TNPSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
According to the Annual Survey of Industries 2023-24, which state ranked first in terms of employment?
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Correct answer: A — Tamil Nadu
Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka are the top five states by employment, in that order.
As per ASI 2023-24 results released on 27 August 2025, Gross Value Added in the sector grew in current prices by:
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Correct answer: B — 11.89%
GVA grew 11.89% in current prices; output grew more than 5.80% and employment 5.92%.
Consider the following statements about the Annual Survey of Industries 2023-24: 1. Gujarat ranked first among states in terms of employment. 2. The sector added about 57 lakh jobs during 2014-15 to 2023-24. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: Tamil Nadu ranked first and Gujarat second. Statement 2 is correct.
According to Union Minister Jitendra Singh (August 2025), India's bioeconomy was valued at about how much in 2024?
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Correct answer: D — $165.7 billion
India's bioeconomy grew from $10 billion in 2014 to $165.7 billion in 2024; $300 billion is the 2030 target.
India's first Biomanufacturing Institute, cited as an achievement in the first year of the BioE3 Policy, was inaugurated at:
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Correct answer: A — Mohali
The Minister highlighted the inauguration of India's first Biomanufacturing Institute at Mohali.
Glanders, the equine disease targeted by a Revised National Action Plan in August 2025, is caused by:
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Correct answer: B — Burkholderia mallei
Glanders is caused by the bacterium Burkholderia mallei and primarily affects horses, mules and donkeys.
In his call with PM Modi on 27 August 2025, Finland's President Alexander Stubb affirmed support for the success of which event to be hosted by India in 2026?
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Correct answer: D — AI Impact Summit
President Stubb affirmed support for the success of the AI Impact Summit to be hosted by India in 2026, and backed an early India–EU FTA.
According to UIDAI (August 2025), mandatory biometric updates are pending for approximately how many Aadhaar numbers?
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Correct answer: C — 17 crore
UIDAI says there are approximately 17 crore Aadhaar numbers with pending mandatory biometric updates.
According to the CMS: Education 2025 survey, government schools account for what share of total school enrolment in India?
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Correct answer: B — 55.9%
Government schools account for 55.9% of total enrolment (66.0% in rural areas); private unaided recognised schools account for 31.9%.
As per the CMS: Education 2025 survey, what proportion of students were taking or had taken private coaching during the current academic year?
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Correct answer: C — 27.0%
27.0% of all students were taking or had taken private coaching – 30.7% in urban and 25.5% in rural areas.
Consider the following statements about the CMS: Education 2025 survey: 1. Average household expenditure per student in government schools was ₹2,863. 2. Textbooks and stationery formed the largest component of household education expenditure per student. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: course fees (₹7,111) were the largest expense, followed by textbooks and stationery (₹2,002).
Under the revised wheat stock limits announced on 26 August 2025, the limit for traders/wholesalers has been reduced to:
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Correct answer: A — 2,000 MT
The limit for traders/wholesalers was cut from 3,000 MT to 2,000 MT, applicable until 31 March 2026.
Wheat stockists violating the revised stock limits (August 2025) face punitive action under which law?
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Correct answer: D — Essential Commodities Act, 1955
Violators are subject to punitive action under Sections 6 and 7 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
The two-day Vibrant Villages Programme workshop addressed by Amit Shah on 26 August 2025 was organised by:
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Correct answer: C — Border Management Division, MHA
The workshop was organised by the Border Management Division of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
At the VVP workshop (August 2025), Amit Shah said borders should be free from encroachment for at least what radius?
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Correct answer: B — 30 km
Amit Shah said borders should be free from encroachment for at least a 30 km radius.
What is the theme of Ayurveda Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Ayurveda for People & Planet
The 2025 theme announced by the Ministry of Ayush is 'Ayurveda for People & Planet'.
As recalled by the Ministry of Ayush in August 2025, which nationwide campaign was introduced by the Prime Minister on the 9th Ayurveda Day in 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Desh Ka Prakriti Parikshan Abhiyan
On the 9th Ayurveda Day (2024), the PM inaugurated Phase II of AIIA, New Delhi and introduced the nationwide 'Desh Ka Prakriti Parikshan Abhiyan'.
The Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare signed an MoU on 26 August 2025 with which body to strengthen services for over 63 lakh veterans?
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Correct answer: A — Quality Council of India
DESW signed the MoU with the Quality Council of India (QCI) in New Delhi on 26 August 2025.
The Prime Minister of which country, Sitiveni Ligamamada Rabuka, visited UIDAI headquarters in New Delhi on 26 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Fiji
Fiji's Prime Minister Sitiveni Ligamamada Rabuka visited UIDAI headquarters, where Aadhaar and DigiLocker were demonstrated.
Which meeting of the India–South Africa Joint Working Group on Agriculture was held virtually on 26 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5th
The 5th meeting of the India–South Africa JWG on Agriculture was held in virtual mode on 26 August 2025.
How many school teachers were selected by the Department of School Education & Literacy for the National Teachers' Awards 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 45
45 school teachers from 27 states, 7 UTs and 6 organisations were selected; 21 teachers were selected separately from HEIs and polytechnics.
Which Prime Minister of Fiji paid an Official Visit to India from 24 to 26 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Sitiveni Rabuka
Fiji's Prime Minister Sitiveni Rabuka paid an Official Visit to India from 24 to 26 August 2025, his first visit to India in his current capacity.
The India–Fiji Joint Statement issued on 25 August 2025 was titled 'Partnership in the spirit of ______'.
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Correct answer: A — Veilomani Dosti
The India–Fiji Joint Statement of 25 August 2025 was titled 'Partnership in the spirit of Veilomani Dosti'.
Consider the following statements about outcomes of Fiji PM Sitiveni Rabuka's visit to India (August 2025): 1. An MoU was signed for a 100-bedded Super Specialty Hospital in Suva, described as the largest project undertaken by India under its Grant-in-Aid Programme in the Pacific region. 2. Fiji joined the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The joint statement describes the 100-bedded Super Specialty Hospital in Suva as India's largest Grant-in-Aid project in the Pacific region, and the list of outcomes announces that Fiji joins the IPOI.
According to the India–Fiji Joint Statement (August 2025), the Girmitiyas — over 60,000 Indian indentured labourers — arrived in Fiji during which period?
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Correct answer: D — 1879 to 1916
The joint statement acknowledged the Girmitiyas, over 60,000 Indian indentured labourers who arrived in Fiji between 1879 and 1916.
With reference to India–Fiji relations as recalled in the August 2025 joint statement, consider the following statements: 1. President Droupadi Murmu's visit to Fiji in August 2024 was the first-ever visit by a President of India to Fiji. 2. The 12th World Hindi Conference was held in Suva in February 2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the joint statement calls President Droupadi Murmu's August 2024 visit the historic first-ever visit of an Indian President to Fiji. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 12th World Hindi Conference was held in Nadi, not Suva, in February 2023.
Under the Letter of Intent signed between India and the World Food Programme on 25 August 2025, India offers WFP the opportunity to supply which commodity?
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Correct answer: B — Fortified rice
Under the LoI, the Department of Food and Public Distribution offers WFP the opportunity to supply fortified rice from India for vulnerable populations in crisis zones.
Consider the following statements about the India–WFP Letter of Intent of 25 August 2025: 1. On the Indian side, the initiative is offered by the Department of Food and Public Distribution. 2. The LoI followed discussions at a February 2025 WFP Executive Board side event held in Geneva. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Department of Food and Public Distribution offers WFP the opportunity to supply fortified rice. Statement 2 is incorrect: the February 2025 Executive Board side event was held in Rome, not Geneva.
As of 21 August 2025, total gross enrolments under Atal Pension Yojana had crossed:
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Correct answer: A — 8.11 crore
PFRDA said total gross enrolments under Atal Pension Yojana crossed 8.11 crore as of 21 August 2025.
According to PFRDA, what share of total Atal Pension Yojana enrolments in FY 2024-25 were women?
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Correct answer: B — 55%
PFRDA said that in FY 2024-25, 55% of total APY enrolments were women, out of more than 1.17 crore new subscribers.
In August 2025, Government e Marketplace (GeM) crossed what milestone in cumulative Gross Merchandise Value since inception?
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Correct answer: D — ₹15 lakh crore
GeM crossed ₹15 lakh crore in cumulative Gross Merchandise Value since its inception in 2016.
Government e Marketplace (GeM), the online public procurement platform that crossed ₹15 lakh crore GMV in August 2025, was started in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2016
The Commerce Ministry stated that GeM crossed ₹15 lakh crore cumulative GMV since its inception in 2016.
Which body released India's first national 'Guidelines and SOPs for Blood Transfusion and Blood Banks for Animals in India' in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying
The Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD) under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying released the guidelines and SOPs.
Consider the following statements about the national Guidelines/SOPs for animal blood transfusion released in August 2025: 1. They make blood typing and cross-matching mandatory to prevent incompatibility reactions. 2. They lay out a roadmap for a National Veterinary Blood Bank Network (N-VBBN). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Key highlights include mandatory blood typing and cross-matching to prevent incompatibility reactions and a roadmap for a National Veterinary Blood Bank Network (N-VBBN) with digital registries, real-time inventories and an emergency helpline.
MAR-a-THON 2025, India's Maritime Hackathon launched at IIT Madras in August 2025, is organised under which initiative?
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Correct answer: A — Sagarmala Start-up Innovation Initiative (S2I2)
MAR-a-THON 2025 is organised under the Sagarmala Start-up Innovation Initiative (S2I2) of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
Under MAR-a-THON 2025, what is the maximum seed funding (Minimum Viable Product stage) available to a selected start-up?
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Correct answer: C — Up to ₹60 lakh
Selected start-ups can get up to ₹10 lakh for proof of concept, up to ₹60 lakh seed funding for a Minimum Viable Product and up to ₹1 crore as a tech pilot grant.
The Ministerial-level India–Japan Energy Dialogue of 25 August 2025 was co-chaired on the Japanese side by the Minister of which ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of Economy, Trade and Industry
The dialogue was co-chaired by Power Minister Manohar Lal and Mr Muto Yoji, Minister of Economy, Trade and Industry of Japan.
Under the performance MoU signed with MNRE on 25 August 2025, what Revenue from Operations target has been set for IREDA for FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — ₹8,200 crore
The Government set IREDA a Revenue from Operations target of ₹8,200 crore for FY 2025-26; in FY 2024-25 it achieved ₹6,743.32 crore against a ₹5,957 crore target.
Chief of the Army Staff General Upendra Dwivedi embarked on an official visit to which country from 25 to 28 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Algeria
Algeria; the visit followed recent visits there by the President of India and the Chief of Defence Staff.
During his August 2025 visit to Algeria, General Upendra Dwivedi was to meet General Saïd Chanegriha, who holds which post?
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Correct answer: D — Chief of Staff of the People's National Army
Chief of Staff of the People's National Army, who is also Minister Delegate to the Minister of National Defence; Lt Gen Mostefa Smaali is Commander of Land Forces.
Which of the following was NOT among the four Gaganyaan astronauts felicitated by Rajnath Singh in New Delhi on 24 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Wg Cdr Rakesh Sharma
The four Gaganyatris felicitated were Group Captains Shubhanshu Shukla, P B Nair, Ajit Krishnan and Angad Pratap; Rakesh Sharma was not among them.
Who felicitated the four Gaganyatris of ISRO's Gaganyaan mission at an event in New Delhi on 24 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Rajnath Singh
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh felicitated Group Captains Shubhanshu Shukla, P B Nair, Ajit Krishnan and Angad Pratap in New Delhi on 24 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about the felicitation of the Gaganyatris on 24 August 2025: 1. The event was held at ISRO headquarters in Bengaluru. 2. Gaganyaan is ISRO's maiden human spaceflight mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Defence Minister Rajnath Singh felicitated the four Gaganyatris at an event in New Delhi.
The 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference, at which Om Birla will lead the Indian delegation in October 2025, is being held in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Bridgetown
Om Birla will lead the Indian Parliamentary Delegation at the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference in Bridgetown, Barbados, from 5 to 12 October 2025.
On what theme will Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla address the General Assembly of the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference?
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Correct answer: A — The Commonwealth: A Global Partner
Om Birla will address the General Assembly of the 68th CPC on the theme 'The Commonwealth: A Global Partner'.
Consider the following statements about India's participation in the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference: 1. The conference is scheduled from 5 to 12 October 2025. 2. Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman Harivansh is part of the Indian delegation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The delegation, led by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla and representing the CPA India Region, includes Harivansh; the conference is in Bridgetown, Barbados, from 5 to 12 October 2025.
With effect from which date did the Department of Posts temporarily suspend booking of most postal articles to the USA, as announced on 23 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 25 August 2025
The Department of Posts decided to temporarily suspend booking of all types of postal articles destined for the USA with effect from 25 August 2025, except letters/documents and gifts up to USD 100.
Under US Executive Order No. 14324, the duty-free de minimis exemption was to be withdrawn from 29 August 2025 for goods valued up to:
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Correct answer: D — USD 800
Under Executive Order No. 14324 of 30 July 2025, the duty-free de minimis exemption for goods valued up to USD 800 was to be withdrawn with effect from 29 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about India Post's suspension of postal bookings to the USA (August 2025): 1. Letters/documents and gift items up to USD 100 in value were exempted from the suspension. 2. The suspension followed US-bound air carriers expressing inability to accept postal consignments after 25 August 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Letters/documents and gifts up to USD 100 continued to be accepted, and US-bound air carriers had expressed inability to accept postal consignments after 25 August, citing lack of operational and technical readiness.
The US Executive Order of 30 July 2025 cited by India's Department of Posts for withdrawing the de minimis exemption is numbered:
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Correct answer: B — 14324
The Department of Posts took note of Executive Order No. 14324 issued by the US Administration on 30 July 2025, which withdraws the de minimis exemption from 29 August 2025.
What was the theme of National Space Day 2025, as stated by PM Narendra Modi?
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Correct answer: C — From Aryabhata to Gaganyaan
PM Modi said this year's theme, 'From Aryabhata to Gaganyaan', reflects both the confidence of India's past and the resolve for its future.
Where was the main National Space Day 2025 programme, addressed by Dr Jitendra Singh, held?
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Correct answer: B — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
Dr Jitendra Singh addressed the National Space Day programme at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
On National Space Day 2025, Dr Jitendra Singh said an Indian will announce 'Viksit Bharat 2047' from the surface of the Moon in which year?
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Correct answer: D — 2040
Dr Jitendra Singh said an Indian will announce 'Viksit Bharat 2047' from the surface of the Moon in 2040.
With reference to National Space Day 2025, consider the following statements: 1. India was hosting the International Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics, with nearly 300 participants from over 60 countries. 2. The second edition of the Bharatiya Antariksh Hackathon drew participation from over 61,000 students. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. PM Modi noted that India was hosting the IOAA with nearly 300 young participants from over sixty countries, and the second edition of the Bharatiya Antariksh Hackathon drew over 61,000 students in 8,744 teams.
As per the timeline outlined by Dr Jitendra Singh on National Space Day 2025, consider the following statements: 1. India will attempt its first human spaceflight under the Gaganyaan mission in 2027. 2. The proposed Bharat Antariksh Station is to be established by 2040. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: India will attempt its first human spaceflight under Gaganyaan in 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect: the proposed Bharat Antariksh Station is to be established by 2035; 2040 is the year mentioned for an Indian on the Moon.
The 11th round of India–Australia CECA negotiations, which concluded on 23 August 2025, was held in:
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Correct answer: A — New Delhi
The 11th round of India–Australia CECA negotiations was held in New Delhi from 18 to 23 August 2025.
In the context of India–Australia trade talks, what does 'CECA' stand for?
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Correct answer: C — Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement
CECA stands for the India–Australia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement, whose 11th negotiating round concluded in New Delhi on 23 August 2025.
In August 2025, the CCPA fined VLCC Limited for misleading ads on CoolSculpting. According to the CCPA, the procedure is approved only for localised fat reduction in individuals with a BMI of:
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Correct answer: B — 30 or less
The CCPA noted that CoolSculpting is approved only for localised fat reduction in specific body areas and only for individuals with a Body Mass Index (BMI) of 30 or less.
What penalty did the Central Consumer Protection Authority impose on VLCC Limited in August 2025 for misleading fat-loss advertisements?
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Correct answer: A — ₹3 lakh
The CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹3 lakh on VLCC Limited for misleading advertisements on CoolSculpting fat-loss treatments.
NITI Aayog released the report 'Rethinking Homestays: Navigating Policy Pathways' in August 2025 in collaboration with which organisation?
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Correct answer: A — Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI)
NITI Aayog launched the report in collaboration with the Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI).
Who released NITI Aayog's report 'Rethinking Homestays: Navigating Policy Pathways' on 22 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Suman Bery
The report was released by Suman Bery, Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog.
Under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Bill, 2025, offering or facilitating online money games can attract what maximum punishment for a first offence?
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Correct answer: B — Up to 3 years and ₹1 crore
Offering or facilitating online money games can lead to imprisonment of up to three years and a fine of up to ₹1 crore; repeat offenders face up to five years and ₹2 crore.
After receiving Presidential assent on 22 August 2025, the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act was published as which Act number of 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Act No. 32
The Gazette notification states that the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025 received assent on 22 August 2025 and is No. 32 of 2025.
Which ministry will prepare guidelines and standards for e-sports tournaments under the online gaming law passed in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
E-sports are recognised as a legitimate competitive sport, and the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports will prepare guidelines and standards for tournaments.
Consider the following statements about the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Bill, 2025: 1. The ban on online money games applies to games of skill as well as games of chance. 2. Advertising online money games can attract imprisonment of up to two years and a fine of up to ₹50 lakh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the complete ban covers games of chance, games of skill and those combining both, and advertising such games can attract a jail term of up to two years and a fine of up to ₹50 lakh.
Consider the following statements about the online gaming law of 2025: 1. The Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha on 20 August 2025 and by the Rajya Sabha on 21 August 2025. 2. Offences under its key provisions are cognisable but bailable. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill on 20 August and the Rajya Sabha on 21 August 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: offences under key provisions are cognisable and non-bailable.