SSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What was the gross NPA ratio of public sector banks as of 31 March 2025, as per the Finance Ministry (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 2.58%
PIB (22 July 2025): gross NPAs of PSBs reduced from 9.11% (March 2021) to 2.58% (March 2025); 3.47% was March 2024.
As part of NPA recovery measures, the pecuniary jurisdiction of Debt Recovery Tribunals was raised from ₹10 lakh to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹20 lakh
PIB: the pecuniary jurisdiction of DRTs was increased from ₹10 lakh to ₹20 lakh to let them focus on high-value cases.
Where was the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission launched by the Prime Minister on 1 July 2023?
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Correct answer: C — Shahdol, Madhya Pradesh
PIB (22 July 2025): the mission was inaugurated on 1 July 2023 by the Prime Minister at Shahdol, Madhya Pradesh.
As of July 2025, how many people had been screened under the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission?
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Correct answer: A — 6 crore
PIB: 6 crore individuals have been screened against the target of 7 crore; 2.6 crore is the number of health cards distributed.
Consider the following statements about the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission: 1. It aims to eliminate sickle cell anaemia in India by 2047. 2. It targets universal screening of 7 crore people aged 0-40 years in affected tribal areas by FY 2025-26. 3. Screening uses validated Point-of-Care Testing kits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (22 July 2025): the mission aims at elimination by 2047 and universal screening of 7 crore people aged 0-40 in affected tribal areas by FY 2025-26, using validated POCT kits. All correct.
Bharat NCX 2025, the National Cybersecurity Exercise that began on 21 July 2025, is conducted by the National Security Council Secretariat in collaboration with which institution?
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Correct answer: C — Rashtriya Raksha University
PIB (NSCS): the exercise is conducted by the NSCS in collaboration with Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU).
What is the theme of the National Cybersecurity Exercise Bharat NCX 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Enhancing the Operational Preparedness of Indian Cyberspace
PIB (NSCS): Bharat NCX 2025 introduces the focused theme 'Enhancing the Operational Preparedness of Indian Cyberspace'.
According to EPFO's provisional payroll data, what was the net addition of members in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 20.06 lakh
PIB (Labour): EPFO recorded a net addition of 20.06 lakh members in May 2025, the highest since April 2018; 9.42 lakh was the number of new subscribers.
Which state led net payroll additions in EPFO's May 2025 data, with 20.33 percent of the total?
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Correct answer: D — Maharashtra
PIB: Maharashtra led by adding 20.33% of net payroll during the month.
By how much did the Index of Eight Core Industries grow in June 2025 over June 2024 (provisional)?
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Correct answer: B — 1.7 percent
PIB (Commerce and Industry): the combined ICI increased by 1.7 percent (provisional) in June 2025; 1.2 percent was the final figure for May 2025.
The eight core industries together carry what share of the weight of items in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
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Correct answer: C — 40.27 percent
PIB: the Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the IIP.
After Phase-IV amalgamation under 'One State-One RRB', how many Regional Rural Banks remain with effect from 1 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 28
PIB (Finance): Phase-IV amalgamation reduced RRBs from 43 to 28 w.e.f. 1 May 2025, in 26 states and 2 UTs.
Consider the following statements about the consolidation of Regional Rural Banks: 1. Phase-I amalgamation (2005-2010) reduced the number of RRBs from 196 to 82. 2. Phase-IV amalgamation reduced the number of RRBs from 56 to 43. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB: Phase-I cut RRBs from 196 to 82, so 1 is correct. The 56-to-43 reduction was Phase-III (by end-March 2021); Phase-IV cut them from 43 to 28, so 2 is wrong.
What rank did India secure among 110 countries at the 66th International Mathematical Olympiad (IMO) 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 7th
7th, matching its best-ever rank of 1998 and 2001; India was 4th in 2024.
Consider the following statements about India's performance at the International Mathematical Olympiad 2025: 1. It was only the second time that India won three gold medals at the IMO, the first being in 1998. 2. India's team score of 193 out of 252 was the highest ever achieved by an Indian IMO team. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. India also won two silver and one bronze.
Which institution is the nodal agency that selects and trains Indian students for the International Mathematical Olympiad and other international Olympiads?
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Correct answer: D — Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education (HBCSE)
Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education (HBCSE), Mumbai, a national centre of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research.
Where was the 66th International Mathematical Olympiad (IMO) 2025 held?
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Correct answer: A — Sunshine Coast, Australia
Sunshine Coast, Australia; 630 students took part, including 69 female contestants.
During the Indian Navy's Singapore port call of July 2025, Commanding Officers of Eastern Fleet ships laid a wreath at which memorial?
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Correct answer: A — Kranji War Memorial
PIB (MoD): the Commanding Officers took part in a wreath-laying ceremony at the Kranji War Memorial, honouring Indian soldiers who made the supreme sacrifice in World War II.
The Indian Navy ships' port call to Singapore (16-19 July 2025) was under the command of which officer?
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Correct answer: B — Flag Officer Commanding Eastern Fleet
PIB: the ships were under the command of Rear Admiral Susheel Menon, Flag Officer Commanding Eastern Fleet (FOCEF).
Which group of ships made the Indian Navy's port call to Singapore in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — INS Delhi, Shakti, Satpura and Kiltan
PIB: Indian Naval Ships Delhi, Shakti, Satpura and Kiltan of the Eastern Fleet made the port call (16-19 July 2025).
Consider the following statements about the Indian Navy's Singapore port call of July 2025: 1. The deck reception during the visit was hosted on board INS Delhi. 2. The port call took place from 20 to 23 July 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
PIB: the deck reception was hosted on board INS Shakti, so 1 is wrong; the port call was from 16 to 19 July 2025 (the release was issued on 23 July), so 2 is wrong.
INS Sandhayak, the Indian Navy's first indigenous Survey Vessel Large, made its maiden port call in July 2025 at which Malaysian port?
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Correct answer: B — Port Klang
PIB (MoD): INS Sandhayak made her maiden port call at Port Klang, Malaysia, for hydrographic cooperation from 16 to 19 July 2025.
When was INS Sandhayak, the first ship of the Sandhayak-class survey vessels, commissioned?
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Correct answer: A — February 2024
PIB: INS Sandhayak, the first of the indigenously designed and built Sandhayak-class hydrographic survey ships, was commissioned in February 2024.
The visit of INS Sandhayak to Malaysia promoted the MAHASAGAR vision. What does MAHASAGAR stand for?
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Correct answer: D — Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions
PIB (MoD): MAHASAGAR stands for Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions.
The Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers and Rural Labourers (CPI-AL/RL) released in July 2025 uses which base year?
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Correct answer: B — 2019=100
PIB (Labour): the Labour Bureau has revised the base year of CPI-AL and CPI-RL to 2019=100.
Consider the following statements about CPI-AL and CPI-RL for June 2025: 1. Both indices stood at 134 points. 2. The revised series covers 20 states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Labour): CPI-AL and CPI-RL for June 2025 stand at 134 points each, so 1 is correct; the revised series covers 34 states/UTs as against 20 states in the old series, so 2 is wrong.
Where was the 88th session of the Executive Committee of the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CCEXEC88) held in July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Rome
PIB (Health): CCEXEC88 was held at the FAO Headquarters in Rome, Italy, from 14 to 18 July 2025.
India chairs the Codex work on a group standard for which product, with Mali, Nigeria and Senegal as co-chairs?
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Correct answer: A — Whole millet grains
PIB (Health): the work on a group standard for whole millet grains is chaired by India with Mali, Nigeria and Senegal as co-chairs.
Consider the following statements about CCEXEC88 (July 2025): 1. India will co-chair new work proposals on standards for fresh turmeric and fresh broccoli. 2. The new standards for fresh dates were given final adoption at CCEXEC88 itself. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Health): India will co-chair new work on fresh turmeric and fresh broccoli, so 1 is correct; the fresh dates standards were endorsed for further approval at CAC48 in November 2025, so 2 is wrong.
Which new lichen species from the Western Ghats was reported by MACS-Agharkar Research Institute in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Allographa effusosoredica
PIB (S&T): scientists uncovered a previously unknown lichen species, Allographa effusosoredica, from the Western Ghats.
The algal partner (photobiont) identified in the new lichen Allographa effusosoredica belongs to which genus?
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Correct answer: D — Trentepohlia
PIB (S&T): the integrative study unveiled its algal partner, a Trentepohlia species.
The Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana, approved by the Cabinet on 16 July 2025, will cover how many districts?
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Correct answer: B — 100
PIB (Cabinet): the Cabinet approved the scheme for a period of six years, beginning with 2025-26, to cover 100 districts.
The PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana draws inspiration from which programme?
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Correct answer: D — NITI Aayog's Aspirational District Programme
PIB (Cabinet): the scheme draws inspiration from NITI Aayog's Aspirational District Programme and is the first of its kind focusing exclusively on agriculture and allied sectors.
Consider the following statements about the PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana: 1. Districts will be identified on low productivity, low cropping intensity and less credit disbursement. 2. At least one district will be selected from each state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Cabinet): 100 districts will be identified based on low productivity, low cropping intensity and less credit disbursement, and a minimum of 1 district will be selected from each state. Both are correct.
The PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana will be implemented through convergence of how many existing schemes, and its progress monitored monthly on how many key performance indicators?
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Correct answer: A — 36 schemes across 11 departments; 117 KPIs
PIB (Cabinet): the scheme will be implemented through convergence of 36 existing schemes across 11 departments, and progress in each district will be monitored on 117 KPIs through a dashboard on a monthly basis.
The CCEA on 16 July 2025 allowed NLC India Limited to invest how much in its subsidiary NLC India Renewables Limited, exempt from Navratna investment guidelines?
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Correct answer: B — ₹7,000 crore
PIB (CCEA): the exemption enables NLCIL to invest Rs 7,000 crore in its wholly owned subsidiary NIRL. (₹7,500 crore and ₹20,000 crore relate to NTPC's delegation approved the same day.)
The NLCIL investment approved on 16 July 2025 was also exempted from which ceiling stipulated by the Department of Public Enterprises for CPSE investment in JVs and subsidiaries?
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Correct answer: C — 30% of net worth
PIB (CCEA): the investment is further exempted from the 30% net worth ceiling stipulated by DPE for overall investment by CPSEs in JVs and subsidiaries.
The enhanced delegation granted to NTPC by the CCEA on 16 July 2025 for renewable energy investment raised the limit to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹20,000 crore
PIB (CCEA): NTPC's investment in NGEL and onward in NREL and other JVs/subsidiaries was allowed beyond the earlier approved limit of Rs 7,500 crore up to Rs 20,000 crore.
NTPC's enhanced investment delegation approved in July 2025 is aimed at achieving how much renewable energy capacity by 2032?
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Correct answer: B — 60 GW
PIB (CCEA): the delegation is for RE capacity addition to achieve 60 GW renewable energy capacity by 2032. (32 GW by 2047 is NLCIL's target.)
Around what time (IST) did the Axiom-4 Dragon carrying Shubhanshu Shukla splash down on 15 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Shortly after 3 PM IST
ISRO: splashdown occurred on July 15, 2025 at approximately 15:03 hrs IST; NASA: 5:31 a.m. EDT (= 15:01 IST); PIB (DoS): shortly after 3 PM IST.
Where did the Axiom-4 crew capsule splash down on 15 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Pacific Ocean, off the coast of California
ISRO and NASA: the Dragon splashed down in the Pacific Ocean off the coast of California.
What was the name of the SpaceX Dragon spacecraft that brought the Axiom-4 crew back to Earth?
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Correct answer: B — Grace
PIB (DoS): Shukla returned to Earth in the SpaceX Dragon capsule 'Grace', which splashed down off the coast of San Diego.
Consider the following statements about the Axiom-4 mission: 1. Shubhanshu Shukla flew as the mission commander. 2. Shukla completed seven ISRO-led microgravity experiments aboard the ISS. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
PIB (Cabinet) and PIB (DoS): Shukla was Mission Pilot and Peggy Whitson was mission commander, so 1 is wrong; ISRO: Shukla completed a suite of seven microgravity experiments, so 2 is correct.
According to ISRO, after undocking from the ISS the Axiom-4 Dragon flew in Earth orbit for about how long before splashdown, and how many orbits did ISRO say the mission covered?
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Correct answer: D — About 22 hours 30 minutes; ~282 orbits
ISRO: after an Earth-orbiting free flight lasting nearly 22 hours and 30 minutes, the Dragon splashed down; ISRO titled the mission 'a saga of ~12 million kilometers and ~282 orbits aboard ISS'.
On World Youth Skills Day 2025 (15 July), the Ministry of Skill Development launched a week-long celebration marking how many years of the Skill India Mission?
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Correct answer: B — 10 years
PIB (MSDE): Jayant Chaudhary launched the week-long celebration of the 10-year milestone of the Skill India Mission on World Youth Skills Day.
As stated by the Skill Development Ministry in July 2025, how many youth have been trained under PMKVY over the past decade?
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Correct answer: A — Over 1.64 crore
PIB (MSDE): schemes like PMKVY have trained over 1.64 crore youth, while more than 14,500 ITIs have been supported through reforms.
The week-long celebration of 10 years of the Skill India Mission, launched on 15 July 2025, was to culminate on 22 July 2025 at Bharat Mandapam in which event?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat SkillNxt 2025
PIB (MSDE): the celebrations will culminate in the 'Bharat SkillNxt 2025' event on July 22 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
As per the PLFS monthly bulletin for June 2025, the unemployment rate (CWS) for persons aged 15 years and above was:
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Correct answer: D — 5.6%
PIB (MoSPI): the unemployment rate in CWS among persons aged 15 and above remained the same at 5.6% in May 2025 and June 2025.
Consider the following statements about the PLFS bulletin for June 2025: 1. The Labour Force Participation Rate (CWS, 15+) declined from May 2025 to June 2025. 2. LFPR in urban areas was higher than in rural areas in June 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MoSPI): LFPR was 54.2% in June against 54.8% in May, so 1 is correct; rural LFPR was 56.1% and urban 50.4%, so 2 is wrong.
As per the PLFS bulletin for June 2025, the overall Worker Population Ratio (CWS, 15+) at the country level was:
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Correct answer: A — 51.2%
PIB (MoSPI): the overall WPR at the country level was 51.2% in June 2025 against 51.7% in May; 53.3% was rural WPR and 46.8% urban WPR.
India's combined merchandise and services exports for April–June 2025 were estimated at:
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Correct answer: D — US$ 210.31 billion
PIB (Commerce): cumulative exports during April–June 2025 are estimated at US$ 210.31 billion, compared to US$ 198.52 billion in April–June 2024. (US$ 112.17 billion was merchandise only.)
Which merchandise export category recorded the sharpest growth (46.93%) in June 2025, according to the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Electronic Goods
PIB (Commerce): electronic goods exports increased by 46.93% from US$ 2.82 billion in June 2024 to US$ 4.15 billion in June 2025; pharma rose 5.95%, engineering 1.35%, marine 13.33%.
Consider the following statements about India's trade data released on 15 July 2025: 1. Merchandise exports for April–June 2025 grew faster than combined merchandise and services exports. 2. India's overall trade deficit (merchandise + services) in June 2025 narrowed compared to June 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
PIB (Commerce): merchandise exports grew 1.92% against 5.94% for combined exports, so 1 is wrong; the June trade balance was –US$ 3.51 billion against –US$ 7.30 billion in June 2024, so 2 is correct.
India reached 50% non-fossil share in installed power capacity by 30 June 2025. How far ahead of the target year was this, according to MNRE?
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Correct answer: D — Five years
MNRE: achieving 50% non-fossil fuel capacity five years ahead of the 2030 target.
Consider the following statements about India's installed electricity capacity as on 30 June 2025: 1. Total installed capacity was 484.82 GW. 2. Renewable energy (excluding large hydro) accounted for 184.62 GW. 3. Nuclear capacity exceeded 20 GW. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: nuclear capacity was 8.78 GW (1.81%).
According to the MNRE release of 14 July 2025, India is moving towards what non-fossil capacity goal by 2030?
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Correct answer: A — 500 GW
MNRE: 'As the country moves toward the goal of 500 GW of non-fossil capacity by 2030 and net-zero emissions by 2070'.
According to ISRO, at what time (IST) did the Axiom-4 Crew Dragon undock from the ISS on 14 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 16:45 IST
ISRO: 'On July 14, 2025 (16:45 hrs IST), Crew Dragon spacecraft ... successfully undocked from International Space Station.'
After undocking on 14 July 2025, where was the Axiom-4 Crew Dragon expected to splash down, according to ISRO?
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Correct answer: C — Near the coast of California, USA
ISRO: the Crew Dragon spacecraft is expected to splash down near the coast of California, USA, on July 15, 2025 at 15:00 hrs (IST).
What was India's year-on-year headline CPI inflation for June 2025, as released by MoSPI on 14 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2.10%
MoSPI: year-on-year inflation rate based on All India CPI for June 2025 is 2.10%.
Consider the following statements about CPI data for June 2025: 1. Headline inflation was the lowest since January 2019. 2. All-India food inflation (CFPI) was negative at -1.06%. 3. The CPI series uses 2012 as the base year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as per MoSPI: 2.10% was the lowest year-on-year inflation since January 2019, CFPI was -1.06%, and the base is 2012=100.
By how many basis points did headline CPI inflation in June 2025 fall compared with May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 72 basis points
MoSPI: headline inflation in June 2025 was 72 basis points lower than May 2025 (205 bps was the fall in food inflation).
What was India's annual WPI inflation rate (provisional) for June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — -0.13%
Commerce Ministry: annual rate of inflation based on all-India WPI is -0.13% (provisional) for June 2025.
What is the base year of the Wholesale Price Index series used for the June 2025 data?
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Correct answer: A — 2011-12
Commerce Ministry release title: Index Numbers of Wholesale Price in India for the Month of June, 2025 (Base Year: 2011-12). CPI uses base 2012.
Vibhu Bakhru was appointed on 14 July 2025 as Chief Justice of which High Court?
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Correct answer: D — Karnataka High Court
Law Ministry communique: Vibhu Bakhru, Judge (Delhi), appointed Chief Justice of Karnataka High Court.
Consider the following statements regarding Article 217 of the Constitution: 1. Every Judge of a High Court is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. 2. A permanent High Court Judge holds office until the age of sixty-five years. 3. To qualify, an advocate must have practised in a High Court for at least seven years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Article 217(1) sets the retirement age at sixty-two years (not 65), and Article 217(2)(b) requires at least ten years as an advocate of a High Court (not seven).
Chief Justice Aparesh Kumar Singh was transferred on 14 July 2025 from the Tripura High Court to which High Court?
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Correct answer: C — Telangana High Court
Law Ministry communique: Aparesh Kumar Singh transferred from Tripura to Telangana as Chief Justice.
Under the long-term agreements signed on 13 July 2025, how much DAP will Saudi Arabia's Maaden supply to Indian companies per annum from 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — 3.1 million metric tonnes
Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers: overall enhanced 3.1 million MT of DAP per annum for five years from 2025-26. (1.9 MMT was India's 2024-25 import from Saudi Arabia.)
Which Saudi company signed long-term DAP supply agreements with IPL, KRIBHCO and CIL during J.P. Nadda's visit in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Maaden
Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers: the two Ministers witnessed the signing of Long-Term Agreements between Maaden and Indian companies IPL, KRIBHCO and CIL.
Consider the following statements about J.P. Nadda's July 2025 visit to Saudi Arabia: 1. The DAP supply agreements run for five years from 2025-26 and can be extended by five more years by mutual consent. 2. A joint team led by India's Secretary (Fertilizer) and Saudi Arabia's Vice Minister for Mining Affairs was set up. 3. India's DAP imports from Saudi Arabia fell in 2024-25 compared with the previous year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: imports rose about 17%, from 1.6 million MT to 1.9 million MT in 2024-25.
During his July 2025 visit, J.P. Nadda toured Maaden's phosphate production facilities at which Saudi location?
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Correct answer: D — Ras Al Khair
Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers: on 12 July, Nadda and the delegation visited Maaden facilities at Ras Al Khair and toured the phosphate production plant.
Which club won the FIFA Club World Cup 2025 final on 13 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Chelsea
AP and Reuters: Chelsea beat Paris Saint-Germain 3-0 in the final of the first expanded Club World Cup.
Where was the FIFA Club World Cup 2025 final played?
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Correct answer: A — MetLife Stadium, East Rutherford, New Jersey
AP and Reuters: the final was played at MetLife Stadium in East Rutherford, New Jersey.
Which Chelsea player scored twice and set up the third goal in the 2025 Club World Cup final?
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Correct answer: B — Cole Palmer
AP and Reuters: Cole Palmer scored twice and set up João Pedro for the third goal.
Who won the Wimbledon 2025 men's singles title on 13 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Jannik Sinner
BBC, Reuters, AP: Jannik Sinner beat Carlos Alcaraz 4-6, 6-4, 6-4, 6-4 to win his first Wimbledon title.
Jannik Sinner's Wimbledon 2025 win made him the first player from which country to win a Wimbledon singles title?
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Correct answer: B — Italy
BBC and Reuters: Sinner became the first Italian to win a Wimbledon singles title.
Consider the following statements about the Wimbledon 2025 men's final: 1. Sinner lost the first set before winning the next three. 2. Carlos Alcaraz was the two-time defending champion. 3. The title was Sinner's fourth Grand Slam title. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: the score was 4-6, 6-4, 6-4, 6-4; Alcaraz was the two-time defending champion; Reuters and BBC say it was Sinner's fourth Grand Slam title.
Whom did External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar call on during his visit to Singapore on 13 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — President Tharman Shanmugaratnam
MEA: during the visit, EAM called on President of Singapore Tharman Shanmugaratnam and met DPM Gan Kim Yong and FM Vivian Balakrishnan.
The inaugural meeting of the India-Singapore Ministerial Roundtable (ISMR), whose outcomes were reviewed during Jaishankar's July 2025 visit, was held in:
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Correct answer: A — New Delhi, September 2022
MEA bilateral brief: the inaugural meeting of the ISMR took place on 17 September 2022 in New Delhi.
After Singapore, Jaishankar's 13–15 July 2025 tour took him to which city for the SCO Council of Foreign Ministers' meeting?
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Correct answer: C — Tianjin
MEA (12 July 2025): EAM will visit China to participate in the SCO Council of Foreign Ministers' Meeting being held in Tianjin.
To whom did Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan write, as announced on 13 July 2025, seeking a campaign against fake fertilizers?
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Correct answer: B — Chief Ministers of all States and UTs
Agriculture Ministry: the Union Minister wrote to the Chief Ministers of all States and Union Territories.
The sale of counterfeit or substandard fertilizers is prohibited under the Fertilizer (Control) Order, 1985, which is issued under which Act?
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Correct answer: D — Essential Commodities Act, 1955
Agriculture Ministry: sale of counterfeit or substandard fertilizers is prohibited under the Fertilizer (Control) Order, 1985, which falls under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
Consider the following directions issued to States in the Agriculture Minister's letter (July 2025): 1. Forced tagging of nano-fertilizers or bio-stimulants with conventional fertilizers should be stopped immediately. 2. All sales of nano-fertilizers should be banned. 3. States should procure fertilizers directly from manufacturers abroad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is in the letter. The letter asks States to stop forced tagging, not to ban nano-fertilizers, and says nothing about direct procurement abroad.
Which former Foreign Secretary was nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Harsh Vardhan Shringla
The Hindu and Indian Express: former Foreign Secretary Harsh Vardhan Shringla was among the four nominated to the Rajya Sabha (MHA notification, 12 July 2025).
Consider the following statements regarding nominated members of the Rajya Sabha: 1. The President nominates twelve members under Article 80(1)(a). 2. Nominated members must have special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art and social service. 3. The four persons nominated in July 2025 filled seats newly created by Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct per Article 80(1)(a) and 80(3). Statement 3 is wrong: the notification says the nominations fill vacancies caused by the retirement of nominated members.
Under which Article of the Constitution did the President nominate four members to the Rajya Sabha in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Article 80
MHA notification: 'In exercise of the powers conferred by sub-clause (a) of clause (1) of article 80 ... read with clause (3) of that article'.
Ujjwal Nikam, nominated to the Rajya Sabha in July 2025, is known as the Special Public Prosecutor in which case?
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Correct answer: A — 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks case
The Hindu and Indian Express: Ujjwal Nikam is the Special Public Prosecutor in the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks case.