MP Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Which Article of the Constitution entrusts Panchayats with preparing plans for economic development and social justice, the basis of the People's Plan Campaign?
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Correct answer: D — Article 243G
PIB (MoPR): Article 243G recognises Panchayats as institutions of local self-government and entrusts them with the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice; PDPs cover the 29 subjects of the Eleventh Schedule.
Consider the following statements about the People's Plan Campaign (PPC): 1. Panchayat Development Plans cover the 29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution. 2. PPC 2025–26, launched on 2 October 2025, prepares Panchayat Development Plans for the financial year 2025–26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (MoPR): PDPs cover the 29 subjects of the Eleventh Schedule. PPC 2025–26 was launched on 2 October 2025 to prepare PDPs for the financial year 2026–27, not 2025–26.
Exercise Konkan, which began on 5 October 2025, is a bilateral exercise between the Indian Navy and which navy?
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Correct answer: C — Royal Navy (United Kingdom)
PIB (Indian Navy): Exercise KONKAN-25 is a bilateral exercise between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy of the UK, held off India's western coast from 5 to 12 October 2025.
Consider the following statements about Exercise Konkan 2025: 1. It was conducted off the eastern coast of India in the Bay of Bengal. 2. The Indian side was represented by the carrier battle group of INS Vikrant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: the exercise was held off the western coast of India (western seaboard), and the Indian side was represented by the carrier battle group of the indigenous aircraft carrier INS Vikrant; the UK CSG 25 was led by HMS Prince of Wales.
Consider the following statements about the ₹1,500 crore Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme: 1. Its eligible feedstock includes e-waste, spent lithium-ion batteries and other scrap. 2. Its incentives are meant for units engaged only in black mass production. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (Ministry of Mines): eligible feedstock is e-waste, spent LiBs and other scrap. Incentives are for the value chain engaged in actual extraction of critical minerals, not the value chain involved only in black mass production.
Applications under the Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme, opened on 2 October 2025, can be made up to which date?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2026
PIB: the scheme is open for applications from 2 October 2025 for six months, i.e. up to 1 April 2026.
According to the government explainer of October 2025, what was India's unemployment rate in 2023–24?
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Correct answer: D — 3.2%
PIB explainer: the unemployment rate fell sharply from 6.0% in 2017–18 to 3.2% in 2023–24.
Consider the following statements based on the government's October 2025 employment explainer: 1. EPFO added fewer than 1 crore net subscribers in 2024–25. 2. The share of self-employment fell from 58.4% in 2017–18 to 52.2% in 2023–24. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: EPFO added over 1.29 crore net subscribers in 2024–25 (up from 61.12 lakh in 2018–19). Self-employment rose (not fell) from 52.2% in 2017–18 to 58.4% in 2023–24, while casual labour fell from 24.9% to 19.8%.
Before UIDAI's October 2025 waiver, what fee was charged per Mandatory Biometric Update (MBU) for a child outside the free age windows?
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Correct answer: C — ₹125
PIB (MeitY/UIDAI): the first and second MBUs were free if done at ages 5–7 and 15–17; thereafter a prescribed fee of ₹125 per MBU was charged. The waiver makes MBU effectively free for all children aged 5–17.
Consider the following statements about Aadhaar for children: 1. Fingerprints and iris biometrics are not captured for Aadhaar enrolment of children below five years of age. 2. UIDAI's waiver of MBU charges, effective 1 October 2025, will remain in force for two years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: fingerprints and iris are not captured below age five because they are not mature. The MBU charge waiver took effect on 1 October 2025 and is in force for one year, not two.
Under the amended National Highways fee rules notified in October 2025, a vehicle without a valid FASTag that pays via UPI will be charged how much of the applicable user fee?
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Correct answer: C — 1.25 times
PIB (MoRTH): non-FASTag users paying in cash will be charged twice the applicable fee, while those paying via UPI will be charged only 1.25 times (e.g. ₹100 → ₹125 by UPI, ₹200 in cash).
From which date did the National Highways Fee (Determination of Rates and Collection) (Third Amendment) Rules, 2025 come into effect?
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Correct answer: D — 15 November 2025
PIB (MoRTH): the National Highways Fee (Determination of Rates and Collection) (Third Amendment) Rules, 2025 come into effect from 15 November 2025.
During his visit to Singapore for 'India-Singapore @60' in October 2025, Piyush Goyal met which President of Singapore at the Istana?
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Correct answer: C — Tharman Shanmugaratnam
PIB (Ministry of Commerce): a highlight of the three-day visit was a meeting with H.E. Tharman Shanmugaratnam, President of the Republic of Singapore, at the Istana.
Consider the following statements about the 'India-Singapore @60' business session of 4 October 2025: 1. It marked the 60th anniversary of diplomatic relations and was co-organised by FICCI, CII and ASSOCHAM. 2. Singapore was represented at the session by its Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the session marked the 60th anniversary of India–Singapore diplomatic relations and was co-organised by FICCI, CII and ASSOCHAM. Singapore was represented by Ms Gan Siow Huang, Minister of State, Ministry of Trade & Industry — not the Prime Minister.
According to MoSPI, the free foodgrain distribution scheme launched on 1 January 2023 covers what share of the population?
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Correct answer: B — 75% rural and 50% urban
PIB (MoSPI): the free food grain distribution scheme launched by the Government of India from 1 January 2023 covers 75% of the rural and 50% of the urban population.
Which body released the Discussion Paper 2.0 on 'The Treatment of Free PDS Items in CPI Compilation' in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
PIB: the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), which is conducting the CPI base revision, released Discussion Paper 2.0 and invited comments.
What period of authorisation has TRAI recommended for digital radio broadcasting by private broadcasters (October 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 15 years
PIB (TRAI): the period of authorisation for digital radio broadcasting should be 15 years.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's October 2025 recommendations on digital radio: 1. New broadcasters should start digital radio in simulcast mode, allowing one analog, three digital and one data channel on the assigned frequency. 2. Frequencies for new channels should be assigned by auction under Section 4(4) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (TRAI): digital radio should commence in simulcast mode (one analog, three digital and one data channel on the assigned spot frequency), and frequencies for new channels should be assigned by auction in accordance with Section 4(4) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
TRAI has recommended an authorisation fee of what share of Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR) for digital radio in 'A+' and 'A' category cities?
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Correct answer: A — 4%
PIB (TRAI): authorisation fee is 4% of AGR for cities of category 'A+', 'A', 'B', 'C' and 'D'; for 'Others' (border/hilly areas of NE, J&K, Ladakh and island territories) and 'E' category, 2% of AGR for the first 3 years.
What penalty did the CCPA impose on Drishti IAS in October 2025 for misleading UPSC CSE 2022 results advertisements?
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Correct answer: C — ₹5 lakh
PIB (Department of Consumer Affairs): CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹5 lakh on Drishti IAS (VDK Eduventures Pvt. Ltd.) for misleading ads claiming '216+ selections in UPSC CSE 2022'.
Under which section of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is 'misleading advertisement' defined, as cited by the CCPA in the Drishti IAS case?
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Correct answer: B — Section 2(28)
PIB: concealing the courses taken by successful candidates was held to be a misleading advertisement under Section 2(28) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019; Section 2(9) (consumer rights) was cited for the right to make an informed choice.
The first paper in NITI Aayog's Tax Policy Working Paper Series–I (October 2025) deals with which issue?
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Correct answer: C — Permanent Establishment and profit attribution for foreign investors
PIB (NITI Aayog): the first working paper is titled 'Enhancing Tax Certainty in Permanent Establishment and Profit Attribution for Foreign Investors in India'.
NITI Aayog's October 2025 working paper on Permanent Establishment recommends introducing which of the following for foreign companies?
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Correct answer: D — An optional, industry-specific Presumptive Taxation Scheme
PIB (NITI Aayog): the paper recommends an optional, industry-specific Presumptive Taxation Scheme for foreign companies, with legislative clarity, administrative efficiency and robust dispute resolution; it was prepared under NITI's Consultative Group on Tax Policy.
The Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan, under which Tribal Village Vision 2030 declarations were passed, was formally inaugurated by the PM on 17 September 2025 at which place?
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Correct answer: B — Dhar
PIB (Ministry of Tribal Affairs): the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan was formally inaugurated by the Prime Minister on 17 September 2025 at Dhar, Madhya Pradesh.
The Government has declared which period as 'Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh'?
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Correct answer: D — 15 November 2024 to 15 November 2025
PIB (Ministry of Tribal Affairs): the Government of India has declared 15 November 2024 to 15 November 2025 as Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh; the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan was launched as part of it.
Consider the following statements about the Tribal Village Vision 2030 initiative: 1. The declarations were passed by tribal villages and tolas in Special Gram Sabhas on 2 October 2025. 2. Under 'Adi Sewa Samay', villagers contribute one hour per week of voluntary service at Adi Sewa Kendras. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: tribal villages and tolas passed the Tribal Village Vision 2030 Declaration in Special Gram Sabhas on 2 October 2025; Adi Sewa Kendras serve as single-window centres, with villagers contributing 1 hour per week of voluntary service (Adi Sewa Samay).
The Swasth Nari Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan (17 September–2 October 2025) was jointly led by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and which other ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Women and Child Development
PIB (MoHFW): the Abhiyaan was jointly led by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and the Ministry of Women & Child Development.
Consider the following statements about the Swasth Nari Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan: 1. Over 18 lakh health camps were held under it. 2. It registered a footfall of nearly 10 crore citizens. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (MoHFW): by 2 October 2025, over 18 lakh (18,08,071) health camps were held, registering a footfall of nearly 10 crore (9,85,63,619) citizens and benefiting more than 6.5 crore women.
How many applications did the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS) receive by the close of its window in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 249
ECMS received 249 applications with proposed investment of ₹1,15,351 crore.
What is the financial outlay of the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme approved by the Union Cabinet in March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹22,919 crore
The Union Cabinet approved ECMS on 28 March 2025 with an outlay of ₹22,919 crore; ₹59,350 crore was the investment target.
By what multiple did projected production under ECMS exceed its target, as announced in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 2.2 times
Projected production of about ₹10,34,700 crore is 2.2 times the ₹4,56,000 crore target.
Consider the following statements about the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS): 1. The scheme is projected to create about 1,42,000 direct jobs, above its target of 91,600. 2. The application window opened on 1 May 2025 and was extended till 30 September 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the MeitY release of 2 October 2025.
Which Union Minister launched the NIELIT Digital University platform on 2 October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Ashwini Vaishnaw
Ashwini Vaishnaw, Minister of Electronics and IT, launched the NIELIT Digital University platform in New Delhi.
Which of the following was NOT among the five new NIELIT centres inaugurated on 2 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Shillong
The five new centres are at Muzaffarpur, Balasore, Tirupati, Lunglei and Daman; Shillong was not among them.
Consider the following statements about the NIELIT Digital University launched in October 2025: 1. It will offer industry-focused programmes in fields such as AI, cybersecurity, data science and semiconductors. 2. At the launch, NIELIT exchanged MoUs with Microsoft and Zscaler, among others. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the MeitY release.
Which birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi was observed on 2 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 156th
The Vice-President paid tribute to Mahatma Gandhi at Raj Ghat on his 156th birth anniversary on 2 October 2025.
According to Union Home Minister Amit Shah on Gandhi Jayanti 2025, sales of Khadi and village industry products have risen to over how much in 11 years?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1.7 lakh crore
Amit Shah said sales rose about fivefold, from ₹33,000 crore to over ₹1.7 lakh crore.
Consider the following statements about Gandhi Jayanti observances on 2 October 2025: 1. The Vice-President attended a Sarva Dharma Prarthana at Raj Ghat. 2. While paying tribute, the Vice-President recalled Gandhiji's idea of Antyodaya. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: C. P. Radhakrishnan attended the Sarva Dharma Prarthana at Raj Ghat and recalled Gandhiji's emphasis on Antyodaya.
Who founded the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS), which completed 100 years in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Dr Keshav Baliram Hedgewar
The RSS was founded by Dr Keshav Baliram Hedgewar in 1925.
Which motto did the Vice-President cite while greeting the RSS on its centenary in October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Seva Parmo Dharmah
C. P. Radhakrishnan said RSS volunteers are guided by the motto 'Seva Parmo Dharmah'.
The Swachhata Hi Seva 2025 campaign culminated on which day?
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Correct answer: C — Swachh Bharat Diwas (2 October)
SHS 2025 ran from 17 September to 2 October 2025 and culminated on Swachh Bharat Diwas.
Consider the following statements about the Swachhata Hi Seva 2025 campaign: 1. It was organised jointly by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation. 2. By 1 October 2025, over 16 crore citizens had participated in it. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the Jal Shakti Ministry release.
What is the financial outlay of the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses approved in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹11,440 crore
The six-year Mission has an outlay of ₹11,440 crore.
What pulses production target does the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses set for 2030-31?
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Correct answer: D — 350 lakh tonnes
The Mission aims to raise pulses production to 350 lakh tonnes by 2030-31.
Consider the following statements about the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses: 1. It provides for 100% procurement of tur, urad and masoor from farmers at MSP during the next four years. 2. The Mission runs from 2024-25 to 2028-29. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Mission runs for six years, from 2025-26 to 2030-31.
What is the MSP of wheat for Rabi Marketing Season 2026-27, approved in October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2,585 per quintal
Wheat MSP was raised by ₹160 to ₹2,585 per quintal.
Which Rabi crop received the highest absolute increase in MSP for marketing season 2026-27?
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Correct answer: A — Safflower
Safflower got the highest increase of ₹600 per quintal, followed by lentil at ₹300.
For Rabi Marketing Season 2026-27, which crop has the highest margin of MSP over its cost of production?
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Correct answer: B — Wheat
Wheat has the highest margin at 109%, followed by rapeseed and mustard (93%) and lentil (89%).
Consider the following statements about Rabi MSPs for marketing season 2026-27: 1. The MSP of lentil (masur) has been fixed at ₹7,000 per quintal. 2. The MSP of barley has been raised by ₹170 per quintal. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: lentil MSP is ₹7,000 and barley MSP rose by ₹170 to ₹2,150.
After the hike approved on 1 October 2025, what is the Dearness Allowance rate for Central Government employees?
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Correct answer: C — 58%
The 3% increase takes DA from 55% to 58% of basic pay.
From which date is the DA/DR increase approved by the Cabinet on 1 October 2025 effective?
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Correct answer: B — 1 July 2025
The additional instalment of DA and DR is effective from 1 July 2025.
Consider the following statements about the DA hike approved in October 2025: 1. It will benefit about 68.72 lakh Central Government employees. 2. The increase follows a formula based on the recommendations of the 8th Central Pay Commission. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: 68.72 lakh is the number of pensioners (employees are 49.19 lakh), and the formula is based on the 7th Central Pay Commission.
At what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee keep the policy repo rate on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 5.50%
The MPC unanimously kept the repo rate unchanged at 5.50%.
In its October 2025 policy, what real GDP growth did the RBI project for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 6.8%
The RBI raised its 2025-26 real GDP growth projection to 6.8% from 6.5%.
After the RBI's October 2025 policy, what is the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate?
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Correct answer: D — 5.25%
With the repo rate at 5.50%, the SDF rate remains at 5.25% and the MSF rate and Bank Rate at 5.75%.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's monetary policy of 1 October 2025: 1. The MPC cut the repo rate by 25 basis points. 2. The CPI inflation projection for 2025-26 was lowered to 2.6%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the repo rate was kept unchanged at 5.50%. Statement 2 is correct: the inflation projection was cut to 2.6% from 3.1%.
What investment objective is included in the India–EFTA TEPA, which came into force on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — USD 100 billion over 15 years
TEPA includes an investment objective of USD 100 billion over 15 years and one million direct jobs in India.
Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)?
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Correct answer: C — Denmark
EFTA comprises Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein; Denmark is an EU member.
Consider the following statements about the India–EFTA TEPA: 1. Austria is one of the four EFTA countries party to the agreement. 2. The agreement entered into force on 1 January 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the four EFTA countries are Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein, and TEPA entered into force on 1 October 2025.
What did Prime Minister Narendra Modi release at the RSS centenary celebrations on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — A commemorative postage stamp and coin
The PM released a specially designed commemorative postage stamp and coin.
The commemorative stamp released at the RSS centenary in October 2025 recalls RSS volunteers marching in the Republic Day parade of which year?
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Correct answer: D — 1963
The PM said the stamp recalls RSS volunteers proudly marching in the 1963 Republic Day parade.
How much additional tax devolution did the Union Government release to States on 1 October 2025 as an advance instalment?
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Correct answer: C — ₹1,01,603 crore
The Centre released ₹1,01,603 crore on 1 October 2025, in addition to the regular instalment due on 10 October.
Which State received the largest share of the advance tax devolution released on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh received the largest share at ₹18,227 crore.
Under which legal provision did FIU-IND issue notices to offshore Virtual Digital Asset service providers in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Section 13 of the PMLA, 2002
The notices were issued under Section 13 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
How many offshore Virtual Digital Asset service providers received non-compliance notices from FIU-IND, as announced on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 25
FIU-IND issued notices to 25 offshore VDA service providers.
How many new Kendriya Vidyalayas did the Cabinet approve on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 57
The CCEA approved 57 new KVs in the civil sector.
Kendriya Vidyalayas function abroad in three cities. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: C — Dubai
The three KVs abroad are in Moscow, Kathmandu and Tehran.
Consider the following statements about Kendriya Vidyalayas: 1. The Government approved the scheme of Kendriya Vidyalayas in 1972. 2. The 57 KVs approved in October 2025 are the first to be sanctioned with Balvatikas. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the KV scheme was approved in November 1962. Statement 2 is correct.
The Biomedical Research Career Programme (BRCP), whose Phase III was approved in October 2025, is run by the Department of Biotechnology in partnership with which organisation?
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Correct answer: D — Wellcome Trust, UK
BRCP is a DBT–Wellcome Trust (UK) partnership implemented through the India Alliance SPV.
Consider the following statements about Phase III of the Biomedical Research Career Programme: 1. Its total cost is ₹1,500 crore, of which the Department of Biotechnology contributes ₹1,000 crore. 2. The programme was first launched in 2018-19. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: BRCP was launched in 2008-09; Phase II began in 2018-19.
On which date is NPS Diwas observed every year?
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Correct answer: D — 1 October
NPS Diwas is observed annually on 1 October.
At NPS Diwas 2025, PFRDA exchanged an MoU with which institution to reach farmers through Farmer Producer Organisations?
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Correct answer: B — NABARD
PFRDA exchanged an MoU with NABARD to strengthen outreach to the agriculture and rural sectors through FPOs.
On 30 September 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi welcomed whose comprehensive plan to end the Gaza conflict?
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Correct answer: B — US President Donald Trump
Modi welcomed US President Donald Trump's announcement of a comprehensive plan to end the Gaza conflict.
Consider the following statements about India's response to the US plan on Gaza (September 2025): 1. PM Modi said the plan provides a viable pathway to long-term peace for the Palestinian and Israeli people. 2. PM Modi said the plan could also bring peace, security and development to the larger West Asian region. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the PMO statement of 30 September 2025.