Sainik School (AISSEE) Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
On 11 February 2026, the Indian Navy assumed command of which Combined Task Force of the Combined Maritime Forces for the first time?
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Correct answer: B — CTF 154
The Indian Navy took over CTF 154, the CMF's training and capacity-building task force, at Manama on 11 February 2026.
Where is the headquarters of the Combined Maritime Forces, where the CTF 154 change of command was held?
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Correct answer: B — Manama, Bahrain
The change of command ceremony took place at CMF Headquarters in Manama, Bahrain.
Who took over as Commander CTF 154 from the outgoing Italian Navy commander on 11 February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Commodore Milind M. Mokashi
Commodore Milind M. Mokashi, Shaurya Chakra, took over; Vice Admiral Renshaw presided and Vice Admiral Sobti attended.
Consider the following about the Combined Maritime Forces (CMF): 1. CTF 151 is the CMF task force dedicated to counter-piracy. 2. CTF 154, the training task force, was established in May 2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: CTF 151 handles counter-piracy, and CTF 154 was established in May 2023 for multinational training.
Consider the following about CTF 154: 1. Its training pillars include Law of the Sea and Maritime Domain Awareness. 2. The CMF, under which it operates, has 32 member nations. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The five pillars include Law of the Sea and Maritime Domain Awareness; the CMF has 47 member nations, not 32.
What is the size of the Special Economic Package India announced for Seychelles on 9 February 2026?
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Correct answer: B — USD 175 million
India announced a Special Economic Package of USD 175 million for Seychelles.
The India–Seychelles Joint Vision announced on 9 February 2026 is abbreviated as:
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Correct answer: D — SESEL
It is the Joint Vision for Sustainability, Economic Growth and Security through Enhanced Linkages (SESEL).
President Herminie's State Visit to India in February 2026 coincided with which anniversary of India–Seychelles diplomatic relations?
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Correct answer: C — 50th
The visit coincided with the 50th year of Seychelles' independence and of diplomatic relations between the two countries.
Consider the following about the Special Economic Package India announced for Seychelles in February 2026: 1. It includes a USD 125 million Rupee-denominated Line of Credit. 2. It includes USD 50 million in grant assistance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the USD 175 million package combines a USD 125 million Rupee-denominated Line of Credit and USD 50 million in grants.
Consider the following outcomes of the India–Seychelles talks of 9 February 2026: 1. Seychelles agreed to join the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI). 2. India agreed to set up an Indian naval base on Seychelles' Assumption Island. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Seychelles agreed to join CDRI and to set up a Seychelles Hydrographic Unit with Indian help; no naval base was announced.
India–Malaysia relations were elevated to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2024
The India–Malaysia Joint Statement of 8 February 2026 recalls that ties were elevated to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in August 2024.
During PM Modi's visit in February 2026, Malaysia completed its accession to which India-led alliance?
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Correct answer: D — International Big Cat Alliance
Malaysia signed the Framework Agreement on the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA), completing all procedures for accession.
Where did PM Modi and PM Anwar Ibrahim hold their delegation-level talks on 8 February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Seri Perdana, Putrajaya
After a ceremonial welcome at the Perdana Putra complex, the talks were held at Seri Perdana, Anwar Ibrahim's official residence in Putrajaya.
Consider the following outcomes of PM Modi's visit to Malaysia in February 2026: 1. NPCI International (NIPL) and PayNet signed an agreement on cross-border payments. 2. ESIC and Malaysia's PERKESO signed a Memorandum of Cooperation on social security for Indian citizens insured in Malaysia. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Both documents appear in the official list of outcomes of the visit.
Consider the following about India–Malaysia ties as stated during the February 2026 visit: 1. Diplomatic relations between the two countries were established in 1957. 2. The new Thiruvalluvar Centre will be set up at the University of Cyberjaya. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The Thiruvalluvar Centre will be at Universiti Malaya, Kuala Lumpur; the University of Cyberjaya signed an academic MoU with the Institute of Training and Research in Ayurveda (ITRA).
Under the India–US framework for an Interim Trade Agreement announced on 7 February 2026, what reciprocal tariff will the US apply on originating goods of India?
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Correct answer: B — 18%
The US will apply a reciprocal tariff rate of 18% on originating goods of India.
How much in US goods does India intend to purchase over the next five years under the India–US framework of February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — USD 500 billion
India intends to purchase USD 500 billion of US energy products, aircraft and parts, precious metals, technology products and coking coal over the next five years.
The broader India–US Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) negotiations, reaffirmed by the February 2026 framework, were launched on:
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Correct answer: A — 13 February 2025
The BTA negotiations were launched by President Trump and PM Modi on 13 February 2025.
Consider the following about the India–US framework for an Interim Trade Agreement (February 2026): 1. India will eliminate or reduce tariffs on all US industrial goods. 2. Once the Interim Agreement is concluded, the US will remove the reciprocal tariff on goods such as generic pharmaceuticals, gems and diamonds, and aircraft parts. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the joint statement.
Consider the following about the India–US joint statement of February 2026: 1. India will receive a preferential tariff-rate quota for automotive parts. 2. India agreed to eliminate all tariffs on US dairy products. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The farm products listed for tariff cuts include DDGs, red sorghum, tree nuts, fruit, soybean oil, wine and spirits; dairy is not among them.
Which team did India beat in the final of the ICC Men's Under-19 Cricket World Cup on 6 February 2026?
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Correct answer: B — England
India beat England by 100 runs in the final.
Where was the final of the ICC Men's Under-19 Cricket World Cup 2026 played?
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Correct answer: D — Harare Sports Club, Zimbabwe
The final was played at Harare Sports Club, Harare, Zimbabwe.
With the February 2026 triumph, how many Under-19 World Cup titles has India won?
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Correct answer: B — Six
It was India's record-extending sixth Under-19 World Cup title.
Consider the following about the U19 World Cup 2026 final: 1. Vaibhav Sooryavanshi was Player of the Match for his 175 off 80 balls. 2. India were captained by Ayush Mhatre. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Sooryavanshi scored 175 off 80 balls and Mhatre, who made 53, captained the World Cup-winning side.
Consider the following about the U19 World Cup 2026 final: 1. India scored 411 for 9 batting first. 2. England lost by 50 runs. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. England were bowled out for 311 and lost by 100 runs.
What is India's rank in the Network Readiness Index 2025, released on 4 February 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 45th
India rose four places, from 49th in 2024 to 45th in NRI 2025.
Which institution prepares the Network Readiness Index?
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Correct answer: D — Portulans Institute, Washington DC
The NRI 2025 report was prepared by the Portulans Institute, an independent non-profit research institute based in Washington DC.
In NRI 2025, India's score improved to what value out of 100?
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Correct answer: B — 54.43
India's score rose from 53.63 in 2024 to 54.43 in 2025.
Consider the following about the Network Readiness Index 2025: 1. It covers 127 economies on four pillars — Technology, People, Governance and Impact — using 53 indicators. 2. India ranked 1st among lower-middle-income countries. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. India ranked 2nd in the lower-middle-income group.
Under the Baggage Rules, 2026 notified on 2 February 2026, what is the general duty-free allowance for a resident passenger?
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Correct answer: C — ₹75,000
Residents, tourists of Indian origin and foreigners with a non-tourist visa get a ₹75,000 duty-free allowance.
What duty-free allowance do the Baggage Rules, 2026 give a tourist of foreign origin?
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Correct answer: D — ₹25,000
Tourists of foreign origin get ₹25,000; crew members get ₹2,500.
Under the weight-based jewellery allowance in the Baggage Rules, 2026, how much duty-free jewellery can an eligible female passenger bring?
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Correct answer: B — Up to 40 grams
Eligible female passengers may bring up to 40 g and others up to 20 g; the old value caps were removed.
Under the Baggage Rules, 2026, what is the transfer-of-residence cap for a person returning after more than two years abroad?
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Correct answer: C — ₹7.5 lakh
The caps are ₹1.5 lakh (up to 12 months), ₹3 lakh (1–2 years) and ₹7.5 lakh (above 2 years).
Consider the following about the Baggage Rules, 2026: 1. Duty-free import of one laptop by passengers above 18 years has been incorporated into the Rules. 2. Passengers arriving by land borders are entitled to the same ₹75,000 general allowance as air passengers. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Passengers arriving by land borders do not get any general duty-free allowance.
On 2 February 2026, President Trump announced that the US reciprocal tariff on Indian goods would be cut to 18% from what level?
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Correct answer: B — 25%
Trump said the reciprocal tariff would fall from 25% to 18%.
The separate additional 25% US tariff on Indian goods, which the White House said on 2 February 2026 would be dropped, had been imposed over what?
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Correct answer: D — India's purchases of Russian oil
The additional 25% tariff was imposed in August 2025 over India's purchases of Russian oil.
According to CNN, President Trump said on 2 February 2026 that India would replace its Russian crude imports with oil from which countries?
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Correct answer: B — The United States and Venezuela
CNN reported Trump said Modi agreed to replace Russian crude with oil from Venezuela and the United States.
Consider the following about the US tariff announcement of 2 February 2026: 1. With the additional 25% tariff also dropped, the combined US tariff on Indian goods falls from 50% to 18%. 2. PM Modi's post on X confirmed that India would stop buying Russian oil. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Modi's X post thanked Trump for the 18% tariff but did not mention Russian oil.
How much was allocated to the Ministry of Defence in the Union Budget 2026-27?
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Correct answer: B — ₹7.85 lakh crore
The Ministry of Defence got a record ₹7.85 lakh crore.
What is the defence capital outlay in the Union Budget 2026-27?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2.19 lakh crore
Capital expenditure got ₹2.19 lakh crore, up from ₹1.80 lakh crore in BE 2025-26; ₹1.39 lakh crore is for domestic industry.
The defence allocation in the Union Budget 2026-27 is what share of the estimated GDP for 2026-27?
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Correct answer: C — 2%
The ₹7.85 lakh crore allocation is 2% of estimated GDP.
Consider the following about the defence budget for 2026-27: 1. It accounts for 14.67% of Central Government expenditure, the highest among ministries. 2. The allocation for the Ex-Servicemen Contributory Health Scheme was cut compared with BE 2025-26. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. ECHS got ₹12,100 crore, 45.49% higher than BE 2025-26.
From when does the new Income Tax Act, 2025 come into effect, as confirmed in the Union Budget 2026-27?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2026
The Income Tax Act, 2025 comes into effect from 1 April 2026.
To what rate did the Union Budget 2026-27 cut TCS on LRS remittances for education and medical purposes?
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Correct answer: C — 2%
TCS on LRS remittances for education and medical purposes was cut to 2% from 5%.
The Union Budget 2026-27 raised the threshold for availing safe harbour for IT services from ₹300 crore to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹2,000 crore
The safe-harbour threshold for IT services was raised from ₹300 crore to ₹2,000 crore, with a common 15.5% margin.
Consider the following direct tax proposals in the Union Budget 2026-27: 1. Interest awarded by a Motor Accident Claims Tribunal to a natural person will be exempt from income tax. 2. The time for revising income tax returns is cut from 31 December to 30 September. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The time to revise returns was extended from 31 December to 31 March, with a nominal fee.
What outlay did the Union Budget 2026-27 announce for Biopharma SHAKTI?
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Correct answer: D — ₹10,000 crore over 5 years
Biopharma SHAKTI has an outlay of ₹10,000 crore over the next five years.
Which of the following states is NOT among those to be supported by the dedicated Rare Earth Corridors announced in the Union Budget 2026-27?
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Correct answer: A — Jharkhand
The Rare Earth Corridors will support Odisha, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
To what amount did the Union Budget 2026-27 raise the outlay of the Electronics Components Manufacturing Scheme?
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Correct answer: B — ₹40,000 crore
The Electronics Components Manufacturing Scheme outlay was increased to ₹40,000 crore.
Consider the following about Biopharma SHAKTI, announced in the Union Budget 2026-27: 1. It includes creating three new National Institutes of Pharmaceutical Education and Research and upgrading seven existing ones. 2. It plans a network of over 1,000 accredited India Clinical Trials sites. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
At what level did the government, in the Budget 2026-27, agree to retain the states' vertical share of devolution as recommended by the 16th Finance Commission?
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Correct answer: C — 41%
The government accepted the 16th Finance Commission's recommendation to retain the vertical share at 41%.
How much did the Union Budget 2026-27 provide to states for 2026-27 as Finance Commission grants?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1.4 lakh crore
₹1.4 lakh crore was provided as Finance Commission grants, as recommended by the 16th Finance Commission.
Consider the following about the Finance Commission grants announced in the Budget 2026-27: 1. They include grants for both rural and urban local bodies. 2. They exclude disaster management grants, which are now funded separately. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The ₹1.4 lakh crore includes rural and urban local body grants and disaster management grants.
The sharing of the net proceeds of Union taxes between the Union and the states, on which the Finance Commission's 'vertical devolution' recommendation applies, is provided under which Article?
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Correct answer: A — Article 270
Article 270 provides for the net proceeds of Union taxes and duties to be distributed between the Union and the states.
What public capital expenditure did the Union Budget 2026-27 propose for 2026-27?
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Correct answer: D — ₹12.2 lakh crore
Public capex was raised to ₹12.2 lakh crore for 2026-27.
Which new fund did the Union Budget 2026-27 announce to reassure private developers about construction-phase risks?
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Correct answer: A — Infrastructure Risk Guarantee Fund
The Budget announced an Infrastructure Risk Guarantee Fund for risks during development and construction.
Under the Union Budget 2026-27, how much will each City Economic Region get for implementing its plan?
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Correct answer: B — ₹5,000 crore over 5 years
Each City Economic Region gets ₹5,000 crore over five years through a challenge mode with results-based financing.
Consider the following about the Union Budget 2026-27: 1. A ₹100 crore incentive is offered to a city for a single municipal bond issue of more than ₹1,000 crore. 2. Dedicated REITs are proposed to recycle real-estate assets of CPSEs. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as listed in the Budget highlights.
What record capital expenditure was planned for Indian Railways in the Union Budget 2026-27?
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Correct answer: A — ₹2,93,030 crore
A record capex of ₹2,93,030 crore was planned for Indian Railways.
The new dedicated freight corridor announced in the Union Budget 2026-27 will connect Dankuni with which city?
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Correct answer: B — Surat
The 2,052 km dedicated freight corridor will link Dankuni in the east with Surat in the west.
Which of the following is NOT among the seven high-speed rail corridors announced in the Union Budget 2026-27?
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Correct answer: D — Delhi–Amritsar
The seven are Mumbai–Pune, Pune–Hyderabad, Hyderabad–Bengaluru, Hyderabad–Chennai, Chennai–Bengaluru, Delhi–Varanasi and Varanasi–Siliguri.
Consider the following about the transport proposals in the Union Budget 2026-27: 1. The rollout of 20 new National Waterways will begin with NW-5 in Odisha, linking Talcher and Angul to the ports of Paradip and Dhamra. 2. The Coastal Cargo Promotion Scheme aims to raise the share of inland waterways and coastal shipping to 12% by 2047. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct; the target is to raise the share from 6% to 12% by 2047.
The Union Budget 2026-27 proposed reducing the tariff on all dutiable goods imported for personal use from 20% to:
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Correct answer: B — 10%
The tariff on dutiable goods imported for personal use is to fall from 20% to 10%.
How many drugs or medicines, particularly for cancer patients, did the Union Budget 2026-27 propose to exempt from basic customs duty?
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Correct answer: C — 17
BCD is to be exempted on 17 drugs or medicines; separately, 7 more rare diseases were added for personal-import exemptions.
Under the Union Budget 2026-27, until which year has the basic customs duty exemption on goods for nuclear power projects been extended?
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Correct answer: C — 2035
The exemption was extended till 2035 and expanded to all nuclear plants irrespective of capacity.
Consider the following customs proposals in the Union Budget 2026-27: 1. The duty-deferral period for Tier 2 and Tier 3 Authorised Economic Operators is raised from 15 to 30 days. 2. The limit for duty-free inputs for seafood exports is raised from 1% to 3% of the previous year's FOB export turnover. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
What fiscal deficit target, as a share of GDP, did the Union Budget 2026-27 set for 2026-27?
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Correct answer: B — 4.3%
The fiscal deficit in BE 2026-27 is estimated at 4.3% of GDP; RE 2025-26 is 4.4%.
According to the Union Budget 2026-27, what is the Centre's debt-to-GDP ratio estimated at in BE 2026-27?
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Correct answer: C — 55.6%
Debt-to-GDP is estimated at 55.6% in BE 2026-27, down from 56.1% in RE 2025-26.
What is the total expenditure estimated in the Union Budget 2026-27?
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Correct answer: D — ₹53.5 lakh crore
Total expenditure is estimated at ₹53.5 lakh crore in BE 2026-27; ₹49.6 lakh crore is the RE for 2025-26.
Consider the following about the Union Budget 2026-27: 1. The government says India is on track to bring the debt-to-GDP ratio to 50±1% by 2030-31. 2. The fiscal deficit for 2025-26 in the Revised Estimates was higher than the Budget Estimate of 4.4%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. RE 2025-26 kept the fiscal deficit at par with BE 2025-26, at 4.4% of GDP.
The Union Budget is constitutionally the 'annual financial statement' laid before both Houses of Parliament. Which Article of the Constitution provides for it?
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Correct answer: B — Article 112
Article 112 requires the President to cause a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure for each financial year — the annual financial statement — to be laid before both Houses.
Which country co-chaired the 2nd India-Arab Foreign Ministers' Meeting held in New Delhi on 31 January 2026 along with India?
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Correct answer: C — United Arab Emirates
The meeting was co-chaired by India and the UAE (MEA via DD News).
Where was the first India-Arab Foreign Ministers' Meeting held in 2016?
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Correct answer: A — Manama, Bahrain
MEA: the first India-Arab Foreign Ministers' Meeting was held in 2016 in Bahrain; the 2026 meeting came after a gap of 10 years.
What was the outcome document of the 2nd India-Arab Foreign Ministers' Meeting (January 2026) called?
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Correct answer: D — Delhi Declaration
The meeting adopted the Delhi Declaration (MEA, UAE MoFA, Indian Express); the Manama Declaration was from the first meeting in 2016.
Consider the following statements about the League of Arab States: 1. It has 22 member states. 2. India is a full member of the League. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
MEA: India is an Observer to the League of Arab States, a pan-Arab body with 22 member states.
According to the Economic Survey 2025-26, India's real GDP growth for FY26 (First Advance Estimate) is estimated at:
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Correct answer: C — 7.4%
PIB: The Survey estimates FY26 real GDP growth at 7.4% (GVA 7.3%).
What real GDP growth range does the Economic Survey 2025-26 project for FY27?
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Correct answer: B — 6.8–7.2%
PIB: Real GDP growth for FY27 is projected at 6.8–7.2%, with potential growth around 7%.
As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, the gross NPA ratio of scheduled commercial banks fell to a multi-decade low of:
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Correct answer: A — 2.2%
PIB: Gross NPAs reached a multi-decadal low of 2.2% in September 2025.
Consider the following statements based on the Economic Survey 2025-26: 1. The share of private final consumption expenditure in GDP rose to 61.5% in FY26. 2. Domestic inflation averaged 1.7% during April–December 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB: PFCE share in GDP rose to 61.5% in FY26 and domestic inflation averaged 1.7% for April–December 2025.
According to the Economic Survey 2025-26, India's foreign exchange reserves as of 16 January 2026 stood at about:
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Correct answer: B — USD 701.4 billion
PIB: Forex reserves rose to USD 701.4 billion as of 16 January 2026, covering 11 months of imports. (USD 825.3 billion = total exports in FY25.)
Under the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026, waste must be segregated at source into four streams. Which of the following is NOT one of these four streams?
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Correct answer: A — Construction and demolition waste
PIB: the four streams are wet waste, dry waste, sanitary waste and special care waste.
Consider the following statements about the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026: 1. They have been notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and supersede the SWM Rules, 2016. 2. An entity generating 100 kg or more of solid waste per day is a Bulk Waste Generator. 3. Environmental compensation will be levied by the Central Pollution Control Board directly. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB: notified under EP Act 1986, superseding 2016 rules; 100 kg/day is one Bulk Waste Generator threshold. CPCB prepares guidelines but SPCBs/PCCs levy the compensation, so statement 3 is wrong.
From which date will the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 come into full effect?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2026
PIB: the rules will come into full effect from April 1, 2026.
The conclusion of the India–EU Free Trade Agreement was announced on 27 January 2026 at which India–EU Summit?
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Correct answer: C — 16th
PIB (Commerce): announced at the 16th India–EU Summit.
Consider the following statements about the India–EU FTA concluded in January 2026: 1. Over 99% of Indian exports by trade value gain preferential access to the EU. 2. India has given the EU market access in the dairy sector. 3. Negotiations had been relaunched in 2022. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Commerce): 99%+ exports get preferential entry; negotiations relaunched in 2022; sensitive agriculture and dairy get no market access, so statement 2 is wrong.
According to the Commerce Ministry, India's bilateral trade in goods with the EU in 2024-25 was about:
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Correct answer: C — USD 136.54 billion
PIB (Commerce): goods trade USD 136.54 billion in 2024-25 (exports USD 75.85 bn, imports USD 60.68 bn).
What is the title of the overarching document adopted at the 16th India–EU Summit in January 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Towards 2030: A Joint India–EU Comprehensive Strategic Agenda
PIB (PMO, List of Outcomes): 'Towards 2030: A Joint India-European Union Comprehensive Strategic Agenda' is the overarching document.
Consider the following outcomes of the 16th India–EU Summit (27 January 2026): 1. A Security and Defence Partnership 2. Constitution of a Green Hydrogen Task Force 3. India's full membership of the Horizon Europe programme Which of the above were outcomes of the summit?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (List of Outcomes): Security and Defence Partnership and a Green Hydrogen Task Force were outcomes; on Horizon Europe only exploratory talks for an association agreement were launched.
Who were the Chief Guests of India's 77th Republic Day celebrations in 2026?
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Correct answer: D — António Costa and Ursula von der Leyen
PIB (President's Secretariat): European Council President António Costa and European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen were Chief Guests of the 77th Republic Day.
Who commanded the 77th Republic Day Parade at Kartavya Path on 26 January 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Lt Gen Bhavnish Kumar
PIB (Defence): the parade was commanded by Parade Commander Lt Gen Bhavnish Kumar, GOC Delhi Area; Maj Gen Navraj Dhillon was Second-in-Command.
What was showcased for the first time at the 77th Republic Day Parade (2026)?
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Correct answer: D — A phased Battle Array Format of the Indian Army including an aerial component
PIB (Defence): 'For the first time, the parade will showcase a phased Battle Array Format of the Indian Army, including the aerial component.'
Consider the following about the 77th Republic Day Parade: 1. The Indian Coast Guard contingent was all-women. 2. The animal contingent included Bactrian camels and black kites. 3. Its celebrations were themed around 150 years of 'Vande Mataram'. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Defence): all-women ICG contingent led by Asst Comdt Nishi Sharma; animal contingent with Bactrian camels, Zanskar ponies, black kites and dogs; parade blends 150 years of Vande Mataram.
Which organisation's contingent marched in India's Republic Day Parade for the first time in 2026, carrying four flags including those of EU Naval Force Atalanta and Aspides?
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Correct answer: D — European Union
PIB (Defence): the EU contingent carried the flags of the EU, EU Military Staff, EU Naval Force Atalanta and EU Naval Force Aspides; the President's Secretariat called it the first EU participation in Republic Day.
Who was awarded the Ashoka Chakra on the eve of Republic Day 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla
PIB (Defence): the lone Ashoka Chakra went to Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla of the IAF; the other three received the Kirti Chakra.
How many Kirti Chakras were approved on the eve of Republic Day 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Three
PIB: the 70 gallantry awards include one Ashoka Chakra, three Kirti Chakras and 13 Shaurya Chakras.
Lieutenant Commanders Dilna K and Roopa A of the Indian Navy were among the Republic Day 2026 recipients of which award?
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Correct answer: C — Shaurya Chakra
PIB (Defence): Lieutenant Commander Dilna K and Lieutenant Commander Roopa A (Navy) are listed under the Shaurya Chakra.
How many Padma Vibhushan awards were announced for 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 5
PIB (MHA): the 131 Padma Awards for 2026 comprise 5 Padma Vibhushan, 13 Padma Bhushan and 113 Padma Shri.
Which of the following received the Padma Vibhushan 2026 posthumously?
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Correct answer: A — V S Achuthanandan
PIB: V S Achuthanandan (Public Affairs, Kerala) and Dharmendra Singh Deol received Padma Vibhushan posthumously; Shibu Soren, Piyush Pandey and V K Malhotra received Padma Bhushan posthumously.
Consider the following about the Padma Awards 2026: 1. 19 of the awardees are women. 2. 16 awards are posthumous. 3. Cricketer Rohit Sharma received the Padma Bhushan. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: 19 awardees are women and 16 are posthumous. Rohit Sharma (Sports, Maharashtra) is in the Padma Shri list, not Padma Bhushan.
Which institution was selected for the Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar 2026 in the institutional category?
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Correct answer: D — Sikkim State Disaster Management Authority
PIB (MHA): the Sikkim State Disaster Management Authority (institutional) and Lt Col Seeta Ashok Shelke (individual) were selected for 2026.
Lt Col Seeta Ashok Shelke, winner of the Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar 2026, supervised construction of a 190-foot Bailey bridge at which place?
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Correct answer: A — Chooralmala, Wayanad
PIB (MHA): during the 2024 Wayanad floods and landslides, she supervised the swift construction of a 190-foot Bailey bridge at Chooralmala.
Consider the following about the Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar: 1. It is announced every year on 23 January. 2. 271 nominations were received for the 2026 award. 3. It is given only to individuals. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MHA): the award is announced every year on 23 January and 271 nominations were received for 2026; it has both institutional and individual categories.
Who released the Military Quantum Mission Policy Framework on 22 January 2026?
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Correct answer: A — CDS General Anil Chauhan
PIB (Defence): Chief of Defence Staff General Anil Chauhan released the framework on 22 January 2026.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four pillars of quantum technology in the Military Quantum Mission Policy Framework?
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Correct answer: D — Quantum Cryptocurrency
PIB (Defence): the four pillars are Quantum Communication, Quantum Computing, Quantum Sensing & Metrology, and Quantum Materials & Devices.
The Military Quantum Mission Policy Framework is aligned with which national programme?
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Correct answer: A — National Quantum Mission
PIB (Defence): the document aligns with the National Quantum Mission, of which the defence forces are an integral part.
The Draft National Electricity Policy 2026, once finalised, will replace the National Electricity Policy notified in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2005
PIB (Power): the draft will replace the existing NEP, which was notified in February 2005.
What per capita electricity consumption target for 2030 is set in the Draft National Electricity Policy 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 2,000 kWh
PIB (Power): the draft targets 2,000 kWh per capita by 2030 and over 4,000 kWh by 2047; consumption was 1,460 kWh in 2024-25.
Consider the following milestones cited in the Draft National Electricity Policy 2026: 1. A unified national grid became operational in December 2013. 2. Universal electrification was achieved by March 2021. 3. Per capita consumption crossed 2,000 kWh in 2024-25. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Power): the national grid became unified in December 2013 and universal electrification came by March 2021; per capita consumption in 2024-25 was 1,460 kWh, so statement 3 is wrong.
How much equity support to SIDBI did the Union Cabinet approve on 21 January 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ₹5,000 crore
PIB (Cabinet): the Cabinet approved equity support of ₹5,000 crore to SIDBI.
Consider the following statements about the SIDBI equity infusion approved in January 2026: 1. ₹3,000 crore will be infused in FY 2025-26. 2. The infusion will be made by the Department of Financial Services. 3. The number of MSMEs assisted is expected to reach 102 lakh by the end of FY 2028. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Cabinet): DFS will infuse ₹3,000 crore in FY 2025-26 and ₹1,000 crore each in the next two years; MSMEs assisted are expected to rise from 76.26 lakh to 102 lakh by end-FY 2028. All three are correct.
The SIDBI capital infusion is primarily meant to help the bank maintain a healthy level of which ratio as its risk-weighted assets grow?
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Correct answer: A — Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio
PIB (Cabinet): rising risk-weighted assets from directed credit, collateral-free digital products and venture debt require more capital to sustain a healthy CRAR.
Up to which financial year did the Cabinet approve the continuation of the Atal Pension Yojana in January 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 2030-31
PIB (Cabinet): APY will continue up to FY 2030-31.
As of 19 January 2026, roughly how many subscribers had enrolled in the Atal Pension Yojana?
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Correct answer: C — 8.66 crore
PIB (Cabinet): over 8.66 crore subscribers had enrolled as of 19 January 2026.
Consider the following statements about the Atal Pension Yojana: 1. It was launched on 9 May 2015. 2. It offers a guaranteed minimum pension of ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 per month starting at age 60. 3. It is meant mainly for organised-sector employees. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Cabinet): APY was launched on 9 May 2015 for workers in the unorganised sector, with a guaranteed minimum pension of ₹1,000–₹5,000 per month from age 60. Statement 3 is wrong.
During the UAE President's visit in January 2026, India and the UAE set what bilateral trade target for 2032?
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Correct answer: D — US$200 billion
PIB (PMO): bilateral trade reached US$100 billion in FY 2024-25, and the leaders decided to double it to US$200 billion by 2032.
Under the agreement signed during the UAE President's January 2026 visit, HPCL will buy LNG from ADNOC Gas on what terms?
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Correct answer: A — 0.5 MMTPA for 10 years from 2028
PIB (PMO, list of outcomes): the long-term agreement provides for purchase of 0.5 MMTPA LNG by HPCL from ADNOC Gas over 10 years starting 2028.
A Letter of Intent signed during the UAE President's January 2026 visit covers UAE partnership in developing which Special Investment Region?
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Correct answer: A — Dholera, Gujarat
PIB (PMO): the LoI between the Government of Gujarat and the UAE Ministry of Investment is for development of the Dholera Special Investment Region.
Consider the following statements about the UAE President's visit to India on 19 January 2026: 1. It was his fifth visit to India in the last ten years. 2. C-DAC and the UAE's G42 agreed in principle to set up a supercomputing cluster in India. 3. India and the UAE signed their Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement during this visit. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (PMO): it was his fifth visit in ten years, and C-DAC–G42 agreed in principle on a supercomputing cluster; the CEPA was signed in 2022, not during this visit.
Which Indian agency signed a Letter of Intent with the UAE Space Agency during the UAE President's January 2026 visit?
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Correct answer: D — IN-SPACe
PIB (PMO, list of outcomes): the LoI on space industry development and commercial collaboration was between IN-SPACe and the UAE Space Agency.