RPSC RAS Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The 7th meeting of the India–Saudi Arabia Joint Committee on Defence Cooperation was held on 28 August 2025 in:
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Correct answer: A — New Delhi
The 7th JCDC meeting took place in New Delhi on 28 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about India–Saudi Arabia defence ties (August 2025): 1. A Ministerial Committee on Defence Cooperation was added under the Strategic Partnership Council during the PM's visit to Saudi Arabia in April 2025. 2. At the 7th JCDC, Saudi Arabia offered to provide training to the Indian Armed Forces. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: it was India that offered to provide training to the Saudi Armed Forces.
As per MoSPI's quick estimate, India's Index of Industrial Production grew by how much in July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 3.5%
IIP grew 3.5% in July 2025; 5.4% was manufacturing growth and 1.5% was June's IIP growth.
Consider the following statements about the IIP release of 28 August 2025: 1. The mining sector contracted in July 2025. 2. Under the revised calendar, the IIP quick estimate is released on the 12th of every month. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: mining fell 7.2%. Statement 2 is wrong: the quick estimate is now released on the 28th of every month.
Under the draft amendments to the NDCT Rules, 2019 published on 28 August 2025, the statutory processing time for test licence applications is proposed to be reduced from 90 days to:
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Correct answer: D — 45 days
The draft reduces the overall statutory processing time for test licence applications from 90 days to 45 days.
In the context of drug regulation, 'BA/BE studies', addressed in the draft NDCT amendments of August 2025, stand for:
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Correct answer: B — Bioavailability / Bioequivalence studies
The draft amendments concern applications for Bioavailability/Bioequivalence (BA/BE) studies.
Consider the following statements about the draft amendments to the New Drugs and Clinical Trials Rules, 2019 (August 2025): 1. Test licences for all drugs, including high-risk categories, will be replaced by an intimation system. 2. The Ministry expects the number of licence applications to fall by about 50%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: a small category of high-risk drugs is excluded from the intimation system. Statement 2 is correct.
On 28 August 2025, the Centre extended the import duty exemption on cotton (HS 5201) till:
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Correct answer: C — 31 December 2025
The exemption, originally from 19 August to 30 September 2025, was extended till 31 December 2025.
The temporary import duty exemption on cotton, later extended in August 2025, had originally come into force on:
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Correct answer: D — 19 August 2025
The Centre had temporarily exempted cotton from import duty from 19 August 2025 till 30 September 2025.
On 28 August 2025, which institution became the first government institute in India to perform robotic custom laser cataract surgery with the ALLY system?
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Correct answer: C — Army Hospital (Research and Referral)
The Army Hospital (Research and Referral) became the first government institute in India and second in South Asia to do so.
INS Tamal, which made a port call at Jeddah in August 2025, is:
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Correct answer: A — The eighth Talwar-class stealth frigate
INS Tamal is the eighth ship of the Talwar-class stealth frigates; INS Surat is the latest indigenous guided-missile destroyer.
By DGFT Notification No. 28 of 28 August 2025, the export obligation period under Advance Authorisation for products under QCOs of the Department of Chemicals & Petrochemicals was extended from 6 months to:
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Correct answer: D — 18 months
The export obligation period was enhanced from 6 months to 18 months, matching the extension already given for Textiles Ministry QCOs.
Under the restructuring approved on 27 August 2025, the lending period of the PM SVANidhi scheme has been extended till:
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Correct answer: C — 31 March 2030
The Cabinet extended the lending period of PM SVANidhi until 31 March 2030.
Under the restructured PM SVANidhi scheme (August 2025), the first-tranche loan amount has been raised to up to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹15,000
First-tranche loans rise to ₹15,000 from ₹10,000; second-tranche loans rise to ₹25,000 from ₹20,000.
What is the total outlay of the restructured PM SVANidhi scheme approved by the Cabinet in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹7,332 crore
The total outlay is ₹7,332 crore; ₹13,797 crore is the amount of loans already disbursed as of 30 July 2025.
Consider the following statements about the restructured PM SVANidhi scheme (August 2025): 1. A UPI-linked RuPay Credit Card will be provided to beneficiaries who have repaid the second loan. 2. The third-tranche loan has been raised from ₹50,000 to ₹75,000. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the third tranche remains unchanged at ₹50,000.
The additional US ad valorem duty on products of India imposed by Executive Order 14329, which took effect on 27 August 2025, is:
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Correct answer: B — 25%
EO 14329 imposed an additional ad valorem duty of 25 percent on imports of articles of India, effective 12:01 a.m. EDT on 27 August 2025.
According to the US Federal Register notice, the additional duty on Indian goods under Executive Order 14329 was imposed because India was:
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Correct answer: D — Directly or indirectly importing Russian Federation oil
The notice says the duty was imposed on articles of India, 'which is directly or indirectly importing Russian Federation oil'.
Consider the following statements about the US duty on Indian goods effective 27 August 2025: 1. Executive Order 14329 was issued under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA). 2. The new duty replaces the additional duty on Indian goods under the reciprocal-tariff order EO 14257. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the CBP notice says the duty applies in addition to the duty under EO 14257.
Under the CBP Federal Register notice on the additional duty on Indian goods, articles already loaded and in transit before 12:01 a.m. EDT on 27 August 2025 are exempt if entered for consumption before:
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Correct answer: C — 17 September 2025
Heading 9903.01.85 exempts such in-transit goods if entered (or withdrawn from warehouse) for consumption before 12:01 a.m. EDT on 17 September 2025.
Multilateral Exercise Bright Star, in which over 700 Indian personnel were set to participate from 28 August 2025, is hosted by:
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Correct answer: A — Egypt, in conjunction with the US
Exercise Bright Star is hosted by Egypt in conjunction with the US since 1980.
Exercise Bright Star, one of the largest tri-service multilateral exercises in its region, is held:
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Correct answer: B — Biennially
The exercise is held biennially; the previous edition took place in 2023.
According to the Annual Survey of Industries 2023-24, which state ranked first in terms of employment?
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Correct answer: A — Tamil Nadu
Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka are the top five states by employment, in that order.
As per ASI 2023-24 results released on 27 August 2025, Gross Value Added in the sector grew in current prices by:
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Correct answer: B — 11.89%
GVA grew 11.89% in current prices; output grew more than 5.80% and employment 5.92%.
Consider the following statements about the Annual Survey of Industries 2023-24: 1. Gujarat ranked first among states in terms of employment. 2. The sector added about 57 lakh jobs during 2014-15 to 2023-24. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: Tamil Nadu ranked first and Gujarat second. Statement 2 is correct.
According to Union Minister Jitendra Singh (August 2025), India's bioeconomy was valued at about how much in 2024?
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Correct answer: D — $165.7 billion
India's bioeconomy grew from $10 billion in 2014 to $165.7 billion in 2024; $300 billion is the 2030 target.
India's first Biomanufacturing Institute, cited as an achievement in the first year of the BioE3 Policy, was inaugurated at:
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Correct answer: A — Mohali
The Minister highlighted the inauguration of India's first Biomanufacturing Institute at Mohali.
Glanders, the equine disease targeted by a Revised National Action Plan in August 2025, is caused by:
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Correct answer: B — Burkholderia mallei
Glanders is caused by the bacterium Burkholderia mallei and primarily affects horses, mules and donkeys.
In his call with PM Modi on 27 August 2025, Finland's President Alexander Stubb affirmed support for the success of which event to be hosted by India in 2026?
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Correct answer: D — AI Impact Summit
President Stubb affirmed support for the success of the AI Impact Summit to be hosted by India in 2026, and backed an early India–EU FTA.
According to UIDAI (August 2025), mandatory biometric updates are pending for approximately how many Aadhaar numbers?
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Correct answer: C — 17 crore
UIDAI says there are approximately 17 crore Aadhaar numbers with pending mandatory biometric updates.
According to the CMS: Education 2025 survey, government schools account for what share of total school enrolment in India?
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Correct answer: B — 55.9%
Government schools account for 55.9% of total enrolment (66.0% in rural areas); private unaided recognised schools account for 31.9%.
As per the CMS: Education 2025 survey, what proportion of students were taking or had taken private coaching during the current academic year?
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Correct answer: C — 27.0%
27.0% of all students were taking or had taken private coaching – 30.7% in urban and 25.5% in rural areas.
Consider the following statements about the CMS: Education 2025 survey: 1. Average household expenditure per student in government schools was ₹2,863. 2. Textbooks and stationery formed the largest component of household education expenditure per student. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: course fees (₹7,111) were the largest expense, followed by textbooks and stationery (₹2,002).
Under the revised wheat stock limits announced on 26 August 2025, the limit for traders/wholesalers has been reduced to:
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Correct answer: A — 2,000 MT
The limit for traders/wholesalers was cut from 3,000 MT to 2,000 MT, applicable until 31 March 2026.
Wheat stockists violating the revised stock limits (August 2025) face punitive action under which law?
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Correct answer: D — Essential Commodities Act, 1955
Violators are subject to punitive action under Sections 6 and 7 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
The two-day Vibrant Villages Programme workshop addressed by Amit Shah on 26 August 2025 was organised by:
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Correct answer: C — Border Management Division, MHA
The workshop was organised by the Border Management Division of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
At the VVP workshop (August 2025), Amit Shah said borders should be free from encroachment for at least what radius?
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Correct answer: B — 30 km
Amit Shah said borders should be free from encroachment for at least a 30 km radius.
What is the theme of Ayurveda Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Ayurveda for People & Planet
The 2025 theme announced by the Ministry of Ayush is 'Ayurveda for People & Planet'.
As recalled by the Ministry of Ayush in August 2025, which nationwide campaign was introduced by the Prime Minister on the 9th Ayurveda Day in 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Desh Ka Prakriti Parikshan Abhiyan
On the 9th Ayurveda Day (2024), the PM inaugurated Phase II of AIIA, New Delhi and introduced the nationwide 'Desh Ka Prakriti Parikshan Abhiyan'.
The Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare signed an MoU on 26 August 2025 with which body to strengthen services for over 63 lakh veterans?
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Correct answer: A — Quality Council of India
DESW signed the MoU with the Quality Council of India (QCI) in New Delhi on 26 August 2025.
The Prime Minister of which country, Sitiveni Ligamamada Rabuka, visited UIDAI headquarters in New Delhi on 26 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Fiji
Fiji's Prime Minister Sitiveni Ligamamada Rabuka visited UIDAI headquarters, where Aadhaar and DigiLocker were demonstrated.
Which meeting of the India–South Africa Joint Working Group on Agriculture was held virtually on 26 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5th
The 5th meeting of the India–South Africa JWG on Agriculture was held in virtual mode on 26 August 2025.
How many school teachers were selected by the Department of School Education & Literacy for the National Teachers' Awards 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 45
45 school teachers from 27 states, 7 UTs and 6 organisations were selected; 21 teachers were selected separately from HEIs and polytechnics.
Which Prime Minister of Fiji paid an Official Visit to India from 24 to 26 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Sitiveni Rabuka
Fiji's Prime Minister Sitiveni Rabuka paid an Official Visit to India from 24 to 26 August 2025, his first visit to India in his current capacity.
The India–Fiji Joint Statement issued on 25 August 2025 was titled 'Partnership in the spirit of ______'.
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Correct answer: A — Veilomani Dosti
The India–Fiji Joint Statement of 25 August 2025 was titled 'Partnership in the spirit of Veilomani Dosti'.
Consider the following statements about outcomes of Fiji PM Sitiveni Rabuka's visit to India (August 2025): 1. An MoU was signed for a 100-bedded Super Specialty Hospital in Suva, described as the largest project undertaken by India under its Grant-in-Aid Programme in the Pacific region. 2. Fiji joined the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The joint statement describes the 100-bedded Super Specialty Hospital in Suva as India's largest Grant-in-Aid project in the Pacific region, and the list of outcomes announces that Fiji joins the IPOI.
According to the India–Fiji Joint Statement (August 2025), the Girmitiyas — over 60,000 Indian indentured labourers — arrived in Fiji during which period?
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Correct answer: D — 1879 to 1916
The joint statement acknowledged the Girmitiyas, over 60,000 Indian indentured labourers who arrived in Fiji between 1879 and 1916.
With reference to India–Fiji relations as recalled in the August 2025 joint statement, consider the following statements: 1. President Droupadi Murmu's visit to Fiji in August 2024 was the first-ever visit by a President of India to Fiji. 2. The 12th World Hindi Conference was held in Suva in February 2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the joint statement calls President Droupadi Murmu's August 2024 visit the historic first-ever visit of an Indian President to Fiji. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 12th World Hindi Conference was held in Nadi, not Suva, in February 2023.
Under the Letter of Intent signed between India and the World Food Programme on 25 August 2025, India offers WFP the opportunity to supply which commodity?
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Correct answer: B — Fortified rice
Under the LoI, the Department of Food and Public Distribution offers WFP the opportunity to supply fortified rice from India for vulnerable populations in crisis zones.
Consider the following statements about the India–WFP Letter of Intent of 25 August 2025: 1. On the Indian side, the initiative is offered by the Department of Food and Public Distribution. 2. The LoI followed discussions at a February 2025 WFP Executive Board side event held in Geneva. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Department of Food and Public Distribution offers WFP the opportunity to supply fortified rice. Statement 2 is incorrect: the February 2025 Executive Board side event was held in Rome, not Geneva.
As of 21 August 2025, total gross enrolments under Atal Pension Yojana had crossed:
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Correct answer: A — 8.11 crore
PFRDA said total gross enrolments under Atal Pension Yojana crossed 8.11 crore as of 21 August 2025.
According to PFRDA, what share of total Atal Pension Yojana enrolments in FY 2024-25 were women?
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Correct answer: B — 55%
PFRDA said that in FY 2024-25, 55% of total APY enrolments were women, out of more than 1.17 crore new subscribers.
In August 2025, Government e Marketplace (GeM) crossed what milestone in cumulative Gross Merchandise Value since inception?
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Correct answer: D — ₹15 lakh crore
GeM crossed ₹15 lakh crore in cumulative Gross Merchandise Value since its inception in 2016.
Government e Marketplace (GeM), the online public procurement platform that crossed ₹15 lakh crore GMV in August 2025, was started in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2016
The Commerce Ministry stated that GeM crossed ₹15 lakh crore cumulative GMV since its inception in 2016.
Which body released India's first national 'Guidelines and SOPs for Blood Transfusion and Blood Banks for Animals in India' in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying
The Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD) under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying released the guidelines and SOPs.
Consider the following statements about the national Guidelines/SOPs for animal blood transfusion released in August 2025: 1. They make blood typing and cross-matching mandatory to prevent incompatibility reactions. 2. They lay out a roadmap for a National Veterinary Blood Bank Network (N-VBBN). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Key highlights include mandatory blood typing and cross-matching to prevent incompatibility reactions and a roadmap for a National Veterinary Blood Bank Network (N-VBBN) with digital registries, real-time inventories and an emergency helpline.
The Ministerial-level India–Japan Energy Dialogue of 25 August 2025 was co-chaired on the Japanese side by the Minister of which ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of Economy, Trade and Industry
The dialogue was co-chaired by Power Minister Manohar Lal and Mr Muto Yoji, Minister of Economy, Trade and Industry of Japan.
Under the performance MoU signed with MNRE on 25 August 2025, what Revenue from Operations target has been set for IREDA for FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — ₹8,200 crore
The Government set IREDA a Revenue from Operations target of ₹8,200 crore for FY 2025-26; in FY 2024-25 it achieved ₹6,743.32 crore against a ₹5,957 crore target.