Teaching Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Where was the inaugural Khelo India Water Sports Festival held from 21 to 23 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Dal Lake, Srinagar
The inaugural Khelo India Water Sports Festival was held at Dal Lake, Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir, from 21 to 23 August 2025.
The Khelo India Water Sports Festival is the second addition to the Khelo India calendar after which event held in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Khelo India Beach Games, Diu
The PIB release says the KIWSF is the second addition to the expanding Khelo India calendar after the Khelo India Beach Games in Diu in May.
Consider the following statements about the Khelo India Water Sports Festival 2025: 1. Shikara sprint was one of the medal events. 2. Rowing, canoeing and kayaking together carried 24 medals. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: shikara sprints, dragon boat race and water skiing were demonstration events. Statement 2 is correct: rowing, canoeing and kayaking had 24 medals up for grabs.
Where was the 23rd General Conference of the Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD), at which India was elected Executive Board Chairman, held in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Phuket, Thailand
The 23rd AIBD General Conference was held from 19 to 21 August 2025 in Phuket, Thailand.
The Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD) was founded in 1977 under the auspices of which body?
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Correct answer: C — UNESCO
AIBD was founded in 1977 under the auspices of UNESCO and is a regional inter-governmental organisation.
How many State Cooperative Banks are covered by UIDAI's Aadhaar authentication framework for cooperative banks launched on 21 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 34
The framework covers all 34 State Cooperative Banks (SCBs) and 352 District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs).
Consider the following statements about UIDAI's Aadhaar framework for cooperative banks (August 2025): 1. Each District Central Cooperative Bank must register separately with UIDAI as an Authentication User Agency. 2. The framework was rolled out to mark the International Year of Cooperatives. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: only State Cooperative Banks register with UIDAI as AUA/KUA, and DCCBs use the Aadhaar application and IT infrastructure of their SCBs. Statement 2 is correct: the framework was rolled out to mark the International Year of Cooperatives.
Lord Swraj Paul, who passed away in London on 21 August 2025, was the founder of which industrial group?
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Correct answer: C — Caparo Group
Lord Swraj Paul was the founder of the UK-based Caparo Group of industries.
Lord Swraj Paul's failed takeover bids for which Indian companies in the 1980s eventually led to the formation of the 'Bombay Club'?
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Correct answer: A — Escorts and Shriram
His failed takeover bids for Escorts and Shriram created a stir in Indian industrial and political circles in the 1980s and eventually led to the formation of the 'Bombay Club'.
In which year did Lord Swraj Paul found the Caparo Group in the UK?
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Correct answer: D — 1968
Lord Paul moved to the UK in 1966 and laid the foundation of the Caparo Group there in 1968.
What was the code name of the DRI operation that seized 72 kg of hydroponic weed in Bengaluru and Bhopal in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Operation WeedOut
The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence's pan-India operation was code-named 'WeedOut'.
Under which law was the hydroponic weed seized in DRI's Operation WeedOut (August 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — NDPS Act, 1985
The 72.024 kg of hydroponic weed and illegal proceeds of ₹1.02 crore were seized under the provisions of the NDPS Act, 1985.
During their phone call on 21 August 2025, PM Modi and President Macron reaffirmed their commitment to mark 2026 as the India–France year of what?
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Correct answer: D — Year of Innovation
The leaders reaffirmed their joint commitment to strengthen the India–France Strategic Partnership and mark 2026 as 'Year of Innovation'.
In the phone call with PM Modi on 21 August 2025, President Macron conveyed support for early conclusion of India's Free Trade Agreement with whom?
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Correct answer: C — European Union
President Macron conveyed support for early conclusion of the Free Trade Agreement between India and the EU.
The IIM to be set up at Guwahati under the IIM (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed by Parliament in August 2025 will be India's which IIM?
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Correct answer: C — 22nd
Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan said the 22nd IIM in the country will be set up in Guwahati.
What corpus fund will IIM Guwahati receive for five years (2025–26 to 2029–30) under the IIM (Amendment) Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹555 crore
The Bill's financial memorandum provides a corpus fund of ₹555 crore for IIM Guwahati for five years, 2025–26 to 2029–30.
The establishment of IIM Guwahati is one of the projects under a Special Development Package for Assam agreed in a Memorandum of Settlement signed by the Government of India, the Assam government and which group?
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Correct answer: D — United Liberation Front of Asom (ULFA)
The Bill's statement of objects says the Government of India, the State Government of Assam and representatives of ULFA signed a Memorandum of Settlement, under whose Special Development Package an IIM at Guwahati is one of the projects.
Consider the following statements about the Indian Institutes of Management (Amendment) Bill, 2025: 1. It was passed by the Lok Sabha on 19 August and by the Rajya Sabha on 20 August 2025. 2. It amends the Indian Institutes of Management Act, 2017. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill on 19 August and the Rajya Sabha on 20 August 2025, and the Bill amends the Indian Institutes of Management Act, 2017.
Under the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025, removal of a Minister is linked to arrest and detention in custody for more than how many days?
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Correct answer: B — 30 days
The Bills seek removal of the PM, CMs or Ministers facing serious charges who are arrested and detained in custody for more than 30 days; removal is to take place on the 31st day.
The Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 applies to charges punishable with imprisonment for a term of at least how long?
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Correct answer: D — 5 years or more
The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs states the Bills cover serious criminal charges punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 5 years or more.
What is the composition of the Joint Committee to which the Lok Sabha referred the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 and two related Bills?
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Correct answer: A — 21 Lok Sabha and 10 Rajya Sabha members
The motion moved by Amit Shah referred the three Bills to a Joint Committee of 21 Lok Sabha members nominated by the Speaker and 10 Rajya Sabha members nominated by the Deputy Chairman.
Consider the following statements about the Bills introduced in the Lok Sabha on 20 August 2025: 1. The Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 was introduced by Union Home Minister Amit Shah. 2. It was introduced along with the Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Bill, 2025 and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: Amit Shah introduced the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 in the Lok Sabha on 20 August 2025, together with the Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Bill and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill.
Consider the following statements about the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025: 1. The Prime Minister is kept outside the scope of the removal provision. 2. The Joint Committee examining it is to report by the last day of the first week of the next session. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Bills cover the Prime Minister as well as Union Ministers and Chief Ministers and Ministers of States and UTs. Statement 2 is correct: the motion requires the Joint Committee to report by the last day of the first week of the next session.
Where did India and the Eurasian Economic Union sign the Terms of Reference to launch FTA negotiations on 20 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Moscow
The Terms of Reference to launch negotiations on a Free Trade Agreement were signed in Moscow on 20 August 2025.
What was the India–EAEU trade turnover in 2024, as noted when the FTA Terms of Reference were signed?
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Correct answer: D — USD 69 billion
Both sides noted India–EAEU trade turnover of USD 69 billion in 2024, a 7 per cent increase over 2023.
Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the Eurasian Economic Union, with which India signed FTA Terms of Reference in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Uzbekistan
The EAEU comprises Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, the Kyrgyz Republic and the Russian Federation; Uzbekistan is not listed among its members.
Consider the following statements about the India–EAEU FTA Terms of Reference signed in August 2025: 1. It was signed on India's behalf by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal. 2. India and the EAEU have a combined GDP of USD 6.5 trillion. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the ToR was signed by Ajay Bhadoo, Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce. Statement 2 is correct: the release cites a combined GDP of USD 6.5 trillion.
In what capacity was Starlink Satellite Communication Pvt Ltd appointed by UIDAI in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sub-Authentication User Agency and Sub-eKYC User Agency
Starlink Satellite Communication Pvt Ltd was appointed as a Sub-Authentication User Agency and Sub-eKYC User Agency.
Who was the CEO of UIDAI in whose presence Starlink was onboarded for Aadhaar authentication in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bhuvnesh Kumar
Starlink's appointment was done in the presence of UIDAI CEO Bhuvnesh Kumar.
From where was the Agni-5 missile successfully test-fired on 20 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Integrated Test Range, Chandipur, Odisha
The Ministry of Defence said Agni-5 was successfully test-fired from the Integrated Test Range, Chandipur, in Odisha on 20 August 2025.
Under the aegis of which command was the Agni-5 test-firing of 20 August 2025 carried out?
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Correct answer: D — Strategic Forces Command
The launch was carried out under the aegis of the Strategic Forces Command.
How did the Ministry of Defence classify the Agni-5 missile tested on 20 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile
The Ministry of Defence described Agni-5 as an Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile.
What net addition of members did EPFO report for June 2025, the highest since payroll tracking began?
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Correct answer: B — 21.89 lakh
EPFO's provisional payroll data for June 2025 showed a net addition of 21.89 lakh members, the highest since tracking began in April 2018.
Since when has EPFO been tracking payroll data, against which the June 2025 net addition was described as the highest?
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Correct answer: C — April 2018
The June 2025 net addition of 21.89 lakh was the highest since payroll data tracking began in April 2018.
Who was the Returning Officer before whom C.P. Radhakrishnan's nomination papers for the Vice-Presidential election were filed on 20 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — P.C. Mody, Secretary General of Rajya Sabha
The four sets of nomination papers were handed over to Rajya Sabha Secretary General P.C. Mody, the returning officer for the Vice-Presidential election.
How many sets of nomination papers were filed for C.P. Radhakrishnan for the Vice-Presidential election on 20 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Four
Four sets of nomination papers were handed over to the returning officer, with Narendra Modi, Rajnath Singh, Amit Shah and Rajiv Ranjan Singh as lead proposers.
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential election process referred to in August 2025: 1. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are part of the electoral college. 2. A candidate's nomination must be subscribed by at least 20 electors as proposers and at least 20 as seconders. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the electoral college comprises members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, and nominated Rajya Sabha members are also eligible to vote; a nomination needs at least 20 electors as proposers and 20 as seconders.
Who co-chaired the 24th round of India–China Special Representatives talks with Chinese Foreign Minister Wang Yi in New Delhi on 19 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Ajit Doval
National Security Adviser Ajit Doval co-chaired the 24th meeting of the Special Representatives with Wang Yi during his visit to New Delhi.
At the 24th Special Representatives talks, India and China agreed to set up an Expert Group to explore an 'early harvest' in boundary delimitation under which framework?
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Correct answer: A — Working Mechanism for Consultation and Coordination on India-China Border Affairs (WMCC)
The MEA statement, as reported, said the two sides agreed to set up an Expert Group under the WMCC to explore early harvest in boundary delimitation.
The India–China Special Representatives talks held in New Delhi on 19 August 2025 were which round of the mechanism?
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Correct answer: C — 24th
PIB and the MEA statement describe the 19 August 2025 meeting co-chaired by Ajit Doval and Wang Yi as the 24th meeting of the Special Representatives.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of the 24th India–China Special Representatives talks: 1. The two sides agreed to create General-level mechanisms in the eastern and middle sectors, in addition to the existing one in the western sector. 2. They agreed to seek a settlement framework in line with the 2005 Agreement on Political Parameters and Guiding Principles. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the MEA statement, as reported, refers to new General-level mechanisms in the eastern and middle sectors alongside the existing western-sector mechanism, and to a fair, reasonable and mutually acceptable framework in line with the 2005 Agreement on Political Parameters and Guiding Principles.
Consider the following statements about the mechanisms agreed at the 24th India–China Special Representatives talks: 1. The Working Group under the WMCC was set up to explore an early harvest in boundary delimitation. 2. The WMCC, under which the new groups were set up, was created in 2012. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: early harvest in boundary delimitation is the task of the Expert Group, while the Working Group is to advance effective border management. Statement 2 is correct: the WMCC was created in 2012.
The Capital Region Ring Road (Bhubaneswar Bypass) approved by the Cabinet on 19 August 2025 will be developed under which mode?
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Correct answer: C — Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM)
The CCEA approved the 6-lane access-controlled Capital Region Ring Road (Bhubaneswar Bypass, 110.875 km) in Odisha on Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM).
What is the total capital cost of the 110.875-km Bhubaneswar Bypass approved by the CCEA on 19 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹8,307.74 crore
The Capital Region Ring Road (Bhubaneswar Bypass, 110.875 km) was approved at a total capital cost of ₹8,307.74 crore.
Consider the following statements about the Capital Region Ring Road in Odisha approved on 19 August 2025: 1. It is meant to ease congestion on the existing National Highway between Rameshwar and Tangi, which passes through Khordha, Bhubaneswar and Cuttack. 2. Its alignment integrates with only two National Highways and no State Highway. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the project addresses congestion on the existing NH between Rameshwar and Tangi through Khordha, Bhubaneswar and Cuttack. Statement 2 is incorrect: the alignment integrates with three National Highways (NH-55, NH-57 and NH-655) and one State Highway (SH-65).
Until what date did the Government exempt raw cotton imports from all customs duties, with effect from 19 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 30 September 2025
The Government exempted all customs duties on the import of raw cotton with effect from 19 August 2025 until 30 September 2025.
What was the cumulative import duty on raw cotton that was removed by the exemption announced on 19 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 11%
The exemption removed the 5% Basic Customs Duty, the 5% AIDC and a 10% Social Welfare Surcharge on both, cumulatively an 11% import duty on cotton.
Consider the following statements about the customs duty exemption on raw cotton announced in August 2025: 1. The exemption was notified by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT). 2. The exemption took effect from 1 September 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is correct: the exemption was notified by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), and it took effect from 19 August 2025, running until 30 September 2025.
INS Tamal arrived at which Greek port on 19 August 2025 during her return passage to India after commissioning in Russia?
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Correct answer: A — Souda Bay
INS Tamal, the latest stealth frigate, arrived at Souda Bay, Greece, on 19 August 2025 during her return passage to India post commissioning in Russia.
During INS Tamal's port call at Souda Bay in August 2025, the crew was to be familiarised with operations at which facility?
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Correct answer: D — NATO Maritime Interdiction Operational Training Centre
The port call included familiarisation with operations and procedures at the NATO Maritime Interdiction Operational Training Centre in Souda Bay.
How many mobile toilets were installed along the Amarnath Yatra 2025 route, according to the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs?
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Correct answer: D — Over 1,600
To cater to hygiene needs across the route, over 1,600 mobile toilets were installed, each cleaned twice daily.
The zero-waste Amarnath Yatra 2025 was aligned with the goals of which mission?
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Correct answer: A — Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban 2.0
The Ministry said the 2025 Amarnath Yatra aligned with the goals of Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban 2.0 through scientific waste management and plastic-free practices.
Among the ECI initiatives listed on 19 August 2025, what is the maximum number of voters now set per polling station?
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Correct answer: A — 1,200
The ECI listed a polling station limit of 1,200 voters to reduce crowding and shorten queues.
ECINET, listed by the Election Commission among its recent initiatives, subsumes how many apps and websites?
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Correct answer: C — 40+
ECINET is described as a one-stop digital platform subsuming 40+ apps and websites for electors and other stakeholders.
Consider the following statements about the ECI initiatives listed on 19 August 2025: 1. Under a new SOP, EPICs are to be delivered within 30 days of an update in the electoral rolls. 2. Honorarium has been provided to EROs and AEROs for the first time. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the new SOP enables delivery of EPICs within 15 days of an update in the electoral rolls. Statement 2 is correct: honorarium was provided to EROs and AEROs for the first time.
Wang Yi handed over President Xi Jinping's invitation to Prime Minister Modi on 19 August 2025 for the SCO Summit being held in which Chinese city?
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Correct answer: C — Tianjin
Wang Yi handed over a message and invitation from President Xi for the SCO Summit being held in Tianjin, and the Prime Minister conveyed his acceptance.
While receiving Wang Yi on 19 August 2025, Prime Minister Modi welcomed progress in India–China ties since his meeting with President Xi held last year in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Kazan
PIB states the Prime Minister welcomed the steady and positive progress in bilateral ties since his meeting with President Xi in Kazan last year.
Consider the following statements about Wang Yi's call on Prime Minister Modi on 19 August 2025: 1. Wang Yi shared his assessment of his meeting with EAM S. Jaishankar and of the 24th Special Representatives meeting. 2. The Prime Minister cited the resumption of the Kailash Manasarovar Yatra as part of the progress in ties. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: Wang Yi shared his positive assessment of the meeting with EAM Jaishankar and the 24th SR meeting, and the Prime Minister referred to the resumption of the Kailash Manasarovar Yatra while welcoming progress since Kazan.
The greenfield airport at Kota-Bundi approved by the Cabinet on 19 August 2025 is being designed to suit which type of aircraft?
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Correct answer: B — A-321
The Rajasthan government transferred 440.06 ha to AAI for a greenfield airport suitable for operation of A-321 type aircraft.
How much land has the Rajasthan government transferred to the Airports Authority of India for the Kota-Bundi greenfield airport?
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Correct answer: A — 440.06 hectares
The Government of Rajasthan has transferred 440.06 hectares of land to AAI for development of the greenfield airport.
Which runway specification is planned for the new Kota-Bundi greenfield airport?
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Correct answer: D — Runway 11/29, 3,200 m x 45 m
The project includes Runway 11/29 of 3,200 m x 45 m; Runway 08/26 of 1,220 m x 38 m belongs to the existing Kota airport.
How many provisions does the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 propose to decriminalise to foster Ease of Doing Business?
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Correct answer: B — 288
Of the 355 provisions proposed to be amended, 288 are to be decriminalised to foster Ease of Doing Business and 67 amended to facilitate Ease of Living.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 covers how many Central Acts?
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Correct answer: D — 16
The 2025 Bill covers 16 Central Acts administered by 10 Ministries/Departments; the 2023 Act had covered 42 Central Acts.
Under the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025, the 67 amendments meant to facilitate Ease of Living are proposed under which Acts?
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Correct answer: B — NDMC Act, 1994 and Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
The Bill proposes 67 amendments under the New Delhi Municipal Council Act, 1994 (NDMC Act) and the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 to facilitate Ease of Living.
Consider the following statements about the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025: 1. First-time contraventions in 76 offences under 10 Acts are to attract an advisory or warning. 2. The Minister requested that the Bill be referred to a Select Committee, which is to report by the first day of the next Session. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the Bill provides an advisory or warning for first-time contraventions in 76 offences under 10 Acts, and Piyush Goyal requested the Speaker to refer it to a Select Committee that is to report by the first day of the next Session.
Consider the following statements about the Jan Vishwas legislation: 1. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts. 2. The 2025 Bill covers Acts administered by 19 Ministries/Departments. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the 2023 Act, notified on 11 August 2023, decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts administered by 19 Ministries/Departments. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 2025 Bill covers 16 Central Acts administered by 10 Ministries/Departments.
In his talks with Wang Yi on 18 August 2025, S. Jaishankar said India–China ties must be guided by the 'three mutuals'. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: D — Mutual trust
Jaishankar listed the three mutuals as mutual respect, mutual sensitivity and mutual interest; mutual trust was not one of them.
India and China agreed during Wang Yi's August 2025 visit to reopen border trade through three designated points. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: B — Bum La
The reported outcomes named Lipulekh, Shipki La and Nathu La as the three designated points for reopening border trade; Bum La was not among them.
S. Jaishankar described Wang Yi's August 2025 visit as the first by a Chinese Minister since the two countries' leaders met at which place?
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Correct answer: A — Kazan, October 2024
In his opening remarks, Jaishankar said this was the first visit by a Chinese Minister since the leaders met in Kazan in October 2024.
Consider the following statements about the Jaishankar–Wang Yi talks and the outcomes of Wang Yi's visit in August 2025: 1. Jaishankar said differences must not become disputes, nor competition conflict. 2. The two sides agreed to resume direct flights from 1 September 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: it is part of Jaishankar's opening remarks. Statement 2 is incorrect: the sides agreed to resume direct flights at the earliest and finalise an updated Air Services Agreement, but no date was given for resumption.
What was the unemployment rate (Current Weekly Status, age 15 and above) for April–June 2025 as per the PLFS Quarterly Bulletin released on 18 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5.4%
The Unemployment Rate in CWS for persons aged 15 years and above was 5.4% during April–June 2025; rural was 4.8% and urban 6.8%.
About how many persons aged 15 and above were employed in India during April–June 2025, according to the PLFS Quarterly Bulletin?
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Correct answer: C — 56.4 crore
On average, 56.4 crore persons aged 15 years and above were employed in the country during the April–June 2025 quarter, of whom 39.7 crore were men.
Consider the following statements about the PLFS bulletins released on 18 August 2025: 1. The April–June 2025 Quarterly Bulletin is the first in the series to provide estimates for both rural and urban areas. 2. The monthly unemployment rate rose to 5.6% in July 2025 from 5.2% in June 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: earlier quarterly bulletins covered only urban areas, and the April–June 2025 bulletin is the first to cover both. Statement 2 is incorrect: the unemployment rate declined to 5.2% in July 2025 from 5.6% in June 2025.
SLINEX-25, which concluded at Colombo on 18 August 2025, was which edition of the India–Sri Lanka bilateral naval exercise?
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Correct answer: C — 12th
The 12th edition of the India–Sri Lanka bilateral naval exercise SLINEX-25 concluded at Colombo on 18 August 2025.
Which Indian naval ships took part in SLINEX-25?
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Correct answer: A — INS Jyoti and INS Rana
Indian naval ships INS Jyoti and INS Rana from the Eastern Fleet took part, along with SLNS Sayura and SLNS Vijayabahu of Sri Lanka.
The Indian Ports Bill, 2025, passed by the Rajya Sabha on 18 August 2025, replaces which Act?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Ports Act, 1908
The Indian Ports Bill, 2025 is designed to replace the Indian Ports Act, 1908, ending more than a century of colonial-era regulation.
Which statutory consultative body does the Indian Ports Bill, 2025 establish to coordinate between the Centre and coastal States?
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Correct answer: C — Maritime State Development Council
The Bill establishes the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) as a statutory consultative body to coordinate between the Centre and coastal States; it will prepare a National Perspective Plan.
Consider the following statements about the Indian Ports Bill, 2025: 1. It mandates compliance with international conventions such as MARPOL and Ballast Water Management. 2. It creates Dispute Resolution Committees for sector-specific redressal. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the legislation mandates compliance with conventions such as MARPOL and Ballast Water Management and creates Dispute Resolution Committees for timely sector-specific redressal.
In his phone call with PM Modi on 18 August 2025, President Putin shared his assessment of his meeting with President Trump held where?
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Correct answer: D — Alaska
President Putin shared his assessment of his meeting with US President Donald Trump in Alaska the previous week.
During the Modi–Putin call of 18 August 2025, the leaders discussed strengthening which partnership between India and Russia?
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Correct answer: B — Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership
The two leaders touched upon bilateral cooperation with a view to further strengthen the Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership between India and Russia.
What is the outlay of the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana, whose registration portal went live in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹99,446 crore
The Cabinet approved the Employment Linked Incentive Scheme, named Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana, with an outlay of ₹99,446 crore.
Benefits under the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana apply to jobs created during which period?
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Correct answer: C — 1 August 2025 to 31 July 2027
The benefits of the scheme are applicable to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027.
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana: 1. Newly employed youth can receive up to ₹15,000 in a single instalment paid by employers. 2. Employers can receive up to ₹3,000 per month per new employee. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the incentive of up to ₹15,000 to newly employed youth is paid in two instalments through DBT using the Aadhaar Bridge Payment System. Statement 2 is correct: employers can get up to ₹3,000 per month per new employee.
During his interaction with Shubhanshu Shukla on 18 August 2025, PM Modi said India needs a pool of how many astronauts ready for future missions?
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Correct answer: C — 40–50
The Prime Minister highlighted the need to build a large pool of astronauts, suggesting that 40–50 individuals should be ready for such missions.
PM Modi asked Shubhanshu Shukla about his experiments on growing which crops aboard the space station?
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Correct answer: A — Moong and methi
PIB states the Prime Minister sought insights into the significance of Shukla's experiments on growing moong and methi aboard the space station.
According to PM Modi in his interaction with Shubhanshu Shukla, which are the two major missions India now has ahead?
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Correct answer: D — Space Station and Gaganyaan
The Prime Minister remarked that India now has two major missions ahead – the Space Station and Gaganyaan – and that Shukla's experience would be of great value.
What is the length of the Delhi section of the Dwarka Expressway inaugurated by the Prime Minister on 17 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 10.1 km
The 10.1 km long Delhi section of the Dwarka Expressway was developed at a cost of around ₹5,360 crore; the 19 km Haryana section was inaugurated earlier.
The UER-II stretch inaugurated on 17 August 2025 runs between which two points, along with new links to Bahadurgarh and Sonipat?
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Correct answer: C — Alipur and Dichaon Kalan
The Prime Minister inaugurated the Alipur to Dichaon Kalan stretch of Urban Extension Road-II along with new links to Bahadurgarh and Sonipat, built at around ₹5,580 crore.
The Delhi section of the Dwarka Expressway provides multi-modal connectivity to which convention centre?
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Correct answer: B — Yashobhoomi
The section provides multi-modal connectivity to Yashobhoomi, the DMRC Blue and Orange lines, the upcoming Bijwasan railway station and the Dwarka cluster bus depot.
Consider the following statements about the highway projects inaugurated in Delhi on 17 August 2025: 1. The 19-km Haryana section of the Dwarka Expressway had been inaugurated in March 2024. 2. The Delhi section of the Dwarka Expressway cost more than the UER-II stretch inaugurated the same day. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the 19 km Haryana section was inaugurated by the Prime Minister in March 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Delhi section of the Dwarka Expressway cost around ₹5,360 crore, while the UER-II stretch with its links cost around ₹5,580 crore.