Transformation'.
Who was the chief guest at the Ministry of Tourism's World Tourism Day event on 27 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Suman Bery
NITI Aayog Vice Chairperson Suman Bery was chief guest; MoS Suresh Gopi presided.
In which part of the ICAO Council was India re-elected on 27 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Part II
India was re-elected to Part II, which comprises States making the largest contribution to facilities for international civil air navigation.
In which city was the 42nd ICAO Assembly, where India was re-elected to the ICAO Council, held?
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Correct answer: B — Montreal
The election took place on 27 September 2025 during the 42nd ICAO Assembly in Montreal.
Consider the following statements about the ICAO Council: 1. The ICAO Council has 36 members elected by the Assembly for a three-year term. 2. India has been a member of ICAO since its founding in 1944. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the 36-member Council is elected for three years by the 193-State Assembly, and India is a founding member since 1944.
Farmers of which three states received the 21st instalment of PM-KISAN first, on 26 September 2025, because of recent floods?
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Correct answer: C — Himachal Pradesh, Punjab and Uttarakhand
The 21st instalment was prioritised for flood- and landslide-hit Himachal Pradesh, Punjab and Uttarakhand.
About how much money was transferred to farmers in the three flood-hit states under the 21st PM-KISAN instalment on 26 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Over ₹540 crore
More than ₹540 crore went to over 27 lakh farmers, including about 2.7 lakh women farmers.
How much does the Government of India plan to borrow through dated securities in the second half of FY 2025-26, as announced on 26 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹6.77 lakh crore
The H2 FY 2025-26 borrowing plan is ₹6.77 lakh crore, including ₹10,000 crore of Sovereign Green Bonds.
What Ways and Means Advances (WMA) limit did the RBI fix for the second half of FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — ₹50,000 crore
The RBI fixed the WMA limit for H2 FY 2025-26 at ₹50,000 crore.
Consider the following statements about the government's borrowing plan for H2 FY 2025-26: 1. It includes ₹10,000 crore through Sovereign Green Bonds. 2. The 30-year security has the largest share of the borrowing. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the 10-year security has the largest share (28.4%); the 30-year share is 9.2%.
When was the Inland Speed Post (document) tariff last revised before the revision effective 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — October 2012
The tariff was last revised in October 2012; the new tariff is effective from 1 October 2025.
What discount on Speed Post tariff did the Department of Posts introduce for students in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 10%
Students get a 10% discount on Speed Post tariff; new bulk customers get 5%.
In its right of reply at UNGA on 26 September 2025, India said Pakistan had shielded which outfit over the massacre of tourists in Jammu and Kashmir?
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Correct answer: C — The Resistance Front
India said Pakistan shielded The Resistance Front, a Pakistan-sponsored terror outfit, from responsibility for the massacre of tourists in J&K.
India exercised its right of reply at the 80th UN General Assembly on 26 September 2025 in response to the speech of:
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Correct answer: A — The Prime Minister of Pakistan
India's reply responded to the speech of the Prime Minister of Pakistan, condemning his "absurd theatrics".
How many LCA Mk1A aircraft did the Defence Ministry contract from HAL on 25 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 97
The contract covers 97 LCA Mk1A aircraft – 68 fighters and 29 twin-seaters.
What is the approximate value of the LCA Mk1A contract signed with HAL on 25 September 2025 (excluding taxes)?
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Correct answer: C — ₹62,370 crore
The contract is worth over ₹62,370 crore, excluding taxes.
Under which Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020 category is the 97 LCA Mk1A purchase made?
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Correct answer: B — Buy (India-IDDM)
The acquisition is under the 'Buy (India-IDDM)' category of DAP 2020.
Which indigenous radar is among the systems to be integrated in the 97 LCA Mk1A aircraft ordered in September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — UTTAM AESA
Indigenous systems to be integrated include the UTTAM AESA radar, Swayam Raksha Kavach and control surface actuators.
Consider the following statements about the LCA Mk1A contract of September 2025: 1. Deliveries will begin in 2027-28. 2. The aircraft will have an indigenous content of over 80%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: deliveries start in 2027-28 and will be completed over six years. Statement 2 is wrong: indigenous content will be over 64%.
According to MoSPI's 'Children in India 2025', what was India's infant mortality rate in 2023?
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Correct answer: A — 25
The infant mortality rate fell from 44 in 2011 to 25 in 2023.
Where was MoSPI's 'Children in India 2025' released, during the 29th Conference of Central and State Statistical Organisations?
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Correct answer: D — Chandigarh
It was released at the 29th CoCSSO in Chandigarh on 25 September 2025.
Under the ECI decision of 25 September 2025, which round of EVM/VVPAT counting can be taken up only after postal ballot counting is completed?
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Correct answer: B — The penultimate (second-last) round
The penultimate round of EVM/VVPAT counting will be taken up only after postal ballot counting is completed at that centre.
At what time does EVM counting start on counting day, according to the ECI?
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Correct answer: D — 8:30 AM
Postal ballot counting starts at 8:00 AM and EVM counting at 8:30 AM.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's postal ballot counting decision of September 2025: 1. The ECI described it as its 30th initiative in six months. 2. The ECI cited a fall in the number of postal ballots as the reason. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: postal ballots have increased substantially because of home voting for PwDs and voters aged 85+.
Under the XV Finance Commission, untied grants to rural local bodies can be used for subjects listed in which Schedule of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: C — Eleventh Schedule
Untied grants can be used for location-specific needs under the 29 subjects in the Eleventh Schedule, except salaries and establishment costs.
Which state received the largest share of the XV Finance Commission untied grants released on 25 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh received ₹1,548.38 crore, Bihar ₹801.01 crore and Himachal Pradesh ₹67.96 crore.
From what kind of platform was the Agni-Prime missile launched for the first time on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — A rail-based mobile launcher
DRDO and SFC launched Agni-Prime from a specially designed rail-based mobile launcher – a first-of-its-kind launch.
What is the range of the Agni-Prime missile, as stated by DRDO?
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Correct answer: D — Up to 2,000 km
The next-generation Agni-Prime missile is designed to cover a range of up to 2,000 km.
Which organisation carried out the rail-based Agni-Prime launch along with DRDO in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Strategic Forces Command
DRDO carried out the launch in collaboration with the Strategic Forces Command (SFC).
Consider the following statements about the Agni-Prime launch of 24 September 2025: 1. It was the first-ever flight test of the Agni-Prime missile. 2. The road-mobile version of Agni-P has already been inducted into service. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 2 is correct. Statement 1 is wrong: it was the first launch from a rail-based launcher; the road-mobile Agni-P was inducted after a series of successful flight trials.
What is the total size of the shipbuilding and maritime package approved by the Union Cabinet on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹69,725 crore
The Cabinet approved a ₹69,725 crore four-pillar package for the shipbuilding and maritime sector.
Until when has the Shipbuilding Financial Assistance Scheme been extended under the September 2025 package?
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Correct answer: C — 31 March 2036
SBFAS is extended until 31 March 2036 with a total corpus of ₹24,736 crore.
The Shipbuilding Development Scheme approved in September 2025 aims to expand domestic shipbuilding capacity to what level?
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Correct answer: D — 4.5 million GT
The ₹19,989 crore Shipbuilding Development Scheme aims to expand capacity to 4.5 million Gross Tonnage.
Consider the following statements about the Maritime Development Fund approved in September 2025: 1. It has a corpus of ₹25,000 crore. 2. Its Maritime Investment Fund has 49% participation from the Government of India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the ₹25,000 crore fund includes a ₹20,000 crore Maritime Investment Fund with 49% GoI participation and a ₹5,000 crore Interest Incentivisation Fund.
How many postgraduate medical seats will be added under Phase III of the centrally sponsored scheme approved on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5,000
Phase III will add 5,000 PG seats; a separate extension will add 5,023 MBBS seats.
What is the enhanced cost ceiling per seat under the medical seat expansion schemes approved in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1.50 crore
The schemes have an enhanced cost ceiling of ₹1.50 crore per seat.
What is the total financial implication of the two medical seat schemes approved on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹15,034.50 crore
The total is ₹15,034.50 crore for 2025-26 to 2028-29: ₹10,303.20 crore central and ₹4,731.30 crore state share.
Consider the following statements about the medical seat schemes approved in September 2025: 1. The schemes will add 5,023 PG seats and 5,000 MBBS seats. 2. The Centre will bear the entire cost. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the schemes add 5,000 PG and 5,023 MBBS seats, and the cost is shared – ₹10,303.20 crore Centre and ₹4,731.30 crore States.