State Staff Selection Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What was the total value of seizures in the five poll-bound states and UT from 26 February to 5 April 2026, as reported by the ECI?
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Correct answer: D — ₹651.51 crore
The ECI table shows a total of ₹651.51 crore; ₹319 crore is West Bengal's share.
Within how much time are the ECI's flying squads expected to attend to complaints during the 2026 Assembly elections?
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Correct answer: B — 100 minutes
The ECI said over 5,173 flying squads were deployed to ensure complaints are attended to within 100 minutes.
Consider the following statements about election seizures reported by the ECI on 5 April 2026: 1. West Bengal accounted for the largest value of seizures among the five states and UT. 2. The Electronic Seizure Management System (ESMS) was activated on 26 February 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: West Bengal led with ₹319 crore, and the data runs from ESMS activation on 26 February 2026.
What share of LPG deliveries were Delivery Authentication Code (DAC) based as per the government update of 5 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 90%
The update said DAC-based deliveries rose from 53% in February 2026 to 90%.
To what was the LPG cylinder booking interval in urban areas raised, as part of the measures noted on 5 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 25 days
The update said the interval was raised from 21 to 25 days in urban areas and up to 45 days in rural areas.
According to the 5 April 2026 update, how many passengers had returned to India from the West Asia region since 28 February?
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Correct answer: A — Over 7,02,000
The update said over 7,02,000 passengers had returned to India since 28 February.
How much cargo did India's Major Ports handle in 2025-26, as reported by the Ports Ministry on 5 April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 915.17 million tonnes
The ministry said Major Ports handled 915.17 MT, surpassing the annual target of 904 MT.
Which Major Port was the top performer by cargo volume in 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — Deendayal Port Authority
Deendayal Port Authority handled 160.11 MT, ahead of Paradip (156.45 MT) and JNPA (102.01 MT).
Which Major Port recorded the highest growth rate in cargo handling in 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — Mormugao Port Authority
Mormugao Port Authority grew 15.91%, followed by Kolkata Dock System (14.28%) and JNPA (10.74%).
What record freight loading did Indian Railways achieve in 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 1,670 million tonnes
The Railway Ministry said freight loading reached a historic high of 1,670 million tonnes.
How many locomotives did Indian Railways produce in 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — 1,674
The ministry said 1,674 locomotives were produced; 6,677 is the number of LHB coaches.
Consider the following statements about Indian Railways' performance in 2025-26: 1. The Kavach system has been commissioned over more than 3,100 route km. 2. 35 stations were redeveloped under the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme during the year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: 119 stations were redeveloped under the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme; 35 is the number of Gati Shakti Cargo Terminals commissioned.
INS Taragiri, commissioned on 3 April 2026, is the fourth ship of which project?
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Correct answer: B — Project 17A
The Ministry of Defence said INS Taragiri is the fourth platform of the Project 17A class.
What is the approximate displacement of INS Taragiri?
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Correct answer: D — 6,670 tonnes
The ministry gives a displacement of approximately 6,670 tonnes; about 4,000 tonnes is the special steel SAIL supplied.
Consider the following statements about INS Taragiri: 1. It was designed by the Warship Design Bureau and built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited. 2. It has over 75% indigenous content. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Defence release.
What was the value of India's marine product exports in 2024-25, as per the Department of Fisheries?
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Correct answer: D — ₹62,408 crore
The department said marine exports rose to ₹62,408 crore in 2024-25; ₹43,334 crore was the shrimp component and ₹30,213 crore the 2013-14 figure.
Which country was the largest destination for India's seafood exports in 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — United States
The United States accounted for 36.42% of total export value in 2024-25.
What was India's fish production in 2024-25, according to the Department of Fisheries?
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Correct answer: B — 197.75 lakh tonnes
Fish production rose from 141.64 lakh tonnes in 2019-20 to 197.75 lakh tonnes in 2024-25.
Where is the Large Cavitation Tunnel, whose foundation stone was laid on 3 April 2026, being built?
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Correct answer: A — Naval Science & Technological Laboratory, Visakhapatnam
The Ministry of Defence said the LCT is at the Naval Science & Technological Laboratory (NSTL), Visakhapatnam.
The Naval Science & Technological Laboratory (NSTL) at Visakhapatnam is a laboratory of:
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Correct answer: C — Defence Research and Development Organisation
The release describes NSTL as a premier laboratory of DRDO.
Who briefed the Defence Minister on NSTL's projects during his visit on 3 April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Dr Samir V. Kamat, Secretary DDR&D and Chairman DRDO
The release says he was briefed by Dr Samir V. Kamat, Secretary, Department of Defence R&D and Chairman DRDO.
Under which provision is an employed elector entitled to a paid holiday on polling day?
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Correct answer: C — Section 135B of the RP Act, 1951
The ECI cited Section 135B of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
As per the ECI schedule cited on 3 April 2026, on which date was the second phase of polling in West Bengal?
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Correct answer: A — 29 April 2026
The ECI listed West Bengal polling on 23 April (Phase I) and 29 April 2026 (Phase II).
Consider the following statements about the paid holiday on polling day, as clarified by the ECI: 1. Employers may deduct wages for the polling-day holiday if the worker is a casual or daily-wage worker. 2. Electors working outside their constituency but registered in a constituency going to polls are not entitled to the paid holiday. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct: the ECI said no wages may be deducted and casual and daily-wage workers are entitled, and electors working outside their constituency are also entitled.
Who is the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, who was present at Om Birla's Census 2027 self-enumeration on 3 April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Mritunjay Kumar Narayan
The Lok Sabha Secretariat named Mritunjay Kumar Narayan as the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.
Which phrase did the Lok Sabha Speaker invoke while urging participation in Census 2027?
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Correct answer: B — Jan Ganana se Jan Kalyan
Om Birla reaffirmed the vision of 'Jan Ganana se Jan Kalyan' (Census for Public Welfare).
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 amends 784 provisions across how many Central Acts?
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Correct answer: B — 79
The Commerce Ministry said 784 provisions across 79 Central Acts administered by 23 ministries are amended.
Consider the following statements about the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026: 1. The Lok Sabha Select Committee that examined its 2025 predecessor was chaired by Tejasvi Surya. 2. Of the 784 provisions amended, 717 were amended to facilitate ease of living. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The 717 provisions were decriminalised to promote ease of doing business; 67 provisions were amended for ease of living.
On which date did the Rajya Sabha pass the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 2 April 2026
PRS Bill Track records passage by the Lok Sabha on 1 April and by the Rajya Sabha on 2 April 2026; it was introduced on 27 March.
What was the value of India's defence exports in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — ₹38,424 crore
The Ministry of Defence said defence exports touched an all-time high of ₹38,424 crore in FY 2025-26; ₹23,622 crore was the FY 2024-25 figure.
Consider the following statements about India's defence exports in FY 2025-26: 1. Defence Public Sector Undertakings contributed a larger share than the private sector. 2. India exported defence equipment to more than 80 countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: DPSUs contributed 54.84% (₹21,071 crore) against the private sector's 45.16%, and exports went to more than 80 countries.
As per the Defence Ministry, how many defence exporters were there in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — 145
The number of exporters rose to 145 from 128, a 13.3% rise.
Which Indian Navy ship set sail from Mumbai as Indian Ocean Ship (IOS) SAGAR on 2 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — INS Sunayna
The Ministry of Defence said INS Sunayna, an Offshore Patrol Vessel, sailed as IOS SAGAR.
Who flagged off IOS SAGAR from Mumbai on 2 April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Raksha Rajya Mantri Sanjay Seth
The ship was flagged off by Raksha Rajya Mantri Sanjay Seth in the presence of Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi.
Personnel from how many friendly foreign countries' maritime forces were on board IOS SAGAR 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 16
The release says the ship carried personnel from India and sixteen maritime forces of friendly foreign countries.
What was coal production from captive and commercial mines in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — 210.46 MT
The Coal Ministry said production reached 210.46 MT; 204.61 MT was dispatch and 190.95 MT the previous year's production.
How many captive and commercial coal blocks were operationalised through Mine Opening Permission in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — 12
12 blocks were operationalised, adding over 86 MT of capacity; 7 blocks began production within the year.
Till which date has the full customs duty exemption on critical petrochemical products, announced on 2 April 2026, been granted?
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Correct answer: C — 30 June 2026
The Finance Ministry said the exemption is till 30 June 2026.
Consider the following statements about the customs duty exemption on critical petrochemicals announced on 2 April 2026: 1. It is a permanent reduction in customs duty. 2. Methanol (methyl alcohol) is among the products covered. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The ministry called it temporary and targeted relief valid till 30 June 2026, and methanol is listed in the annexure.
For what period does the cost escalation compensation mechanism for National Highway projects, announced on 2 April 2026, apply?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April to 30 June 2026
MoRTH said the measures apply for three months, from 1 April till 30 June 2026, or until further review.
Under the revised price adjustment for EPC highway contracts, the Wholesale Price Index will be taken for which period?
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Correct answer: C — One month before the Interim Payment Certificate month
MoRTH said WPI will now be taken for one month prior to the relevant IPC month, in place of three months prior.
Which Indian port conducted a trial shore-to-ship methanol bunkering operation on 2 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Deendayal Port (Kandla), Gujarat
The Ports Ministry said Kandla Port (Deendayal Port Authority) conducted the trial on 2 April 2026.
Kandla Port was rated at which level on the IAPH Port Readiness Level scale for methanol bunkering?
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Correct answer: A — Level 6
After DNV's assessment, the port was rated Level 6 on the IAPH Port Readiness Level scale.
Kandla Port is working to ensure about how much RFNBO-compliant e-methanol availability by 2028-29?
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Correct answer: D — 500 KTPA
The ministry said the port is working towards approximately 500 KTPA of RFNBO-compliant e-methanol by 2028-29.
On which date was the India–Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) signed?
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Correct answer: C — 2 April 2022
The Commerce Ministry said the ECTA was signed on 2 April 2022 and completed four years on 2 April 2026.
From which date are all Indian exports eligible for zero-duty market access into Australia under the ECTA?
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Correct answer: A — 1 January 2026
The ministry said that from 1 January 2026 all Indian exports are eligible for zero-duty access into Australia.
Under the India–Australia ECTA, India granted preferential market access on what share of its tariff lines?
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Correct answer: B — 70.3%
India granted preferential access on 70.3% of its tariff lines, covering 90.6% of trade value; Australia granted it on 100% of its lines, 98.3% of which became duty-free immediately.
Who was the first to complete self-enumeration when Census 2027 began on 1 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — President Droupadi Murmu
The Home Ministry said the exercise began with the enumeration of President Droupadi Murmu, upholding the tradition of starting with the First Citizen.
Between which dates will the Houselisting and Housing Census phase of Census 2027 be conducted across the country?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April – 30 September 2026
The HLO phase runs nationally from 1 April to 30 September 2026; 16 April–15 May is the houselisting window in the first set of states/UTs.
How many questions have been notified for Phase I (Houselisting and Housing Census) of Census 2027?
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Correct answer: C — 33
A total of 33 questions for Phase I were notified in January 2026; 16 is the number of regional languages for self-enumeration.
On which date did the Income-tax Act, 2025 receive the President's assent?
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Correct answer: C — 21 August 2025
The Finance Ministry said the Bill was passed by Parliament on 12 August 2025 and received assent on 21 August 2025; the Rules were notified on 20 March 2026 and the Act came into force on 1 April 2026.
Consider the following statements about the Income-tax Act, 2025: 1. It replaces the Income-tax Act, 1961. 2. It alters the underlying tax policy to introduce new tax rates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The ministry said the Act simplifies the law without altering the underlying tax policy.
Which body notified the Income-tax Rules, 2026 to operationalise the Income-tax Act, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Central Board of Direct Taxes
The Income-tax Rules, 2026 were notified by the Central Board of Direct Taxes on 20 March 2026.
Where will the coal-to-ammonium nitrate project of Bharat Coal Gasification and Chemicals Ltd be set up?
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Correct answer: C — Lakhanpur, Odisha
The land lease signed on 1 April 2026 is for the project at Lakhanpur, Odisha.
The Lakhanpur project will be India's first coal gasification project to use indigenously developed gasification technology from which company?
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Correct answer: A — Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
The Coal Ministry said the project will deploy gasification technology indigenously developed by BHEL.
On which date was the Reserve Bank of India established?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April 1935
The RBI says it was established on 1 April 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Consider the following statements about the Reserve Bank of India: 1. Its Central Office was initially established in Kolkata and moved permanently to Mumbai in 1937. 2. It has been fully owned by the Government of India since its nationalisation in 1949. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the RBI's 'About Us' page.
The Reserve Bank of India was established in accordance with the provisions of which Act?
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Correct answer: B — Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
The RBI was established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Under the concessional customs duty notified on 1 April 2026, SEZ units can clear goods to the Domestic Tariff Area up to what limit?
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Correct answer: C — 30% of the highest annual FOB export value in the preceding three years
The cap is 30% of the highest annual free-on-board export value achieved in any of the three immediately preceding financial years.
What minimum value addition within the SEZ is required to avail the concessional duty on SEZ-to-DTA clearances?
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Correct answer: B — 20%
The notification prescribes a minimum 20% value addition within the SEZ.
Who assumed the appointment of Vice Chief of the Army Staff on 1 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth
The Ministry of Defence said Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth assumed the appointment of VCOAS on 1 April 2026.
Who took over as General Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Eastern Command, from Lt Gen RC Tiwari in April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Lt Gen VMB Krishnan
Lt Gen VMB Krishnan, previously Quarter Master General, took over Eastern Command from Lt Gen RC Tiwari.
Who assumed command of the Army's Southern Command on 1 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Lt Gen Sandeep Jain
Lt Gen Sandeep Jain succeeded Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth as GOC-in-C, Southern Command.
Which Bill, passed by the Lok Sabha on 1 April 2026, designates Amaravati as the sole capital of Andhra Pradesh?
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Correct answer: A — Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026
The Lok Sabha passed the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026, which confers legal status on Amaravati as the sole capital.
As per PRS Bill Track, on which date did the Rajya Sabha pass the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 2 April 2026
PRS records introduction and passage in the Lok Sabha on 1 April and passage by the Rajya Sabha on 2 April 2026.
Utkal Divas, celebrated on 1 April, marks the creation of Orissa (now Odisha) as a separate province on a linguistic basis in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1936
New India Samachar notes that Orissa was created on a linguistic basis in 1936 and Utkal Divas has been celebrated on 1 April since.
In which year was the name of the state changed from Orissa to Odisha?
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Correct answer: D — 2011
New India Samachar states that the name was changed to Odisha in 2011.
What capital outlay for the Defence Services did the Ministry of Defence fully utilise in FY 2025-26 (Revised Estimates)?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1.86 lakh crore
The ministry fully utilised ₹1.86 lakh crore at the RE stage; ₹1.80 lakh crore was the original appropriation.
What was the overall utilisation of the defence budget, including MoD (civil) and pensions, in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — 99.62%
The ministry said overall utilisation stood at 99.62% against the final allocation.
In March 2026, the Prime Minister inaugurated the semiconductor plant of which Indian company at Sanand, Gujarat?
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Correct answer: D — Kaynes Technology
On 31 March 2026 the PM inaugurated the Kaynes Technology semiconductor plant at Sanand, Gujarat.
Which product does the Kaynes semiconductor facility at Sanand supply to a California-based company?
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Correct answer: A — Intelligent Power Modules
The facility supplies Intelligent Power Modules to a California-based company, with a large share of output booked for export.
In which year was the India Semiconductor Mission launched?
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Correct answer: C — 2021
The PM recalled that the India Semiconductor Mission was launched in 2021.
Consider the following statements about India's semiconductor push as stated on 31 March 2026: 1. Production at the Micron plant in Sanand started on 28 February 2026. 2. Under the India Semiconductor Mission, 10 projects worth over ₹1.6 lakh crore are under way across six states. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The PM said he was in Sanand on 28 February for the start of production at the Micron plant, and that 10 projects worth over ₹1,60,000 crore are under way in six states.
'Malwan', delivered to the Indian Navy on 31 March 2026, was built by which shipyard?
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Correct answer: D — Cochin Shipyard Limited
Malwan is the second of eight ASW Shallow Water Craft built by Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL), Kochi.
The anti-submarine craft 'Malwan' is named after a coastal town in which state?
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Correct answer: D — Maharashtra
Malwan draws its name from the historic coastal town of Malwan in Maharashtra.
How many Advance Pricing Agreements (APAs) did the CBDT sign in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 219
The CBDT entered into a record 219 APAs in FY 2025-26 (174 in the previous year and 125 the year before).
With which of the following countries did India sign its first-ever bilateral APA in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — Sweden
FY 2025-26 saw India's first-ever bilateral APAs with France, Ireland, Indonesia and Sweden.
Consider the following statements about India's APA programme (as of March 2026): 1. The total number of APAs since inception is 1,034. 2. Bilateral APAs outnumber unilateral APAs in the total. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The total is 1,034 APAs, comprising 750 unilateral and 284 bilateral APAs, so unilateral APAs are more.
'Shachi', launched on 31 March 2026, is the first ship of which class of the Indian Navy?
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Correct answer: A — Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessel
Shachi (Yard 1280) is the first of eleven Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels (NGOPVs).
How many Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels are being built for the Indian Navy?
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Correct answer: D — Eleven
Shachi is the first of eleven NGOPVs, built concurrently at GSL Goa and GRSE Kolkata.
Consider the following statements about the NGOPV 'Shachi': 1. It was launched at Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers, Kolkata. 2. The NGOPV crest depicts the Ursa Major constellation and a lighthouse. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Shachi was launched at Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL), Goa; the crest depicts Ursa Major and a red-and-white lighthouse.