SEBI Grade A Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What is the outlay, in ₹ crore, approved by the Cabinet on 7 February 2025 for the Skill India Programme for 2022-23 to 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — 8,800
The Cabinet approved continuing the Skill India Programme till 2026 with an outlay of ₹8,800 crore for 2022-23 to 2025-26.
Which of the following is NOT one of the components combined under the restructured Skill India Programme approved in February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana is not a component; the programme combines PMKVY 4.0, PM-NAPS and the Jan Shikshan Sansthan scheme.
Consider the following statements about the Skill India Programme approved on 7 February 2025: 1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. 2. PMKVY 4.0 under it targets people aged 15–59 years. 3. More than 400 new courses, including on AI, 5G and drone technology, have been introduced. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 2 and 3 only
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is wrong: the Skill India Programme is a Central Sector Scheme, not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
Which institution will act as the exclusive registrar for the 'bank.in' internet domain announced by the RBI on 7 February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT)
The RBI said the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) will act as the exclusive registrar, with registrations from April 2025.
Who inaugurated the national event marking the 75th anniversary of the National Sample Survey at Vigyan Bhawan on 7 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Rao Inderjit Singh
Rao Inderjit Singh, Minister of State for Statistics and Programme Implementation, inaugurated the event; Amitabh Kant gave the keynote address.
Under TRAI's recommendations of 6 February 2025 on the National Numbering Plan, how would fixed-line to fixed-line calls be dialled?
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Correct answer: C — With '0' followed by the STD code and subscriber number
TRAI recommended that all fixed-line to fixed-line calls be dialled with '0' followed by the STD code and the subscriber number, under an LSA-based 10-digit closed numbering scheme.
As per TRAI's February 2025 recommendations, mobile or fixed-line connections should not be deactivated by operators until how long a period of non-usage?
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Correct answer: A — 90 days
TRAI recommended that no mobile or fixed-line connection be deactivated until 90 days of non-usage have expired.
What aggregate net profit, in ₹ lakh crore, did Public Sector Banks report for April–December 2024, as per the Finance Ministry?
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Correct answer: D — 1.29
PSBs posted their highest-ever aggregate net profit of ₹1,29,426 crore, about ₹1.29 lakh crore, up 31.3% year-on-year.
What was the net NPA ratio of Public Sector Banks as on 31 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 0.59%
The net NPA ratio of PSBs was 0.59%, with aggregate net NPAs of ₹61,252 crore.
What was the aggregate Capital to Risk Weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) of Public Sector Banks as on 31 December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — 14.83%
The aggregate CRAR of PSBs was 14.83%, well above the minimum requirement of 11.5%.
In their first phone call on 6 February 2025, Rajnath Singh and Pete Hegseth agreed to draft a defence cooperation framework for which period?
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Correct answer: B — 2025–2035
India and the US agreed to draft a comprehensive framework on defence cooperation for 2025–2035.
Pete Hegseth, with whom Rajnath Singh held a phone call on 6 February 2025, had recently been confirmed as:
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Correct answer: A — US Secretary of Defense
Rajnath Singh congratulated Pete Hegseth on his confirmation as US Secretary of Defense in their first phone call.
EPFO crossed which milestone of claim settlements in FY 2024-25, as announced on 6 February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 5.08 crore claims
EPFO processed over 5.08 crore claims in FY 2024-25, crossing 5 crore for the first time; it had settled 4.45 crore claims in FY 2023-24.
How many claims did EPFO settle through auto-settlement in FY 2024-25, as per the February 2025 announcement?
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Correct answer: B — 1.87 crore
Auto claim settlements doubled to 1.87 crore in FY 2024-25 from 89.52 lakh in FY 2023-24.
What was the total cost, in ₹ crore, of the contracts signed by the Defence Ministry on 6 February 2025 for Pinaka rockets?
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Correct answer: C — 10,147
The contracts with EEL and MIL for ADM Type-1 and HEPF Mk-1 (Enhanced) rockets for the Pinaka MLRS were worth ₹10,147 crore.
With which company did the Defence Ministry sign a contract on 6 February 2025 for upgrading the SHAKTI software linked to the Pinaka system?
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Correct answer: C — Bharat Electronics Limited
The SHAKTI software upgrade contract was signed with Bharat Electronics Limited; Munitions India Limited is to supply the HEPF Mk-1 (Enhanced) rockets.
Consider the following statements about the Pinaka contracts of 6 February 2025: 1. Area Denial Munition Type-1 (DPICM) rockets are to be supplied by Economic Explosives Limited. 2. HEPF Mk-1 (Enhanced) rockets are to be supplied by Munitions India Limited. 3. Pinaka is a towed howitzer system. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Pinaka is a Multiple Launch Rocket System, not a towed howitzer.
The 'Watershed Yatra' launched by Shivraj Singh Chouhan on 5 February 2025 promotes works under the watershed component of which scheme?
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Correct answer: A — Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
The yatra promotes public participation in the Watershed Development Component of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (WDC-PMKSY 2.0).
Under the 'Watershed – Janbhagidari Pratiyogita' announced on 5 February 2025, how much additional reward (₹) will each outstanding project get?
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Correct answer: B — 20 lakh
Outstanding projects will get an additional reward of ₹20 lakh each, with a provision of ₹70.80 crore for 177 projects a year.
How many watershed projects will the 'Watershed Yatra', launched by Shivraj Singh Chouhan on 5 February 2025, cover?
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Correct answer: D — 805
The yatra will run for about 60–90 days across 805 projects covering 6,673 gram panchayats.
By how much did the volume of India's fruit and vegetable exports grow between 2019-20 and 2023-24, as per the Commerce Ministry on 4 February 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 47.3%
PIB (4 Feb 2025): there has been a growth of 47.3% in the volume of exports of fruits and vegetables between 2019-20 and 2023-24.
India's fruit and vegetable exports now reach how many countries, according to APEDA data shared on 4 February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 123
PIB (4 Feb 2025): India's fruit and vegetable exports reach 123 countries, with 17 new markets added in 3 years.
According to Ashwini Vaishnaw on 4 February 2025, what is India's rank among mobile manufacturing countries?
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Correct answer: C — Second
PIB (4 Feb 2025): India has become the world's 2nd largest mobile manufacturing country, i.e. Second.
What share of mobile phones sold in India are now made in India, as per the data shared on 4 February 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 99.2%
PIB (4 Feb 2025): 99.2% of all mobile phones sold in India are made in India, against 26% in 2014-15.
Consider the following statements about India's mobile manufacturing, based on data shared on 4 February 2025: 1. India had only 2 mobile manufacturing units in 2014 and has over 300 now. 2. Mobile phone exports crossed ₹1,29,000 crore in 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (4 Feb 2025): India had only 2 mobile manufacturing units in 2014 and now has over 300, and exports crossed ₹1,29,000 crore in 2024. Both statements are correct. Answer: Both 1 and 2.
Prince Karim Aga Khan IV, spiritual leader of the Shia Ismaili Muslims, passed away on 4 February 2025 in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Lisbon
The Aga Khan Development Network announced that Prince Karim Al-Hussaini Aga Khan IV passed away in Lisbon, Portugal, on 4 February 2025, aged 88.
Prince Karim Aga Khan IV, who passed away on 4 February 2025, was the founder of which network?
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Correct answer: D — Aga Khan Development Network
Aga Khan IV, the 49th hereditary Imam of the Shia Ismaili Muslims, founded the Aga Khan Development Network (AKDN), which announced his death.
In which year was Prince Karim Aga Khan IV, who passed away in February 2025, conferred India's Padma Vibhushan?
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Correct answer: C — 2015
The Aga Khan was conferred the Padma Vibhushan, India's second-highest civilian award, at a civil investiture ceremony in New Delhi in 2015.
According to Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh's statement of 4 February 2025, how much Indian territory in Aksai Chin has been under Chinese control since the 1962 conflict?
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Correct answer: B — 38,000 sq km
PIB (4 Feb 2025): 38,000 sq km of Indian territory in Aksai Chin has been under Chinese control since the 1962 conflict; 5,180 sq km was ceded by Pakistan to China in 1963.
As per Rajnath Singh's statement of 4 February 2025, how much territory did Pakistan cede to China in 1963?
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Correct answer: A — 5,180 sq km
PIB (4 Feb 2025): 5,180 sq km of territory was ceded by Pakistan to China in 1963.
How many projects were sanctioned in 2024-25 under SASCI - Development of Iconic Tourist Centres to Global Scale, as told to the Lok Sabha on 3 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 40
PIB (3 Feb 2025): 40 projects in 23 states were sanctioned for ₹3,295.76 crore in 2024-25.
In the scheme name 'SASCI', what does the abbreviation stand for?
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Correct answer: C — Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment
PIB (3 Feb 2025): the scheme is 'Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment (SASCI) - Development of Iconic Tourist Centres to Global Scale'.
The National Mission on Cultural Mapping, whose Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar portal was discussed in the Lok Sabha on 3 February 2025, is implemented by:
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Correct answer: D — Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts
PIB (3 Feb 2025): the National Mission on Cultural Mapping is implemented by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA).
The Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar portal aims to document the cultural heritage of how many villages?
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Correct answer: C — 6.5 lakh
PIB (3 Feb 2025): the MGMD portal aims to document the cultural heritage of 6.5 lakh villages; 4.5 lakh villages are currently live.
According to the Lok Sabha reply of 3 February 2025, how many antiquities has the Government retrieved from foreign countries from 1976 to 2024?
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Correct answer: B — 655
PIB (3 Feb 2025): the Government has retrieved 655 antiquities from foreign countries from 1976 to 2024, of which 642 have been retrieved since 2014.
Of the antiquities retrieved from abroad between 1976 and 2024, how many were retrieved since 2014?
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Correct answer: A — 642
PIB (3 Feb 2025): of the 655 antiquities retrieved from 1976 to 2024, 642 antiquities have been retrieved since 2014.
Which was the first language notified as a classical language by the Government of India, in 2004?
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Correct answer: D — Tamil
PIB (3 Feb 2025, Lok Sabha reply): the languages earlier notified as classical were Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Telugu (2008), Kannada (2008), Malayalam (2013) and Odia (2014).
Which of the following languages was NOT among the five notified as classical languages on 4 October 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Odia
PIB (3 Feb 2025): Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese and Bengali were notified on 4 October 2024. Odia was notified earlier, in 2014.
Consider the following statements based on the Lok Sabha reply of 3 February 2025: 1. The Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Kannada is in Mysuru. 2. The Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Malayalam is in Thiruvananthapuram. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (3 Feb 2025): the Classical Kannada centre is located in Mysuru, Karnataka, so statement 1 is correct. The Classical Malayalam centre operates from Tirur, Malappuram, Kerala, not Thiruvananthapuram, so statement 2 is wrong. Answer: 1 only.
Which team did India beat in the final of the ICC U19 Women's T20 World Cup 2025 on 2 February 2025?
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Correct answer: C — South Africa
ICC and BBC (2 Feb 2025): India beat South Africa by nine wickets in the final in Kuala Lumpur.
Who was named Player of the Tournament at the ICC U19 Women's T20 World Cup 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Gongadi Trisha
ICC media release (2 Feb 2025): India's Gongadi Trisha was named Player of the Tournament after scoring 309 runs in seven innings.
In which city was the final of the ICC U19 Women's T20 World Cup 2025 played?
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Correct answer: D — Kuala Lumpur
ICC and BBC (2 Feb 2025): the final was played at Bayuemas Oval in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.
Consider the following statements about the ICC U19 Women's T20 World Cup 2025: 1. India also won the inaugural edition of the tournament in 2023. 2. Gongadi Trisha scored the first century in U19 Women's World Cup history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
ICC media release: India successfully defended the title they first won in 2023, and Trisha made the first century in U19 Women's World Cup history (110 not out against Scotland). Both statements are correct. Answer: Both 1 and 2.
Chandrika Tandon won a Grammy at the 67th Grammy Awards on 2 February 2025 for which album?
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Correct answer: D — Triveni
GRAMMY.com and PIB: Chandrika Tandon won for the album Triveni. Break of Dawn was Ricky Kej's nominated album in the same category.
In which Grammy category did 'Triveni' win at the 67th Grammy Awards?
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Correct answer: B — Best New Age, Ambient, or Chant Album
GRAMMY.com (2 Feb 2025): Triveni by Wouter Kellerman, Eru Matsumoto and Chandrika Tandon won Best New Age, Ambient, or Chant Album.
Consider the following statements about the Grammy-winning album 'Triveni': 1. Chandrika Tandon shared the award with South African flautist Wouter Kellerman and Japanese cellist Eru Matsumoto. 2. Ricky Kej and Anoushka Shankar were also nominated in the same category. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
GRAMMY.com and The Hindu: Tandon won with Wouter Kellerman and Eru Matsumoto, and the category's other nominees included Ricky Kej (Break of Dawn) and Anoushka Shankar (Chapter II: How Dark It Is Before Dawn). Both statements are correct. Answer: Both 1 and 2.
On 2 February 2025, PM Narendra Modi addressed the Maha Kumbhabhishegam of Shri Sanathana Dharma Aalayam, a temple of which deity, in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Lord Murugan; Jakarta
PIB (2 Feb 2025): the PM congratulated devotees of Lord Murugan on the Maha Kumbhabhishegam of the Jakarta temple, Shri Sanathana Dharma Aalayam.
In his Jakarta temple remarks on 2 February 2025, PM Modi said which festival of Odisha celebrates ancient maritime voyages connecting India and Indonesia?
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Correct answer: C — Bali Jatra
PIB (2 Feb 2025): the Bali Jatra festival in Odisha celebrates the ancient maritime voyages that once connected India and Indonesia.
Who won the Tata Steel Masters chess tournament on 2 February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — R Praggnanandhaa
R Praggnanandhaa won the Tata Steel Masters 2025 after beating D Gukesh in a blitz tiebreak; Gukesh was second and Abdusattorov third.
R Praggnanandhaa beat which player in the tiebreak to win the Tata Steel Masters 2025?
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Correct answer: A — D Gukesh
Praggnanandhaa and world champion D Gukesh tied on 8.5/13; Praggnanandhaa won the blitz tiebreak 2–1, taking the sudden-death game.
The 87th Tata Steel Chess Tournament, whose Masters section R Praggnanandhaa won in February 2025, was held in which country?
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Correct answer: D — Netherlands
The 87th Tata Steel Chess Tournament was held from 18 January to 2 February 2025 at Wijk aan Zee in the Netherlands.
What is the outlay of the Nuclear Energy Mission for research and development of Small Modular Reactors announced in the Union Budget 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — ₹20,000 crore
PIB (1 Feb 2025): a Nuclear Energy Mission for R&D of Small Modular Reactors with an outlay of ₹20,000 crore will be set up.
Under the Nuclear Energy Mission announced in the Union Budget 2025-26, at least 5 indigenously developed Small Modular Reactors are to be operational by:
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Correct answer: B — 2033
PIB (1 Feb 2025): at least 5 indigenously developed SMRs will be operationalized by 2033.
Consider the following statements about the Union Budget 2025-26: 1. It said development of at least 100 GW of nuclear energy by 2047 is essential for the energy transition. 2. It proposed amendments to the Atomic Energy Act and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act for partnership with the private sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Budget speech (para 61): at least 100 GW of nuclear energy by 2047 is essential, and the Atomic Energy Act and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act will be amended for private-sector partnership. Both statements are correct. Answer: Both 1 and 2.
The modified UDAN scheme announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 aims to connect how many new destinations over the next 10 years?
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Correct answer: A — 120
Budget speech: a modified UDAN scheme will enhance regional connectivity to 120 new destinations and carry 4 crore passengers in the next 10 years.
What fiscal deficit target for 2025-26 (as a share of GDP) was announced in the Union Budget presented on 1 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 4.4 per cent
Budget speech (para 113): the fiscal deficit for 2025-26 is estimated to be 4.4 per cent of GDP.
According to the Union Budget 2025-26, what is the Revised Estimate of the fiscal deficit for 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 4.8 per cent of GDP
Budget speech (para 111): the Revised Estimate of the fiscal deficit is 4.8 per cent of GDP.
What capital expenditure did the Union Budget 2025-26 provide for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — ₹11.21 lakh crore
PIB Highlights (1 Feb 2025): capex is ₹11.21 lakh crore (3.1% of GDP). ₹10.18 lakh crore is the 2024-25 Revised Estimate and ₹14.82 lakh crore is gross market borrowings.
Which Budget document is mandated by Article 112 of the Constitution of India?
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Correct answer: A — Annual Financial Statement
Key to Budget Documents 2025-26: the Annual Financial Statement, Demands for Grants and Finance Bill are mandated by Articles 112, 113 and 110(a) respectively; Budget at a Glance is an explanatory document.
Consider the following statements about Union Budget documents: 1. Demands for Grants are mandated by Article 113 of the Constitution. 2. The Finance Bill is mandated by Article 110(a) of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Key to Budget Documents 2025-26: the AFS, Demands for Grants and Finance Bill are mandated by Articles 112, 113 and 110(a) respectively. Both statements are correct. Answer: Both 1 and 2.
Under the new tax regime announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 on 1 February 2025, no income tax is payable on normal income up to:
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Correct answer: C — ₹12 lakh
Budget speech and PIB (1 Feb 2025): there will be no income tax payable on income up to ₹12 lakh under the new regime, other than special rate income such as capital gains.
For salaried taxpayers under the new regime, what is the nil-tax income limit after the Union Budget 2025-26, taking the standard deduction into account?
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Correct answer: A — ₹12.75 lakh
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the limit will be ₹12.75 lakh for salaried taxpayers, with a standard deduction of ₹75,000.
In the revised new-regime slabs of the Union Budget 2025-26, what rate applies to the income slab of ₹12-16 lakh?
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Correct answer: D — 15 per cent
Budget speech (para 158): 12-16 lakh rupees is taxed at 15 per cent under the revised new-regime structure.
Consider the following statements about the income-tax changes in the Union Budget 2025-26: 1. Under the new regime, the 30% rate applies to income above ₹24 lakh. 2. The ₹12 lakh nil-tax threshold also covers special rate income such as capital gains. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Budget speech: the top slab is above 24 lakh rupees at 30 per cent, so statement 1 is correct. The ₹12 lakh limit is for income other than special rate income such as capital gains, so statement 2 is wrong. Answer: 1 only.
The Union Budget 2025-26 extended the time limit for filing updated income-tax returns for any assessment year from two years to:
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Correct answer: B — Four years
PIB Summary (1 Feb 2025): the time limit to file updated returns was increased from two years to four years.
The Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 will cover how many districts?
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Correct answer: B — 100
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the programme will cover 100 districts with low productivity, moderate crop intensity and below-average credit parameters.
How many farmers is the Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana expected to help, as per the Union Budget 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 1.7 crore
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the programme will help 1.7 crore farmers. The 7.7 crore figure refers to Kisan Credit Card beneficiaries.
The Union Budget 2025-26 raised the loan limit under the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme for Kisan Credit Card loans from ₹3 lakh to:
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Correct answer: D — ₹5 lakh
Budget speech (para 22): the loan limit under the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme will be enhanced from ₹3 lakh to ₹5 lakh for loans taken through the KCC.
The 'Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses' announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 will run for how many years and focus on which pulses?
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Correct answer: A — 6 years; Tur, Urad and Masoor
Budget speech: a 6-year 'Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses' with a special focus on Tur, Urad and Masoor; NAFED and NCCF will procure these pulses during the next 4 years.
How many Atal Tinkering Labs will be set up in government schools over the next 5 years, as announced in the Union Budget 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 50,000
PIB (1 Feb 2025): 50,000 Atal Tinkering Labs will be set up in government schools in the next 5 years.
What outlay did the Union Budget 2025-26 provide for a Centre of Excellence in Artificial Intelligence for education?
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Correct answer: B — ₹500 crore
PIB (1 Feb 2025): a Centre of Excellence in Artificial Intelligence for education with a total outlay of ₹500 crore.
According to the Union Budget 2025-26, how many medical seats are to be added over the next 5 years?
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Correct answer: D — 75,000
Budget speech: 10,000 additional seats will be added in the next year, towards the goal of adding 75,000 seats in the next 5 years.
Consider the following statements about the Union Budget 2025-26: 1. Day Care Cancer Centres will be set up in all district hospitals in the next 3 years. 2. Gig workers on online platforms will be given healthcare under PM Jan Arogya Yojana. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Budget speech and PIB Highlights: Day Care Cancer Centres in all district hospitals in the next 3 years (200 in 2025-26), and healthcare under PM Jan Arogya Yojana for gig workers. Both statements are correct. Answer: Both 1 and 2.
By how many times did the Union Budget 2025-26 enhance the investment limit for classification of all MSMEs?
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Correct answer: B — 2.5 times
PIB (1 Feb 2025): investment and turnover limits for classification of all MSMEs will be enhanced to 2.5 and 2 times respectively.
The Union Budget 2025-26 enhanced the credit guarantee cover for micro and small enterprises from ₹5 crore to:
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Correct answer: C — ₹10 crore
PIB (1 Feb 2025): credit guarantee cover for micro and small enterprises enhanced from ₹5 crore to ₹10 crore.
The ₹1 lakh crore Urban Challenge Fund announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 will finance up to what share of the cost of bankable projects?
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Correct answer: A — 25 per cent
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the fund will finance up to 25 per cent of the cost of bankable projects, with at least 50 per cent of the cost funded from bonds, bank loans and PPPs.
Until which year was the Jal Jeevan Mission extended in the Union Budget 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — 2028
PIB (1 Feb 2025): Jal Jeevan Mission extended until 2028, with the total budget outlay enhanced to ₹67,000 crore.
The Union Budget 2025-26 raised the FDI limit for the insurance sector from 74% to:
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Correct answer: A — 100 per cent
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the FDI limit for the insurance sector will be raised from 74 to 100 per cent.
Consider the following statements about the Union Budget 2025-26: 1. The enhanced insurance FDI limit is available only to companies that invest the entire premium in India. 2. The 'Grameen Credit Score' framework will be developed by the Reserve Bank of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB and Budget speech: the higher FDI limit is for companies investing the entire premium in India, so statement 1 is correct. The Grameen Credit Score framework will be developed by Public Sector Banks, not the RBI, so statement 2 is wrong. Answer: 1 only.
The Union Budget 2025-26 allocation for the Ministry of Defence was how much higher than the 2024-25 Budget Estimate?
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Correct answer: C — 9.53%
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the allocation of ₹6,81,210.27 crore is 9.53% more than the Budgetary Estimate of 2024-25. 13.45% is its share of the Union Budget.
How much did the Union Budget 2025-26 allocate for capital outlay on defence services?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1.80 lakh crore
PIB (1 Feb 2025): ₹1.80 lakh crore (₹1,80,000 crore), i.e. 26.43% of the total allocation, is for capital outlay on defence services; ₹1.12 lakh crore of the capital budget is earmarked for domestic procurement.