MP TET (Varg 1/2/3) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
On which platform did the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation launch a new version of the SBM Academy in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — WhatsApp
PIB 2097805: DDWS launched the WhatsApp version of the SBM Academy at its meeting with 22 States and UTs.
What was the average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) in rural India in 2023-24, as per HCES 2023-24 (without imputation)?
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Correct answer: D — ₹4,122
PIB 2097601: average MPCE in 2023-24 was ₹4,122 (rural) and ₹6,996 (urban) without imputed values; with imputation ₹4,247 and ₹7,078.
Among major states, which state had the lowest urban–rural gap in average MPCE in 2023-24 according to HCES 2023-24?
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Correct answer: A — Kerala
PIB 2097601: the lowest urban–rural gap in 2023-24 was in Kerala (about 18%) and the highest in Jharkhand (around 83%).
Consider the following statements about HCES 2023-24: 1. The urban–rural gap in MPCE declined to 70% in 2023-24. 2. The Gini coefficient of consumption in rural areas declined to 0.237. 3. The Gini coefficient in urban areas rose compared to 2022-23. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097601: the urban–rural gap fell to 70% and rural Gini fell to 0.237; urban Gini also fell, from 0.314 to 0.284, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which Indian Navy sailboat crossed Point Nemo on 30 January 2025 during Navika Sagar Parikrama II?
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Correct answer: D — INSV Tarini
PIB 2098252: INSV Tarini, sailed by Lt Cdr Dilna K and Lt Cdr Roopa A, crossed Point Nemo at 0030 hrs IST on 30 January 2025.
Point Nemo, crossed by INSV Tarini in January 2025, is known as:
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Correct answer: A — The Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility
PIB 2098252: Point Nemo is the Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility, about 2,688 km from the nearest landmass.
Consider the following statements about Navika Sagar Parikrama II: 1. INSV Tarini was flagged off from Goa on 2 October 2024. 2. Point Nemo was crossed during the leg from Lyttelton to Port Stanley. 3. Water samples from Point Nemo are to be analysed by ISRO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2098252: the crew were flagged off from Goa on 2 October 2024 and crossed Point Nemo on the Lyttelton–Port Stanley leg; the samples will be analysed by the National Institute of Oceanography, not ISRO.
In how many Indian languages does the Sahitya Akademi give its main annual award, for which books were invited directly for the first time in 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 24
PIB 2097806: books in 24 Indian languages recognised by the Akademi were invited directly for the main award for 2025.
Books published in which period were eligible for the Sahitya Akademi Award 2025 under the new submission system?
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Correct answer: B — 2019 to 2023
PIB 2097806: books published between 1 January 2019 and 31 December 2023 could be sent by 28 February 2025.
Which State/UT's tableau was judged the best at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Uttar Pradesh
PIB 2097650: Uttar Pradesh's 'Mahakumbh 2025 – Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas' was first, Tripura second and Andhra Pradesh third; Gujarat topped the popular-choice poll.
Which contingent was judged the best marching contingent among the Services at Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jammu & Kashmir Rifles Contingent
PIB 2097650: the Jammu & Kashmir Rifles contingent was judged best among Services; the Signals contingent won the popular-choice poll.
Tripura's tableau, placed second at Republic Day Parade 2025, was based on which festival?
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Correct answer: A — Kharchi Puja
PIB 2097650: Tripura's tableau was 'Eternal Reverence: The worship of 14 Deities in Tripura – Kharchi Puja'.
About how many GPUs did the IndiaAI Mission's common computing facility have, as announced on 30 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 18,693
PIB 2097709: the IndiaAI Mission created a common computing facility of about 18,693 GPUs; computation begins with roughly 10,000 and the remaining 8,693 will be added.
After the government subsidy, what was the stated cost of AI compute per hour under the IndiaAI Mission?
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Correct answer: A — Less than ₹100 per hour
PIB 2097709: compute will cost less than ₹100 per hour after a 40% government subsidy, against 2.5–3 dollars per hour for global models.
Which launch vehicle carried out ISRO's 100th launch from Sriharikota on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — GSLV-F15
ISRO: GSLV-F15 lifted off from the Second Launch Pad on 29 January 2025, the 100th launch from Sriharikota.
The NVS-02 satellite launched on 29 January 2025 belongs to which Indian system?
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Correct answer: A — NavIC
ISRO: NVS-02 is a navigation satellite of the NavIC series, India's independent regional navigation satellite system.
Consider the following statements about the GSLV-F15/NVS-02 mission: 1. It lifted off from the Second Launch Pad at Sriharikota. 2. It was the 17th launch of GSLV. 3. NVS-02 was raised to its designated orbital slot within a week of launch. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: GSLV-F15 lifted off from the Second Launch Pad and was the 17th GSLV launch; orbit raising could not be carried out because the oxidiser valves did not open.
What is the total outlay of the National Critical Mineral Mission approved by the Union Cabinet on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹34,300 crore
PIB 2097308: ₹16,300 crore government expenditure plus ₹18,000 crore expected investment by PSUs etc. makes ₹34,300 crore over seven years.
Over what period will the National Critical Mineral Mission's ₹34,300 crore outlay be spread?
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Correct answer: C — Seven years
PIB 2097308: the outlay of ₹34,300 crore is over seven years.
Consider the following statements about the National Critical Mineral Mission: 1. It was announced in the Union Budget 2024-25. 2. It proposes a national stockpile of critical minerals. 3. It excludes offshore exploration of critical minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097308: the mission was announced in the Budget on 23 July 2024 and proposes a stockpile; it will intensify exploration within the country and in its offshore areas.
What guarantee coverage does the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs, approved in January 2025, provide to lenders?
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Correct answer: B — 60%
PIB 2097455: NCGTC provides 60% guarantee coverage to member lending institutions for credit up to ₹100 crore.
Consider the following statements about MCGS-MSME: 1. Loans up to ₹100 crore are eligible for guarantee cover. 2. Equipment or machinery must be at least 75% of the project cost. 3. The guarantee is provided by SIDBI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097455: loans up to ₹100 crore are covered and equipment must be at least 75% of project cost; the guarantee is given by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC), not SIDBI.
According to ASUSE 2023-24, which state had the highest number of unincorporated sector establishments?
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Correct answer: C — Uttar Pradesh
PIB 2097316: Uttar Pradesh had the highest number of establishments, followed by West Bengal and Maharashtra.
By how much did the number of establishments in the unincorporated sector grow in ASUSE 2023-24 over 2022-23?
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Correct answer: B — 12.84%
PIB 2097316: establishments grew 12.84% (6.50 crore to 7.34 crore); workers grew 10.01% and GVA 16.52%.
Which state topped Gross Value Added in the unincorporated sector as per ASUSE 2023-24?
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Correct answer: C — Maharashtra
PIB 2097316: the top three states in GVA were Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat.
How much did the High-Level Committee chaired by the Union Home Minister approve for disaster mitigation on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹3,027.86 crore
PIB 2097448: the HLC approved ₹3,027.86 crore in total for drought, lightning and forest fire mitigation projects.
The forest fire risk management scheme approved on 29 January 2025 covers how many high-priority districts?
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Correct answer: C — 144
PIB 2097448: the forest fire scheme covers 144 high-priority districts in 19 states at ₹818.92 crore.
From which fund are the drought and lightning mitigation projects approved by the High-Level Committee in January 2025 to be financed?
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Correct answer: A — National Disaster Mitigation Fund
PIB 2097448: the HLC considered the lightning and drought proposals for funding from the National Disaster Mitigation Fund (NDMF).
What administered ex-mill price was fixed on 29 January 2025 for ethanol from C-heavy molasses for ESY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — ₹57.97 per litre
PIB 2097305: the price was fixed at ₹57.97 per litre, up from ₹56.58 per litre.
The Ethanol Supply Year (ESY) used under the Ethanol Blended Petrol Programme runs from:
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Correct answer: B — 1 November to 31 October
PIB 2097305: ESY is defined as the period from 1 November of a year to 31 October of the following year.
Consider the following statements about ethanol blending in India: 1. Average blending by public sector OMCs reached 14.60% in ESY 2023-24. 2. The 20% blending target has been advanced to ESY 2025-26. 3. OMCs plan to achieve 20% blending in ESY 2024-25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097305: blending averaged 14.60% in ESY 2023-24 and the 20% target was advanced to ESY 2025-26; OMCs plan 18%, not 20%, in ESY 2024-25.
The Occupational Shortage Index launched by the Labour Ministry on 29 January 2025 is based on which data source?
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Correct answer: D — Quarterly Periodic Labour Force Survey data
PIB 2097431: the OSI is based on ILO methodology and quarterly PLFS data.
How many registrations did the 8th edition of Pariksha Pe Charcha (2025) receive?
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Correct answer: B — 3.56 crore
PIB 2096983: PPC 2025 received 3.56 crore registrations; the 7th edition had 2.26 crore.
In which year did Pariksha Pe Charcha begin?
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Correct answer: B — 2018
PIB 2096983: since its beginning in 2018, PPC has grown into a nationwide movement.
Pariksha Pe Charcha 2025's nationwide 'Jan Andolan' activities began on 12 January 2025, which is observed as:
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Correct answer: D — National Youth Day
PIB 2096983: the activities were conducted from 12 January 2025 (National Youth Day).
AgriHub, an AI-driven Centre of Excellence for agriculture inaugurated on 27 January 2025, is located at which institute?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Indore
PIB 2097808: IIT Indore inaugurated AgriHub on 27 January 2025.
Which Union ministry supported AgriHub, whose Secretary was the chief guest at its launch?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
PIB 2097808: AgriHub was launched by MeitY with IIT Indore; MeitY Secretary S. Krishnan was the chief guest.
Consider the following about AgriHub: 1. It was developed in collaboration with ICAR-CIAE Bhopal and C-DAC Pune. 2. The Madhya Pradesh government is a collaborating partner. 3. It aims to become self-sustaining over ten years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097808: partners are the MP government, ICAR-IISR Indore, ICAR-CIAE Bhopal and C-DAC Pune; the self-sustaining ecosystem is planned over five years, not ten.
What minimum efficiency does the Solar QCO 2025 set for poly-crystalline silicon PV modules?
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Correct answer: C — 17%
PIB 2097219: 17% for poly-crystalline silicon modules and 18% for mono-crystalline silicon and thin-film modules.
Under which law was the Solar Systems, Devices, and Components Goods Order, 2025 notified?
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Correct answer: C — Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016
PIB 2097219: the order was notified in the Gazette dated 27.01.2025 under the BIS Act, 2016.
Consider the following statements about the Solar QCO 2025: 1. It covers solar PV modules, inverters and storage batteries. 2. It comes into effect 180 days from the date of publication. 3. Products meant exclusively for export are also covered. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097219: the order covers modules, inverters and storage batteries and takes effect after 180 days; products exclusively for export are exempted.
Where did India and Oman sign the protocol amending their Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement on 27 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Muscat
Oman Ministry of Foreign Affairs (27 January 2025): the protocol was signed in Muscat.
Which session of the India-Oman Joint Commission Meeting did Piyush Goyal co-chair during his January 2025 visit to Oman?
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Correct answer: C — 11th
PIB 2097043: Goyal co-chaired the 11th Session of the India-Oman JCM with Qais bin Mohammed Al Yousef.
What was the theme of the first-ever tri-services tableau at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Shashakt aur Surakshit Bharat
PIB 2096097: the tri-services tableau's theme was 'Shashakt aur Surakshit Bharat'; 'Raksha Kavach' was DRDO's and 'Viksit Bharat ki Ore Sadaiv Agrasar' the veterans' tableau.
Which naval destroyer was featured on the tri-services tableau at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: D — INS Visakhapatnam
PIB 2096097: the tableau displayed the Arjun MBT, Tejas MKII, ALH, destroyer INS Visakhapatnam and a remotely piloted aircraft.
For which category did 'Jayati Jai Mamah Bharatam' at the Republic Day Parade 2025 receive a Guinness World Record?
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Correct answer: D — The Largest Indian Folk Variety Dance
PIB 2096534: it was recognised by Guinness World Records for 'The Largest Indian Folk Variety Dance'.
Along with the Ministry of Culture, which body presented 'Jayati Jai Mamah Bharatam' at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Sangeet Natak Akademi
PIB 2096534: the performance was by the Ministry of Culture and Sangeet Natak Akademi.
Which helpline number for children was showcased on the WCD Ministry's Republic Day 2025 tableau?
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Correct answer: C — 1098
PIB 2096419: the tableau showcased Women Helpline (181) and Child Helpline (1098).
Which of the following schemes was showcased on the WCD Ministry's Republic Day 2025 tableau?
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Correct answer: A — Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana
PIB 2096419: schemes shown included One Stop Centre, Women Helpline, Child Helpline and Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana.
How many Padma Vibhushan awards were announced for 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 7
PIB 2096285 (MHA): the list comprises 7 Padma Vibhushan, 19 Padma Bhushan and 113 Padma Shri awards.
What was the total number of Padma Awards approved for 2025, counting the duo case as one?
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Correct answer: C — 139
PIB 2096285: the President approved 139 Padma Awards including 1 duo case, counted as one.
Consider the following statements about the Padma Awards 2025: 1. 19 Padma Bhushan awards were announced. 2. 23 of the awardees are women. 3. 10 awards were conferred posthumously. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096285: there are 19 Padma Bhushan awards and 23 women awardees; 13 awards are posthumous, while 10 is the count of Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI awardees.
Which Japanese industrialist was named for the Padma Vibhushan (posthumous) in Trade and Industry in 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Osamu Suzuki
PIB 2096285: Osamu Suzuki (Posthumous), Trade and Industry, Japan, is among the 7 Padma Vibhushan awardees.
Match the Padma Awards 2025 recipients with their award category: 1. Sharda Sinha – Padma Vibhushan (posthumous) 2. P R Sreejesh – Padma Bhushan 3. Arijit Singh – Padma Bhushan Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096285: Sharda Sinha received the Padma Vibhushan (posthumous) and P R Sreejesh the Padma Bhushan (sports); Arijit Singh is in the Padma Shri list.
Which Indonesian President was the chief guest at India's first Republic Day in 1950, as recalled during Prabowo Subianto's 2025 visit?
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Correct answer: A — Sukarno
PIB 2096322: President Murmu noted that 75 years ago, at the first Republic Day in 1950, President Sukarno of Indonesia was the chief guest.
Consider the following outcomes of the Indonesian President's State Visit to India in January 2025: 1. An MoU on traditional medicine quality assurance with the Indonesian Food and Drug Authority. 2. A Cultural Exchange Programme for 2025-28. 3. An MoU on space cooperation between ISRO and Indonesia's space agency. Which of the above were listed among the outcomes?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096278: outcomes included the traditional medicine MoU (PCIM&H–Indonesian FDA), MoUs on health and digital development and a 2025-28 cultural exchange programme; no space MoU was listed.
Which edition of the India-Indonesia CEOs Forum presented its joint report during the January 2025 State Visit?
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Correct answer: C — 3rd
PIB 2096278: the co-chairs of the 3rd India-Indonesia CEOs Forum presented their joint report.
How many Kirti Chakras were approved on the eve of Republic Day 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 2
PIB 2096200: two Kirti Chakras (one posthumous) and 14 Shaurya Chakras were approved.
Consider the following statements about the Republic Day 2025 gallantry awards: 1. Gallantry awards were approved for 93 personnel, including 12 posthumous. 2. 14 Shaurya Chakras were approved. 3. 305 defence decorations included 50 Param Vishisht Seva Medals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096200: 93 gallantry awards (12 posthumous) and 14 Shaurya Chakras were approved; the 305 defence decorations included 30 PVSMs, not 50.
Who among the following received the Kirti Chakra posthumously on the eve of Republic Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Naik Dilwar Khan
PIB 2096200: Kirti Chakras went to Major Manjit (22 RR) and Naik Dilwar Khan (28 RR, posthumous); Captain Deepak Singh received the Shaurya Chakra (posthumous).
How many Medals for Gallantry were awarded to police and fire personnel on Republic Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 95
PIB 2096015: 95 Medals for Gallantry (78 police, 17 fire service), 101 PSM and 746 MSM were awarded.
What was the total number of Police, Fire, Home Guard & Civil Defence and Correctional Services personnel awarded medals on Republic Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 942
PIB 2096015: a total of 942 personnel were awarded Gallantry and Service Medals.
How many Sarvottam Jeevan Raksha Padaks were approved in the Jeevan Raksha Padak Series of Awards-2024?
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Correct answer: D — 17
PIB 2096171: 17 Sarvottam, 9 Uttam and 23 Jeevan Raksha Padaks were approved for 49 persons.
How many of the Jeevan Raksha Padak Series of Awards-2024 awardees were honoured posthumously?
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Correct answer: B — 6
PIB 2096171: six of the 49 awardees are posthumous.
Which organisation received the Best Electoral Practices Award 2024-25 as the best government department for voter education and electoral participation?
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Correct answer: D — Indian Railways
PIB 2096251: President Murmu conferred the award on Indian Railways; Railway Board Chairman & CEO Satish Kumar received it.
Doordarshan won the ECI media award for voter awareness in which category?
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Correct answer: C — Electronic Media (TV)
PIB 2096231: Doordarshan was honoured in the Electronic Media (TV) category for its voter awareness campaign.
Which state topped NITI Aayog's inaugural Fiscal Health Index 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Odisha
PIB 2095974: Odisha topped with a score of 67.8, followed by Chhattisgarh (55.2) and Goa (53.6).
Who launched NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025 on 24 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Arvind Panagariya
PIB 2095974: 16th Finance Commission Chairman Arvind Panagariya launched the inaugural FHI 2025.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five sub-indices of NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Ease of Doing Business
PIB 2095974: the sub-indices are Quality of Expenditure, Revenue Mobilisation, Fiscal Prudence, Debt Index and Debt Sustainability.
Which state ranked second in NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chhattisgarh
PIB 2095974: Odisha (67.8) was followed by Chhattisgarh (55.2) and Goa (53.6).
Which two Indian cities became the first to receive Wetland City Accreditation under the Ramsar Convention in January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Indore and Udaipur
TOI: Indore and Udaipur were accredited; Bhopal was nominated but not accredited.
Consider the following statements about Wetland City Accreditation in January 2025: 1. Indore and Udaipur were among 31 newly accredited cities. 2. Bhopal, also nominated by India, was accredited in the same round. 3. Accreditation requires meeting six international criteria. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
TOI: Indore and Udaipur were among 31 new cities and accreditation needs all six international criteria; Bhopal was nominated but not accredited.
The latest round of Wetland City Accreditation announced in January 2025, which included Indore and Udaipur, took the global list of accredited Wetland Cities to how many cities?
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Correct answer: C — 74
TOI: the independent Advisory Committee on Wetland City Accreditation accredited 31 new cities, taking the global list to 74. (85 is the number of Ramsar sites in India.)
'SANJAY', flagged off on 24 January 2025, is what kind of system?
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Correct answer: D — Battlefield surveillance system
PIB 2095712: SANJAY is the Battlefield Surveillance System that fuses sensor inputs into a Common Surveillance Picture.
Consider the following statements about SANJAY: 1. It was jointly developed by the Indian Army and Bharat Electronics Limited. 2. It was developed at a cost of ₹2,402 crore under the Buy (Indian) category. 3. Its induction is to be completed in a single phase in March 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2095712: SANJAY was developed by the Army and BEL at ₹2,402 crore under Buy (Indian); induction is in three phases from March to October 2025.
What was the year-on-year inflation rate based on CPI-AL for December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 5.01%
PIB 2095463: CPI-AL inflation was 5.01% in December 2024, against 5.35% in November 2024 and 7.71% in December 2023.
What is the base year of the CPI for Agricultural Labourers and Rural Labourers?
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Correct answer: B — 1986-87 = 100
PIB 2095463: CPI-AL and CPI-RL have base 1986-87 = 100.
Consider the following about CPI-AL and CPI-RL for December 2024: 1. Both indices were unchanged from November 2024. 2. CPI-RL stood at 1331 points. 3. CPI-RL inflation was higher than in December 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2095463: CPI-AL (1320) and CPI-RL (1331) were unchanged; CPI-RL inflation fell to 5.05% from 7.46% in December 2023.