Sainik School (AISSEE) Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How did the Rajya Sabha pass the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025 after midnight on 19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — By voice vote
The Hindu and Scroll: the Rajya Sabha passed the Bill by voice vote after midnight amid Opposition protests.
During the December 2025 debate on the VB-G RAM G Bill, the Rural Development Minister said Mahatma Gandhi's name was added to the 2005 rural employment guarantee law in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2009
The Hindu and The Times of India: Shivraj Singh Chouhan said Gandhi's name was not in the original 2005 law and was added in 2009.
Consider the following statements about the passage of the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025: 1. The Lok Sabha passed the Bill on 18 December 2025. 2. The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill after midnight, on 19 December 2025. 3. The Bill was referred to a parliamentary committee before it was passed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
The Hindu, Scroll and TOI: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill on Thursday, 18 December, and the Rajya Sabha after midnight on Friday, 19 December. The demand to refer it to a committee was rejected, so statement 3 is wrong.
The proposed Bureau of Port Security (BoPS), discussed at a meeting chaired by Amit Shah on 19 December 2025, is being modelled on which body?
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Correct answer: C — Bureau of Civil Aviation Security
PIB 2206443: the Bureau is being modelled on the lines of the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS).
Which force has been designated as the Recognised Security Organisation (RSO) for port facilities, as announced on 19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Central Industrial Security Force
PIB 2206443: CISF has been designated as the RSO for port facilities, responsible for security assessments and port security plans.
Consider the following statements about the Bureau of Port Security (BoPS): 1. It is to be constituted as a statutory body under Section 13 of the Merchant Shipping Act, 2025. 2. It will function under the Ministry of Home Affairs. 3. During a one-year transition, the Director General of Shipping will function as its Director General. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2206443: BoPS will be a statutory body under Section 13 of the Merchant Shipping Act, 2025 and the DG Shipping will head it during the one-year transition. It will function under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, not the MHA, so statement 2 is wrong.
Where was the closing ceremony of the Second WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine held on 19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
PIB 2206859: the Prime Minister addressed the closing ceremony at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
What is the 'Ayush Mark' launched by the Prime Minister at the WHO traditional medicine summit in December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — A global benchmark for quality Ayush products and services
PIB 2206859: the Ayush Mark is envisioned as a global benchmark for quality Ayush products and services.
Consider the following statements in the context of the Second WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine (December 2025): 1. The new WHO South-East Asia Regional Office building in New Delhi will also house the WHO India Country Office. 2. The WHO Global Centre for Traditional Medicine is located in Jamnagar, Gujarat. 3. The summit's theme was 'Health for All through Traditional Medicine'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2206859: the SEARO building will also house the WHO India Country Office, and the WHO GCTM is in Jamnagar. The theme was 'Restoring Balance: The Science and Practice of Health and Well-being', so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the PFRDA amendments notified on 19 December 2025, what is the maximum lump sum a non-government NPS subscriber can take at normal exit?
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Correct answer: C — 80%
PIB 2206763: for the All Citizen Model and Corporate Sector, up to 80% lump sum with at least 20% annuity, up from 60%.
To what age have the maximum entry and exit ages under the NPS been raised by the PFRDA amendments of December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 85 years
PIB 2206763: entry and exit age increased to 85 years, from a maximum entry age of 70 and exit age of 75.
Consider the following statements about the NPS exit amendments notified by PFRDA on 19 December 2025: 1. Government sector subscribers can now take up to 80% as lump sum at normal exit. 2. The minimum lock-in period of five years for premature exit under the All Citizen Model has been removed. 3. A regulated lender may mark a lien of up to 25% of the subscriber's own contribution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 and 3 only
PIB 2206763: the five-year lock-in was removed for the All Citizen Model, and lenders may mark a lien up to 25% of the subscriber's own contribution. For the government sector, normal exit remains up to 60% lump sum, so statement 1 is wrong.
According to Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla, what was the productivity of the Lok Sabha during the Winter Session that ended on 19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 111 percent
PIB 2206501: the productivity of the House during the Sixth Session was 111 percent.
Which Bill was referred to a Joint Committee of the Houses after its introduction in the Lok Sabha during the Winter Session 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025
PIB 2206655: the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025 was referred to a Joint Committee after introduction. The other three were passed by both Houses.
Consider the following statements about the Winter Session 2025 of Parliament: 1. The session provided 15 sittings spread over 19 days. 2. The Prime Minister initiated the special discussion on 150 years of 'Vande Mataram' in the Lok Sabha. 3. The discussion on electoral reforms was held only in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2206655: 15 sittings over 19 days, and the PM initiated the Vande Mataram discussion in the Lok Sabha. Electoral reforms were discussed in the Lok Sabha (9–10 December) and the Rajya Sabha (11, 15 and 16 December), so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the India–Oman CEPA signed on 18 December 2025, Indian goods get zero-duty access on what share of Oman's tariff lines?
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Correct answer: C — 98.08%
PIB 2205889: zero-duty access on 98.08% of Oman's tariff lines, covering 99.38% of India's exports by value.
Who signed the India–Oman CEPA on behalf of India on 18 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Piyush Goyal
PIB 2205889: Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal signed with Oman's Minister of Commerce, Industry and Investment Promotion Qais bin Mohammed Al Yousef.
The India–Oman CEPA is India's second Free Trade Agreement signed in six months. With which country was the earlier one signed?
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Correct answer: B — United Kingdom
PIB 2205889: the CEPA is the second FTA signed in the last six months after the United Kingdom.
Consider the following statements about the India–Oman CEPA: 1. Oman has offered 127 services sub-sectors. 2. It contains the first-ever commitment by any country on traditional medicine across all modes. 3. Oman has capped FDI by Indian companies in its services sectors at 49%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2205889: Oman offered 127 sub-sectors and made the first-ever commitment by any country on traditional medicine across all modes. It committed to 100% FDI for Indian companies in major services sectors, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which two laws does the SHANTI Bill, 2025, passed by Parliament on 18 December 2025, replace?
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Correct answer: A — Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010
PRS: the Bill replaces the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010.
Which body gets statutory status under the SHANTI Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Atomic Energy Regulatory Board
PIB 2206211: the Bill accords statutory status to the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board, making it part of the parent legislation.
What nuclear energy capacity target by 2047 does the SHANTI Bill support?
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Correct answer: C — 100 GW
PIB 2206598: the Bill supports the long-term objective of achieving 100 GW nuclear energy capacity by 2047.
Consider the following statements about the SHANTI Bill, 2025: 1. It was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 15 December 2025 and passed by the Lok Sabha on 17 December 2025. 2. The Appellate Tribunal for Electricity will serve as the appellate authority under it. 3. It keeps a single statutory cap on operator liability for all nuclear installations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PRS gives the dates (introduced 15 December, Lok Sabha 17 December) and PIB 2206598 names the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity. The Bill replaces the single cap with a graded liability framework, so statement 3 is wrong.
How many members took part in the Lok Sabha debate on the VB-G RAM G Bill before it was passed on 18 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 98
The Indian Express and News18: Shivraj Singh Chouhan said he listened to 98 MPs who took part in the debate.
Consider the following statements about the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025 as explained in the PIB backgrounder of 18 December 2025: 1. It shifts rural employment from a central sector scheme to a centrally sponsored framework. 2. All assets created will be aggregated in the Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack. 3. The estimated annual central share is ₹1,51,282 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2205734: the Bill moves to a centrally sponsored framework and aggregates assets in the Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack. ₹1,51,282 crore is the total annual requirement including the State share; the central share is ₹95,692.31 crore, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four priority areas of works under the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Urban housing for migrant workers
PIB 2205734: the four areas are water security, core rural infrastructure, livelihood-related infrastructure and special works to mitigate extreme weather events. Urban housing is not one of them.
The Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Bill, 2025, passed by Parliament on 17 December 2025, allows FDI in insurance companies up to what limit?
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Correct answer: C — 100%
PIB 2206011: a key feature of the Bill is to allow up to 100% Foreign Direct Investment in insurance companies.
Under the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha Bill, 2025, the Net Owned Fund requirement for foreign reinsurance branches has been reduced from ₹5,000 crore to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,000 crore
PIB 2206011: the Net Owned Fund requirement of foreign reinsurance branches has been reduced from ₹5,000 crore to ₹1,000 crore.
Which of the following Acts is NOT amended by the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: D — General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972
PIB 2206011: the Bill amends three Acts: the Insurance Act, 1938, the LIC Act, 1956 and the IRDA Act, 1999. The General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act is not among them.
Consider the following statements about the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha Bill, 2025: 1. The limit for seeking prior regulatory approval for transfer of share capital has been raised from 1% to 5%. 2. A Policyholders' Education and Protection Fund will be set up. 3. IRDAI is given the power to disgorge wrongful gains from insurers and intermediaries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2206011: the share-transfer approval limit rises from 1% to 5%, a Policyholders' Education and Protection Fund will be set up, and IRDAI gets the power to disgorge wrongful gains. All three are correct.
The Adwa Victory Monument in Addis Ababa, where PM Modi laid a wreath on 17 December 2025, honours Ethiopian soldiers of the Battle of Adwa fought in which year?
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Correct answer: A — 1896
PIB 2205113: the memorial is dedicated to Ethiopian soldiers who died for the sovereignty of their nation at the Battle of Adwa in 1896.
In which year were formal diplomatic ties between India and Ethiopia established?
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Correct answer: B — 1950
PIB backgrounder 2205431: formal diplomatic ties between India and Ethiopia were established in 1950.
Consider the following statements about Prime Minister Modi's visit to Ethiopia in December 2025: 1. It was his first bilateral visit to Ethiopia. 2. India–Ethiopia ties were elevated to a Strategic Partnership. 3. India–Ethiopia bilateral trade in 2024–25 was driven mainly by Ethiopian exports to India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2205106 and 2205431: it was the PM's first bilateral visit and ties were elevated to a Strategic Partnership. Of the US$ 550.19 million trade in 2024–25, Indian exports were US$ 476.81 million and imports US$ 73.38 million, so the trade is export-driven from India and statement 3 is wrong.
The VB–G RAM G Bill, 2025, introduced in the Lok Sabha on 16 December 2025, proposes a statutory guarantee of how many days of wage employment a year?
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Correct answer: C — 125 days
PIB 2204816: the Bill provides a statutory guarantee of 125 days of wage employment every year, against the earlier 100-day guarantee.
In the VB–G RAM G Bill, 2025, what does 'G RAM G' stand for?
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Correct answer: A — Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin)
PIB 2204816: the Bill is the Viksit Bharat–Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) or VB–G RAM G Bill, 2025.
Consider the following statements about the VB–G RAM G Bill, 2025 as introduced on 16 December 2025: 1. It was introduced in the Lok Sabha by the Minister of Rural Development. 2. It provides for grading of panchayats so that less developed panchayats get more work. 3. The total provision announced for it is more than ₹1,51,282 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2204816: Shivraj Singh Chouhan introduced it in the Lok Sabha, the Bill grades panchayats to assign more work to less developed ones, and a provision of more than ₹1,51,282 crore has been made. All three are correct.
Which award did Prime Minister Narendra Modi receive from Ethiopia on 16 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Great Honour Nishan of Ethiopia
PIB 2204955: Ethiopian PM Abiy Ahmed conferred Ethiopia's highest award, the 'Great Honor Nishan of Ethiopia', on PM Modi.
Where was the ceremony conferring Ethiopia's highest award on PM Modi held on 16 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Addis International Convention Centre
PIB 2204955: the special ceremony was hosted at the Addis International Convention Centre.
Consider the following outcomes of Prime Minister Modi's visit to Ethiopia in December 2025: 1. An MoU on debt restructuring of Ethiopia under the G20 Common Framework 2. Doubling of ICCR scholarships for Ethiopian scholars 3. A Free Trade Agreement between India and Ethiopia Which of the above is/are part of the official list of outcomes?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2204943: the outcomes list includes the debt restructuring MoU under the G20 Common Framework and doubling of ICCR scholarships. No Free Trade Agreement was signed.
Which of the following bodies is NOT proposed to be subsumed under the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan by the Bill introduced on 15 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Medical Commission
PIB 2204351: UGC, AICTE and NCTE are to be subsumed under the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan. The National Medical Commission is not.
How many independent Councils does the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025 propose under the apex body?
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Correct answer: A — Three
PIB 2204351: the Bill establishes the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan as an apex body with three independent Councils for Standards, Regulation and Accreditation.
The reform of the higher education regulatory system proposed in the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025 is envisaged in which chapter of the National Education Policy 2020?
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Correct answer: A — Chapter 18
PIB 2204351: NEP 2020, as envisaged in Chapter 18, calls for a fundamental transformation of the higher education regulatory system.
Under an agreement signed during PM Modi's visit to Jordan in December 2025, Ellora is to be twinned with which heritage site?
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Correct answer: A — Petra
PIB 2204384: the outcomes include a Twinning Agreement between Petra and Ellora.
What bilateral trade target did PM Modi propose for India and Jordan over the next five years during talks on 15 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — US$ 5 billion
PIB 2204376: noting India is Jordan's third-largest trading partner, PM Modi proposed enhancing bilateral trade to US$ 5 billion over the next five years. Trade in 2024 was US$ 2.3 billion (PIB 2204593).
Consider the following statements about India–Jordan relations as of December 2025: 1. The two countries were marking 75 years of diplomatic relations. 2. India is Jordan's third-largest trading partner. 3. The Cultural Exchange Programme was renewed for 2025–2029. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2204376, 2204384 and 2204593: the visit marked 75 years of diplomatic ties, India is Jordan's third-largest trading partner, and the Cultural Exchange Programme was renewed for 2025–2029. All three are correct.
Which team did India defeat in the final to win the SDAT Squash World Cup 2025 on 14 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Hong Kong, China
The Hindu and World Squash: India beat top seeds Hong Kong, China 3-0 in the final in Chennai.
Which Indian player won the third and title-clinching match of the Squash World Cup 2025 final by beating Tomato Ho?
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Correct answer: D — Anahat Singh
The Hindu, NIE and World Squash: Anahat Singh beat Tomato Ho 3-0 to seal India's 3-0 win, after Joshna Chinappa and Abhay Singh won the first two matches.
Before winning the title in December 2025, what was India's best finish at the Squash World Cup?
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Correct answer: A — Bronze medal in 2023
The Hindu and Olympics.com: the title improved on India's previous best finish, a bronze medal at the 2023 edition.
At what cost did the Union Cabinet approve the Census of India 2027 on 12 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹11,718.24 crore
PIB 2202983: the Cabinet approved conducting the Census of India 2027 at a cost of ₹11,718.24 crore.
Consider the following statements about the Census of India 2027 approved on 12 December 2025: 1. Houselisting and Housing Census will be held from April to September 2026. 2. Caste data will be captured during the Houselisting phase. 3. Population Enumeration in Ladakh will be held in September 2026. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2202983: Houselisting runs April–September 2026; Population Enumeration is in February 2027 but September 2026 for Ladakh and snow-bound areas; caste data is captured in the second phase (Population Enumeration), not Houselisting.
On 10 December 2025, which Indian festival was inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?
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Correct answer: A — Deepavali
PIB 2201320: Deepavali was inscribed on the Representative List on 10 December 2025 at the 20th session of the Intergovernmental Committee.
Where was the 20th session of the UNESCO Intergovernmental Committee for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage, at which Deepavali was inscribed, held?
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Correct answer: A — Red Fort, New Delhi
PIB 2201320: the inscription took place during the 20th session of the UNESCO Intergovernmental Committee held at the Red Fort, New Delhi.
Delegates from how many UNESCO Member States were present when Deepavali was inscribed on 10 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 194
PIB 2201320: the inscription was adopted in the presence of delegates from 194 Member States.
How much did Microsoft announce on 9 December 2025 that it would invest in India over four years?
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Correct answer: D — US$17.5 billion
Microsoft, Reuters and AP: Microsoft will invest US$17.5 billion in India over four years (2026–2029), its largest investment in Asia.
Consider the following statements about Microsoft's India investment announced on 9 December 2025: 1. The investment covers calendar years 2026 to 2029. 2. The investment is Microsoft's largest in Asia. 3. The investment replaces the US$3 billion commitment announced earlier in 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Microsoft's release: US$17.5 billion over CY 2026–2029, its largest investment in Asia, which builds on (does not replace) the US$3 billion announced earlier in the year.
Where did the 20th Session of UNESCO's Intergovernmental Committee for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage open on 8 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Red Fort, New Delhi
PIB 2200378: the 20th Session began at the Red Fort, New Delhi, on 8 December 2025.
Who chaired the 20th Session of UNESCO's Intergovernmental Committee for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage held in New Delhi in December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Vishal V. Sharma
PIB 2200489: Vishal V. Sharma, India's Permanent Representative to UNESCO, is the 20.COM Chairperson. Vivek Aggarwal is Culture Secretary, Ernesto Ottone is UNESCO ADG for Culture and Khaled El-Enany is UNESCO Director-General.
According to the Culture Ministry in December 2025, how many Indian elements are on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity (before the 20th session)?
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Correct answer: C — 15
PIB 2200489: the Culture Secretary underscored India's 15 elements on the Representative List, including Vedic Chanting, Kutiyattam, Yoga, Kumbh Mela, Durga Puja and Garba.
On which date did the UMEED Central Portal for Waqf properties close its six-month upload window?
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Correct answer: C — 6 December 2025
PIB 2199974: the UMEED Central Portal officially closed for uploads on 6 December 2025, completing its 6-month window.
In the UMEED Central Portal for Waqf properties, what does UMEED stand for?
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Correct answer: A — Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development
PIB 2134499: UMEED is short for Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development Act, 1995.
According to the Ministry of Minority Affairs, how many Waqf properties had been initiated on the UMEED Central Portal when it closed on 6 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 5,17,040
PIB 2199974: 5,17,040 Waqf properties were initiated; 2,16,905 approved; 2,13,941 pending; 10,869 rejected.
Consider the following statements about the UMEED Central Portal: 1. It was launched by Union Minister Kiren Rijiju on 6 June 2025. 2. Its upload window for existing Waqf properties was twelve months. 3. 10,869 properties stood rejected during verification by the deadline. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2199974: launched on 6 June 2025 by Kiren Rijiju; it closed on 6 December 2025 after a 6-month (not 12-month) window; 10,869 properties were rejected.
Which edition of the India–Russia Annual Summit was held in New Delhi on 5 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 23rd
PIB 2199494: Vladimir Putin paid a State visit to India on 4–5 December 2025 for the 23rd India–Russia Annual Summit.
In which two Russian cities did India and Russia welcome the opening of new Consulates General of India in December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Yekaterinburg and Kazan
PIB 2199494: the leaders welcomed the opening of two Consulates General of India in Yekaterinburg and Kazan.
What is the revised India–Russia bilateral trade target reaffirmed at the 23rd Annual Summit?
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Correct answer: D — USD 100 billion by 2030
PIB 2199494: the joint statement refers to timely achievement of the revised bilateral trade target of USD 100 billion by 2030.
Consider the following statements about the India–Russia Declaration on Strategic Partnership: 1. It was established during Vladimir Putin's first State visit to India in October 2000. 2. Its 25th anniversary falls in 2025. 3. It was upgraded at the 23rd Annual Summit to a 'Comprehensive Global Strategic Partnership'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2199494: 2025 marks the 25th anniversary of the Declaration on Strategic Partnership established during Putin's first State visit in October 2000; the leaders reaffirmed the 'Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership', with no new upgrade.
How many sittings did the Winter Session 2025 of Parliament (1–19 December 2025) provide?
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Correct answer: B — 15
PIB 2206655: the session that began on 1 December and was adjourned sine die on 19 December provided 15 sittings over 19 days.
On the opening day of the Winter Session 2025, the Rajya Sabha felicitated its Chairman. Who was he?
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Correct answer: C — C. P. Radhakrishnan
PIB 2196810: the Prime Minister spoke at the felicitation of Rajya Sabha Chairman Thiru C. P. Radhakrishnan on 1 December 2025.
In November 2025 the Election Commission of India extended the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls by how long?
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Correct answer: B — One week
On 30 November 2025 the ECI extended the relevant SIR dates by one week.
As per the revised SIR schedule announced in November 2025, the final electoral roll will be published on which date?
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Correct answer: D — 14 February 2026
The revised schedule fixes final publication of the electoral roll on 14 February 2026.
Consider the following statements about the SIR schedule revised by ECI on 30 November 2025: 1. The SIR is being conducted in 12 States/UTs. 2. The qualifying date for the revision is 1 January 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The ECI release says the SIR is ongoing in 12 States/UTs with 01.01.2026 as the qualifying date.
Under the revised SIR schedule (November 2025), the draft electoral roll is to be published on:
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Correct answer: B — 16 December 2025
Publication of the draft electoral roll is on 16 December 2025 (Tuesday).
In November 2025 India was re-elected to the IMO Council in which category?
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Correct answer: A — Category B
India was re-elected in Category B, comprising 10 countries with the largest interest in international seaborne trade.
How many votes did India receive in the IMO Council election held on 28 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 154 of 169
India received 154 out of 169 valid votes, the highest in Category B.
Consider the following statements about the International Maritime Organization (IMO) Council: 1. It has 40 elected members across three categories. 2. India's 2025 re-election was for the 2026–27 biennium. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The IMO Council consists of 40 elected members across three categories; India was re-elected for 2026–27.
According to NSO estimates released on 28 November 2025, India's real GDP growth in Q2 (July–September) of FY 2025-26 was:
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Correct answer: C — 8.2%
Real GDP grew 8.2% in Q2 FY 2025-26; 8.7% was the nominal GDP growth.
In Q2 of FY 2025-26, which broad sector recorded the highest real growth as per NSO?
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Correct answer: D — Tertiary sector (9.2%)
The tertiary sector grew 9.2%, ahead of the secondary sector (8.1%) and agriculture (3.5%).
Consider the following statements about the GDP estimates released on 28 November 2025: 1. Real GDP grew 8.0% in the first half (April–September) of FY 2025-26. 2. Real GDP growth in Q2 of FY 2024-25 was 5.6%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
NSO reported H1 FY26 real GDP growth of 8.0% and Q2 FY25 growth of 5.6%.
Quarterly GDP estimates in India are released by which body?
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Correct answer: A — National Statistics Office (MoSPI)
The Q2 FY26 estimates were released by the National Statistics Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
India's humanitarian relief operation for Sri Lanka after Cyclone Ditwah (November 2025) was named:
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Correct answer: A — Operation Sagar Bandhu
India launched Operation Sagar Bandhu on 28 November 2025 to assist Sri Lanka after Cyclone Ditwah.
Under Operation Sagar Bandhu, the first tranche of relief was handed over in Colombo from which Indian naval ships?
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Correct answer: B — INS Vikrant and INS Udaygiri
The first relief supplies were handed over from INS Vikrant and INS Udaygiri, which were in Sri Lanka.
Cyclone Ditwah made landfall in Sri Lanka on which date?
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Correct answer: B — 27 November 2025
The High Commission of India said Cyclone Ditwah made landfall on 27 November 2025.
The 25th Summer Deaflympics 2025, where India won a record 20 medals, was held in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Tokyo
The 25th Summer Deaflympics 2025 was held in Tokyo.
How many gold medals did India win at the 25th Summer Deaflympics 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 9
India won 20 medals: 9 gold, 7 silver and 4 bronze.
What is the total outlay of the Tex-RAMPS Scheme approved for the textiles sector in November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹305 crore
Tex-RAMPS has a total outlay of ₹305 crore for FY 2025-26 to FY 2030-31.
In the name of the Tex-RAMPS scheme, what does the letter 'R' stand for?
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Correct answer: D — Research
Tex-RAMPS = Textiles Focused Research, Assessment, Monitoring, Planning and Start-up.
Consider the following statements about the Tex-RAMPS Scheme: 1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with cost sharing between the Centre and States. 2. It includes an Integrated Textiles Statistical System (ITSS) for real-time data and analytics. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: Tex-RAMPS is a Central Sector Scheme fully funded by the Ministry of Textiles. Statement 2 is correct.
As per the first advance estimates (November 2025), total Kharif foodgrain production for 2025-26 is estimated at:
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Correct answer: C — 173.33 million tonnes
Total Kharif foodgrain production is estimated at 173.33 million tonnes, 3.87 million tonnes higher than last year.
In the first advance estimates of Kharif 2025-26, which oilseed has the highest estimated production?
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Correct answer: B — Soybean
Soybean is estimated at 14.266 million tonnes and groundnut at 11.093 million tonnes, out of total Kharif oilseeds of 27.563 MT.
Consider the following statements about the first advance estimates of Kharif 2025-26: 1. Kharif rice production is estimated at over 124 million tonnes. 2. Kharif maize production is estimated to fall compared with last year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct (124.504 MT). Statement 2 is wrong: maize is estimated at 28.303 MT, 3.495 MT more than last year.
On Constitution Day 2025, a bust of Dr B.R. Ambedkar was unveiled at the headquarters of which organisation?
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Correct answer: B — UNESCO, Paris
A bust of Dr Babasaheb Ambedkar was unveiled at the UNESCO Headquarters in Paris on 26 November 2025.
In how many Indian languages did the President digitally release translated versions of the Constitution on 26 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Nine
The Constitution was released in nine languages: Malayalam, Marathi, Nepali, Punjabi, Bodo, Kashmiri, Telugu, Odia and Assamese.
Which of the following languages was NOT among those in which translated versions of the Constitution were released on Constitution Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Gujarati
The nine languages were Malayalam, Marathi, Nepali, Punjabi, Bodo, Kashmiri, Telugu, Odia and Assamese; Gujarati was not among them.