MBA Entrance (XAT, CMAT, MAT) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Environment Audit Rules, 2025 were notified by the Union Environment Ministry on:
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Correct answer: D — 29 August 2025
MoEFCC notified the Environment Audit Rules, 2025 on 29 August 2025.
Under the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, which body certifies and registers environment auditors?
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Correct answer: C — Environment Audit Designated Agency
Auditors are certified and registered by the Environment Audit Designated Agency (EADA) notified by MoEFCC.
Under the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, an individual can become a Certified Environment Auditor through:
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Correct answer: B — Recognition of Prior Learning or the National Certification Examination
Certification is through Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) or the National Certification Examination (NCE).
Consider the following statements about the Environment Audit Rules, 2025: 1. Registered Environment Auditors will be assigned to project entities by a random assignment method. 2. The rules replace State Pollution Control Boards as the authority for monitoring environmental compliance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the rules aim to bridge manpower and infrastructure gaps of CPCB, the Ministry's regional offices and State PCBs; The Hindu describes auditors as supplementing the work of State PCBs.
At the 15th India–Japan Annual Summit (29 August 2025), what new target was set for private investment from Japan to India over the next decade?
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Correct answer: D — JPY 10 trillion
The Joint Vision sets a new target of JPY 10 trillion of private investment, building on the 2022–2026 target of JPY 5 trillion of public and private investment and financing.
The Action Plan for India–Japan Human Resource Exchange adopted in August 2025 aims at a two-way exchange of how many people in five years?
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Correct answer: D — 5,00,000
The plan targets two-way exchange of 500,000 people, including 50,000 skilled and semi-skilled personnel from India to Japan, in the next five years.
An Implementing Arrangement signed between ISRO and JAXA at the 15th Annual Summit concerns which mission?
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Correct answer: D — Chandrayaan-5 (joint lunar polar exploration)
The ISRO–JAXA Implementing Arrangement concerns the Joint Lunar Polar Exploration Mission, i.e. the Chandrayaan-5 mission.
Consider the following statements about the India–Japan Joint Declaration on Security Cooperation (August 2025): 1. It envisages enhanced maritime domain awareness through the Information Fusion Centre – Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR). 2. It provides for exploring a new meeting framework on comprehensive dialogue between the Joint Staffs of the two sides. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The Declaration lists cooperation through IFC-IOR and the Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness, and exploring a new Joint Staffs dialogue framework, among other measures.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of PM Modi's visit to Japan (29 August 2025): 1. A Memorandum of Cooperation on the Joint Crediting Mechanism was signed to diffuse decarbonising technologies. 2. The Joint Vision for the Next Decade lays out five lines of effort. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Joint Vision lays out eight lines of effort (economic partnership, economic security, mobility, ecological sustainability, technology and innovation, health, people-to-people and state-prefecture engagement).
According to UDISE+ 2024-25, which milestone was reached for the first time since UDISE+ began?
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Correct answer: B — Number of teachers crossed 1 crore
For the first time, the total number of teachers crossed 1 crore (1,01,22,420) in 2024-25.
As per UDISE+ 2024-25, the dropout rate at the Secondary stage was:
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Correct answer: C — 8.2%
The Secondary dropout rate fell from 10.9% in 2023-24 to 8.2% in 2024-25; 3.5% is the Middle-stage rate.
The Pupil-Teacher Ratio at the Secondary level reported in UDISE+ 2024-25 is:
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Correct answer: A — 21
PTRs are 10 (Foundational), 13 (Preparatory), 17 (Middle) and 21 (Secondary), all better than the NEP norm of 30:1.
Consider the following statements about UDISE+ 2024-25: 1. The number of teachers rose by about 6.7% compared with 2022-23. 2. The retention rate at the Secondary level is above 75%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Secondary-level retention rose from 45.6% to 47.2%.
The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, which completed 11 years in August 2025, was launched on:
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Correct answer: B — 28 August 2014
PMJDY was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 28 August 2014.
As per the Finance Ministry (August 2025), how many Jan Dhan accounts have been opened in 11 years?
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Correct answer: C — More than 56 crore
More than 56 crore Jan Dhan accounts have been opened, with deposits of ₹2.68 lakh crore.
What share of PMJDY accounts belong to women, according to the Finance Minister in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 56%
56% of PMJDY accounts are opened by women; 67% are in rural or semi-urban areas.
Consider the following statements about PMJDY as of August 2025: 1. More than 38 crore free RuPay cards have been issued to account holders. 2. Under a saturation campaign, camps are being held in each of the 2.7 lakh gram panchayats. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Finance Ministry release of 28 August 2025.
As per the Finance Ministry, how much was credited to bank accounts under various DBT schemes during FY 2024-25 through the JAM trinity?
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Correct answer: A — ₹6.9 lakh crore
₹6.9 lakh crore was credited under DBT schemes in FY 2024-25; ₹2.68 lakh crore is the total PMJDY deposit balance.
Under the restructuring approved on 27 August 2025, the lending period of the PM SVANidhi scheme has been extended till:
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Correct answer: C — 31 March 2030
The Cabinet extended the lending period of PM SVANidhi until 31 March 2030.
Under the restructured PM SVANidhi scheme (August 2025), the first-tranche loan amount has been raised to up to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹15,000
First-tranche loans rise to ₹15,000 from ₹10,000; second-tranche loans rise to ₹25,000 from ₹20,000.
What is the total outlay of the restructured PM SVANidhi scheme approved by the Cabinet in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹7,332 crore
The total outlay is ₹7,332 crore; ₹13,797 crore is the amount of loans already disbursed as of 30 July 2025.
Consider the following statements about the restructured PM SVANidhi scheme (August 2025): 1. A UPI-linked RuPay Credit Card will be provided to beneficiaries who have repaid the second loan. 2. The third-tranche loan has been raised from ₹50,000 to ₹75,000. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the third tranche remains unchanged at ₹50,000.
The additional US ad valorem duty on products of India imposed by Executive Order 14329, which took effect on 27 August 2025, is:
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Correct answer: B — 25%
EO 14329 imposed an additional ad valorem duty of 25 percent on imports of articles of India, effective 12:01 a.m. EDT on 27 August 2025.
According to the US Federal Register notice, the additional duty on Indian goods under Executive Order 14329 was imposed because India was:
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Correct answer: D — Directly or indirectly importing Russian Federation oil
The notice says the duty was imposed on articles of India, 'which is directly or indirectly importing Russian Federation oil'.
Consider the following statements about the US duty on Indian goods effective 27 August 2025: 1. Executive Order 14329 was issued under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA). 2. The new duty replaces the additional duty on Indian goods under the reciprocal-tariff order EO 14257. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the CBP notice says the duty applies in addition to the duty under EO 14257.
Under the CBP Federal Register notice on the additional duty on Indian goods, articles already loaded and in transit before 12:01 a.m. EDT on 27 August 2025 are exempt if entered for consumption before:
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Correct answer: C — 17 September 2025
Heading 9903.01.85 exempts such in-transit goods if entered (or withdrawn from warehouse) for consumption before 12:01 a.m. EDT on 17 September 2025.
Which Prime Minister of Fiji paid an Official Visit to India from 24 to 26 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Sitiveni Rabuka
Fiji's Prime Minister Sitiveni Rabuka paid an Official Visit to India from 24 to 26 August 2025, his first visit to India in his current capacity.
The India–Fiji Joint Statement issued on 25 August 2025 was titled 'Partnership in the spirit of ______'.
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Correct answer: A — Veilomani Dosti
The India–Fiji Joint Statement of 25 August 2025 was titled 'Partnership in the spirit of Veilomani Dosti'.
Consider the following statements about outcomes of Fiji PM Sitiveni Rabuka's visit to India (August 2025): 1. An MoU was signed for a 100-bedded Super Specialty Hospital in Suva, described as the largest project undertaken by India under its Grant-in-Aid Programme in the Pacific region. 2. Fiji joined the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The joint statement describes the 100-bedded Super Specialty Hospital in Suva as India's largest Grant-in-Aid project in the Pacific region, and the list of outcomes announces that Fiji joins the IPOI.
According to the India–Fiji Joint Statement (August 2025), the Girmitiyas — over 60,000 Indian indentured labourers — arrived in Fiji during which period?
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Correct answer: D — 1879 to 1916
The joint statement acknowledged the Girmitiyas, over 60,000 Indian indentured labourers who arrived in Fiji between 1879 and 1916.
With reference to India–Fiji relations as recalled in the August 2025 joint statement, consider the following statements: 1. President Droupadi Murmu's visit to Fiji in August 2024 was the first-ever visit by a President of India to Fiji. 2. The 12th World Hindi Conference was held in Suva in February 2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the joint statement calls President Droupadi Murmu's August 2024 visit the historic first-ever visit of an Indian President to Fiji. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 12th World Hindi Conference was held in Nadi, not Suva, in February 2023.
With effect from which date did the Department of Posts temporarily suspend booking of most postal articles to the USA, as announced on 23 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 25 August 2025
The Department of Posts decided to temporarily suspend booking of all types of postal articles destined for the USA with effect from 25 August 2025, except letters/documents and gifts up to USD 100.
Under US Executive Order No. 14324, the duty-free de minimis exemption was to be withdrawn from 29 August 2025 for goods valued up to:
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Correct answer: D — USD 800
Under Executive Order No. 14324 of 30 July 2025, the duty-free de minimis exemption for goods valued up to USD 800 was to be withdrawn with effect from 29 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about India Post's suspension of postal bookings to the USA (August 2025): 1. Letters/documents and gift items up to USD 100 in value were exempted from the suspension. 2. The suspension followed US-bound air carriers expressing inability to accept postal consignments after 25 August 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Letters/documents and gifts up to USD 100 continued to be accepted, and US-bound air carriers had expressed inability to accept postal consignments after 25 August, citing lack of operational and technical readiness.
The US Executive Order of 30 July 2025 cited by India's Department of Posts for withdrawing the de minimis exemption is numbered:
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Correct answer: B — 14324
The Department of Posts took note of Executive Order No. 14324 issued by the US Administration on 30 July 2025, which withdraws the de minimis exemption from 29 August 2025.
What was the theme of National Space Day 2025, as stated by PM Narendra Modi?
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Correct answer: C — From Aryabhata to Gaganyaan
PM Modi said this year's theme, 'From Aryabhata to Gaganyaan', reflects both the confidence of India's past and the resolve for its future.
Where was the main National Space Day 2025 programme, addressed by Dr Jitendra Singh, held?
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Correct answer: B — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
Dr Jitendra Singh addressed the National Space Day programme at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
On National Space Day 2025, Dr Jitendra Singh said an Indian will announce 'Viksit Bharat 2047' from the surface of the Moon in which year?
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Correct answer: D — 2040
Dr Jitendra Singh said an Indian will announce 'Viksit Bharat 2047' from the surface of the Moon in 2040.
With reference to National Space Day 2025, consider the following statements: 1. India was hosting the International Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics, with nearly 300 participants from over 60 countries. 2. The second edition of the Bharatiya Antariksh Hackathon drew participation from over 61,000 students. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. PM Modi noted that India was hosting the IOAA with nearly 300 young participants from over sixty countries, and the second edition of the Bharatiya Antariksh Hackathon drew over 61,000 students in 8,744 teams.
As per the timeline outlined by Dr Jitendra Singh on National Space Day 2025, consider the following statements: 1. India will attempt its first human spaceflight under the Gaganyaan mission in 2027. 2. The proposed Bharat Antariksh Station is to be established by 2040. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: India will attempt its first human spaceflight under Gaganyaan in 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect: the proposed Bharat Antariksh Station is to be established by 2035; 2040 is the year mentioned for an Indian on the Moon.
Under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Bill, 2025, offering or facilitating online money games can attract what maximum punishment for a first offence?
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Correct answer: B — Up to 3 years and ₹1 crore
Offering or facilitating online money games can lead to imprisonment of up to three years and a fine of up to ₹1 crore; repeat offenders face up to five years and ₹2 crore.
After receiving Presidential assent on 22 August 2025, the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act was published as which Act number of 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Act No. 32
The Gazette notification states that the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025 received assent on 22 August 2025 and is No. 32 of 2025.
Which ministry will prepare guidelines and standards for e-sports tournaments under the online gaming law passed in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
E-sports are recognised as a legitimate competitive sport, and the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports will prepare guidelines and standards for tournaments.
Consider the following statements about the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Bill, 2025: 1. The ban on online money games applies to games of skill as well as games of chance. 2. Advertising online money games can attract imprisonment of up to two years and a fine of up to ₹50 lakh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the complete ban covers games of chance, games of skill and those combining both, and advertising such games can attract a jail term of up to two years and a fine of up to ₹50 lakh.
Consider the following statements about the online gaming law of 2025: 1. The Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha on 20 August 2025 and by the Rajya Sabha on 21 August 2025. 2. Offences under its key provisions are cognisable but bailable. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill on 20 August and the Rajya Sabha on 21 August 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: offences under key provisions are cognisable and non-bailable.
Under the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025, removal of a Minister is linked to arrest and detention in custody for more than how many days?
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Correct answer: B — 30 days
The Bills seek removal of the PM, CMs or Ministers facing serious charges who are arrested and detained in custody for more than 30 days; removal is to take place on the 31st day.
The Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 applies to charges punishable with imprisonment for a term of at least how long?
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Correct answer: D — 5 years or more
The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs states the Bills cover serious criminal charges punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 5 years or more.
What is the composition of the Joint Committee to which the Lok Sabha referred the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 and two related Bills?
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Correct answer: A — 21 Lok Sabha and 10 Rajya Sabha members
The motion moved by Amit Shah referred the three Bills to a Joint Committee of 21 Lok Sabha members nominated by the Speaker and 10 Rajya Sabha members nominated by the Deputy Chairman.
Consider the following statements about the Bills introduced in the Lok Sabha on 20 August 2025: 1. The Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 was introduced by Union Home Minister Amit Shah. 2. It was introduced along with the Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Bill, 2025 and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: Amit Shah introduced the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 in the Lok Sabha on 20 August 2025, together with the Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Bill and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill.
Consider the following statements about the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025: 1. The Prime Minister is kept outside the scope of the removal provision. 2. The Joint Committee examining it is to report by the last day of the first week of the next session. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Bills cover the Prime Minister as well as Union Ministers and Chief Ministers and Ministers of States and UTs. Statement 2 is correct: the motion requires the Joint Committee to report by the last day of the first week of the next session.
Where did India and the Eurasian Economic Union sign the Terms of Reference to launch FTA negotiations on 20 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Moscow
The Terms of Reference to launch negotiations on a Free Trade Agreement were signed in Moscow on 20 August 2025.
What was the India–EAEU trade turnover in 2024, as noted when the FTA Terms of Reference were signed?
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Correct answer: D — USD 69 billion
Both sides noted India–EAEU trade turnover of USD 69 billion in 2024, a 7 per cent increase over 2023.
Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the Eurasian Economic Union, with which India signed FTA Terms of Reference in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Uzbekistan
The EAEU comprises Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, the Kyrgyz Republic and the Russian Federation; Uzbekistan is not listed among its members.
Consider the following statements about the India–EAEU FTA Terms of Reference signed in August 2025: 1. It was signed on India's behalf by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal. 2. India and the EAEU have a combined GDP of USD 6.5 trillion. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the ToR was signed by Ajay Bhadoo, Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce. Statement 2 is correct: the release cites a combined GDP of USD 6.5 trillion.
Who co-chaired the 24th round of India–China Special Representatives talks with Chinese Foreign Minister Wang Yi in New Delhi on 19 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Ajit Doval
National Security Adviser Ajit Doval co-chaired the 24th meeting of the Special Representatives with Wang Yi during his visit to New Delhi.
At the 24th Special Representatives talks, India and China agreed to set up an Expert Group to explore an 'early harvest' in boundary delimitation under which framework?
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Correct answer: A — Working Mechanism for Consultation and Coordination on India-China Border Affairs (WMCC)
The MEA statement, as reported, said the two sides agreed to set up an Expert Group under the WMCC to explore early harvest in boundary delimitation.
The India–China Special Representatives talks held in New Delhi on 19 August 2025 were which round of the mechanism?
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Correct answer: C — 24th
PIB and the MEA statement describe the 19 August 2025 meeting co-chaired by Ajit Doval and Wang Yi as the 24th meeting of the Special Representatives.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of the 24th India–China Special Representatives talks: 1. The two sides agreed to create General-level mechanisms in the eastern and middle sectors, in addition to the existing one in the western sector. 2. They agreed to seek a settlement framework in line with the 2005 Agreement on Political Parameters and Guiding Principles. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the MEA statement, as reported, refers to new General-level mechanisms in the eastern and middle sectors alongside the existing western-sector mechanism, and to a fair, reasonable and mutually acceptable framework in line with the 2005 Agreement on Political Parameters and Guiding Principles.
Consider the following statements about the mechanisms agreed at the 24th India–China Special Representatives talks: 1. The Working Group under the WMCC was set up to explore an early harvest in boundary delimitation. 2. The WMCC, under which the new groups were set up, was created in 2012. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: early harvest in boundary delimitation is the task of the Expert Group, while the Working Group is to advance effective border management. Statement 2 is correct: the WMCC was created in 2012.
How many provisions does the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 propose to decriminalise to foster Ease of Doing Business?
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Correct answer: B — 288
Of the 355 provisions proposed to be amended, 288 are to be decriminalised to foster Ease of Doing Business and 67 amended to facilitate Ease of Living.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 covers how many Central Acts?
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Correct answer: D — 16
The 2025 Bill covers 16 Central Acts administered by 10 Ministries/Departments; the 2023 Act had covered 42 Central Acts.
Under the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025, the 67 amendments meant to facilitate Ease of Living are proposed under which Acts?
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Correct answer: B — NDMC Act, 1994 and Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
The Bill proposes 67 amendments under the New Delhi Municipal Council Act, 1994 (NDMC Act) and the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 to facilitate Ease of Living.
Consider the following statements about the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025: 1. First-time contraventions in 76 offences under 10 Acts are to attract an advisory or warning. 2. The Minister requested that the Bill be referred to a Select Committee, which is to report by the first day of the next Session. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the Bill provides an advisory or warning for first-time contraventions in 76 offences under 10 Acts, and Piyush Goyal requested the Speaker to refer it to a Select Committee that is to report by the first day of the next Session.
Consider the following statements about the Jan Vishwas legislation: 1. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts. 2. The 2025 Bill covers Acts administered by 19 Ministries/Departments. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the 2023 Act, notified on 11 August 2023, decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts administered by 19 Ministries/Departments. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 2025 Bill covers 16 Central Acts administered by 10 Ministries/Departments.
In his talks with Wang Yi on 18 August 2025, S. Jaishankar said India–China ties must be guided by the 'three mutuals'. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: D — Mutual trust
Jaishankar listed the three mutuals as mutual respect, mutual sensitivity and mutual interest; mutual trust was not one of them.
India and China agreed during Wang Yi's August 2025 visit to reopen border trade through three designated points. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: B — Bum La
The reported outcomes named Lipulekh, Shipki La and Nathu La as the three designated points for reopening border trade; Bum La was not among them.
S. Jaishankar described Wang Yi's August 2025 visit as the first by a Chinese Minister since the two countries' leaders met at which place?
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Correct answer: A — Kazan, October 2024
In his opening remarks, Jaishankar said this was the first visit by a Chinese Minister since the leaders met in Kazan in October 2024.
Consider the following statements about the Jaishankar–Wang Yi talks and the outcomes of Wang Yi's visit in August 2025: 1. Jaishankar said differences must not become disputes, nor competition conflict. 2. The two sides agreed to resume direct flights from 1 September 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: it is part of Jaishankar's opening remarks. Statement 2 is incorrect: the sides agreed to resume direct flights at the earliest and finalise an updated Air Services Agreement, but no date was given for resumption.
By which year did the Prime Minister say important strategic and civilian places would get complete security cover under Mission Sudarshan Chakra?
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Correct answer: B — 2035
The Prime Minister said that in the coming 10 years, by 2035, all important places of the nation, strategic as well as civilian, would be given complete security cover through new platforms of technology.
The name of Mission Sudarshan Chakra, announced on 15 August 2025, draws inspiration from which figure?
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Correct answer: D — Lord Shri Krishna
The Prime Minister said the country had chosen the path of the Sudarshan Chakra taking inspiration from Lord Shri Krishna.
Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra: 1. Its security cover is limited to military installations and excludes civilian sites. 2. The Prime Minister described it as a powerful weapon system that will neutralise enemy attacks and also hit back at the enemy. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Prime Minister said the cover would include strategic as well as civilian areas such as hospitals, railways and centres of faith. Statement 2 is correct: he described the mission as a powerful weapon system that will not only neutralise the enemy's attack but also hit back many times more.
Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra as described in the 2025 Independence Day address: 1. The mission aims to develop a system for targeted precise action. 2. The mission is to be completed over 25 years, by the centenary of Independence in 2047. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Prime Minister said the country would move towards developing a system for targeted precise action through Sudarshan Chakra. Statement 2 is incorrect: the timeline stated was the coming 10 years, till 2035.
To what level did S&P Global Ratings upgrade India's long-term sovereign credit rating on 14 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — BBB
S&P upgraded India's long-term sovereign credit rating to 'BBB' from 'BBB-', with a Stable outlook.
The S&P upgrade of India's sovereign rating in August 2025 was its first upgrade of India in how many years?
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Correct answer: A — 18
The Ministry of Finance said this was India's first sovereign upgrade by S&P in 18 years, the previous one being in 2007.
Consider the following statements about S&P's rating action on India in August 2025: 1. S&P assigned a Positive outlook along with the upgrade. 2. India's short-term rating was lowered from 'A-2' to 'A-3'. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is correct. The upgrade came with a Stable outlook, and the short-term rating was raised to 'A-2' from 'A-3'.
Consider the following statements about S&P's assessment of India in August 2025: 1. S&P's previous upgrade of India, in 2007, had elevated India to investment grade at 'BBB-'. 2. S&P projected India's GDP growth at 6.5% in FY26. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The previous upgrade in 2007 took India to investment grade at 'BBB-', and S&P projected GDP growth of 6.5% in FY26.
How many Kirti Chakras were approved by the President on the eve of Independence Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 4
The President approved 4 Kirti Chakras among the 127 Gallantry awards on the eve of Independence Day 2025.
How many Gallantry awards in total did the President approve for Armed Forces and CAPF personnel on the eve of Independence Day 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 127
The President approved 127 Gallantry awards and 40 Distinguished Service awards on the eve of Independence Day 2025.
Consider the following statements about the defence awards approved on the eve of Independence Day 2025: 1. Vir Chakra awardees included Group Captains of the Indian Air Force. 2. The largest share of the 290 Mention-in-Despatches went to the Indian Army. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Group Captains Ranjeet Singh Sidhu, Manish Arora, Animesh Patni and Kunal Kalra of the IAF were among the Vir Chakra awardees. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Indian Air Force received 167 of the 290 Mention-in-Despatches, against 115 for the Army.
Lieutenant Shashank Tiwari of 1 Sikkim Scouts was approved for which award on the eve of Independence Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Kirti Chakra
Lieutenant Shashank Tiwari of The Army Service Corps, 1 Sikkim Scouts, was one of the four Kirti Chakra awardees.
What was India's year-on-year CPI headline inflation for July 2025 (provisional), as released on 12 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1.55%
MoSPI data showed headline CPI inflation of 1.55% (provisional) for July 2025, 55 basis points lower than June 2025.
The July 2025 headline CPI inflation was the lowest year-on-year inflation since which month?
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Correct answer: C — June 2017
The 1.55% headline inflation for July 2025 was the lowest year-on-year inflation since June 2017; January 2019 is the reference point for food inflation.
Consider the following statements about India's CPI data for July 2025: 1. Food inflation measured by the CFPI was negative. 2. Rural inflation was higher than urban inflation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: CFPI-based food inflation was -1.76%, the lowest since January 2019. Statement 2 is incorrect: rural inflation was 1.18%, lower than urban inflation of 2.05%.
What is the base year of the Consumer Price Index series used for the July 2025 inflation data?
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Correct answer: D — 2012
The CPI numbers for rural, urban and combined released for July 2025 are on base 2012=100.
What was the combined outlay of the four semiconductor projects approved by the Union Cabinet on 12 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — About ₹4,600 crore
The Cabinet approved four semiconductor projects with a cumulative investment of about ₹4,600 crore, expected to create 2,034 skilled jobs.
India's first commercial compound fab for silicon carbide devices, approved in August 2025, will come up in which state?
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Correct answer: C — Odisha
SiCSem will set up India's first commercial compound fab for silicon carbide devices at Info Valley, Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
Consider the following statements about the semiconductor approvals of 12 August 2025: 1. With these approvals, the number of projects approved under the India Semiconductor Mission rose to 10. 2. The CDIL unit approved on this date is located in Andhra Pradesh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: approved ISM projects reached 10, with cumulative investment of about ₹1.60 lakh crore across six states. Statement 2 is incorrect: the CDIL unit is located in Punjab; the ASIP unit is in Andhra Pradesh.
SiCSem's silicon carbide fab approved in August 2025 is to be set up in collaboration with Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd. of which country?
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Correct answer: A — United Kingdom
SiCSem is setting up the compound semiconductor fab in collaboration with Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd., UK.
Under the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025 passed by Parliament in August 2025, which body grants recognition to sports bodies?
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Correct answer: C — National Sports Board
The bill sets up a National Sports Board to grant recognition to sports bodies; the National Sports Tribunal is a separate institution created by the bill.
Consider the following statements about the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025: 1. Executive committees of sports bodies can have up to 15 members, including at least four women. 2. The Lok Sabha passed the bill before the Rajya Sabha did. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The bill provides for executive committees of up to 15 members with at least two outstanding sportspersons and four women, and the Lok Sabha passed it on 11 August before the Rajya Sabha approved it on 12 August 2025.
The National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed alongside the sports governance bill reinforces the autonomy of which body?
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Correct answer: A — National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA)
The anti-doping amendment reinforces the autonomy of the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA), as required by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).
Which of the following is NOT among the bodies provided for in the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Sports Ombudsman Council
The bill provides for a National Olympic Committee, a National Paralympic Committee, national and regional federations, a National Sports Board and a National Sports Tribunal; it does not create a 'National Sports Ombudsman Council'.
Who headed the Select Committee whose recommendations were incorporated in the Income-Tax (No. 2) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Baijayant Panda
The revised Income-Tax Bill incorporated most of the recommendations of the Select Committee headed by Baijayant Panda.
The Income-Tax (No. 2) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha in August 2025 seeks to replace which law?
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Correct answer: B — Income-Tax Act, 1961
The revised Income-Tax Bill aims to replace the six-decade-old Income-Tax Act, 1961.
Consider the following statements about the tax bills passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025: 1. Both bills were passed by voice vote without debate. 2. The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 extends tax exemptions to subscribers of the Old Pension Scheme. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: both bills were passed by voice vote without any debate amid Opposition protests. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill extends tax exemptions to subscribers of the Unified Pension Scheme.
The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025 provides tax exemptions to subscribers of which scheme?
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Correct answer: D — Unified Pension Scheme
The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 aims to provide tax exemptions to subscribers of the Unified Pension Scheme and also changes block assessment for income tax search cases.
What was India's annual defence production in FY 2024-25, as announced by the Raksha Mantri on 9 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,50,590 crore
Annual defence production reached an all-time high of ₹1,50,590 crore in FY 2024-25.
By how much did India's defence production grow in FY 2024-25 over FY 2023-24?
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Correct answer: D — 18%
Production rose 18% over the ₹1.27 lakh crore recorded in FY 2023-24.
Consider the following statements about India's defence production in FY 2024-25: 1. The private sector's share of total production rose from 21% in FY 2023-24 to 23%. 2. Production by DPSUs grew faster than production by the private sector. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the private sector's share rose from 21% to 23%. Statement 2 is incorrect: DPSU production grew 16% while private-sector production grew 28%.
Consider the following statements about India's defence exports and production: 1. Defence exports reached a record ₹23,622 crore in FY 2024-25. 2. Defence production in FY 2019-20 was ₹79,071 crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Exports hit a record ₹23,622 crore in FY 2024-25 (up 12.04% from ₹21,083 crore), and production has risen 90% from ₹79,071 crore in FY 2019-20.
The Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025, which cleared Parliament on 7 August 2025, replaces which part of the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958?
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Correct answer: D — Part XIV
The Bill replaces Part XIV of the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958 with new legislation aligned with global cabotage norms.
What coastal cargo target by 2030 did the Shipping Minister link to the Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 230 million metric tonnes
Sarbananda Sonowal said the legislation is central to increasing India's coastal cargo share to 230 million metric tonnes by 2030.
Consider the following statements about the Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025: 1. It mandates the formulation of a National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan. 2. It provides for a National Database for Coastal Shipping. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Bill mandates a National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan and provides for a National Database for Coastal Shipping with real-time, regularly updated data.
Consider the following statements about the Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025: 1. It was passed by the Rajya Sabha before the Lok Sabha. 2. It comprises six chapters and 42 clauses. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill first, on 3 April 2025, and the Rajya Sabha passed it on 7 August 2025. Statement 2 is correct: the Bill has six chapters and 42 clauses.
On which date was the poll, if necessary, scheduled for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 9 September 2025
The ECI fixed 9 September 2025 as the date on which a poll shall, if necessary, be taken.
Who was appointed Returning Officer for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Secretary-General, Rajya Sabha
Shri P.C. Mody, Secretary-General, Rajya Sabha, was appointed the Returning Officer for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025.
What security deposit must each candidate make for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹15,000
Every candidate has to deposit a sum of ₹15,000 (Rupees Fifteen Thousand only).
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025 schedule: 1. The last date for withdrawal of candidatures was 25 August 2025. 2. Nomination papers had to be accompanied by a certified copy of the candidate's entry in the electoral roll of the Parliamentary constituency where the candidate is registered. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. 25 August 2025 was fixed as the last date for withdrawal, and each nomination paper had to be accompanied by a certified copy of the candidate's electoral roll entry for the Parliamentary constituency where the candidate is registered.
What additional tariff did the US impose on Indian goods through the executive order of 6 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 25%
The executive order imposed an additional 25% tariff on Indian goods over India's purchases of Russian oil, taking the combined rate to 50%.
How did India's Ministry of External Affairs describe the additional US tariffs in its statement of 6 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Unfair, unjustified and unreasonable
The MEA said: 'We reiterate that these actions are unfair, unjustified and unreasonable.'
Consider the following statements about India's response to the US tariff order of 6 August 2025: 1. India said its oil imports are based on market factors and aimed at the energy security of 1.4 billion people. 2. India said it would take all actions necessary to protect its national interests. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The MEA said India's imports are based on market factors to ensure the energy security of 1.4 billion people, and that India will take all actions necessary to protect its national interests.
What was the maximum depth reached by an Indian aquanaut during the Indo-French deep dives in the Atlantic in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5,002 m
Cdr (Retd) Jatinder Pal Singh reached 5,002 m, while Raju Ramesh reached 4,025 m, India's deepest-ever dives.
The Indian aquanauts' record dives of August 2025 were made aboard Nautile, a submersible belonging to which institution?
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Correct answer: D — IFREMER (France)
The dives were a collaborative activity with IFREMER (France), the French marine research institute, aboard its submersible Nautile.
Consider the following statements about India's Samudrayaan mission, as described in August 2025: 1. It aims to send three aquanauts to a depth of 6,000 m in the submersible MATSYA-6000 by 2027. 2. MATSYA-6000 is being developed by the National Institute of Oceanography, Goa. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Samudrayaan aims to send three aquanauts to 6,000 m in MATSYA-6000 by 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect: MATSYA-6000 is being developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Consider the following statements about MATSYA-6000: 1. It is designed for an operational endurance of 12 hours and an emergency endurance of up to 96 hours. 2. It completed wet trials at L&T Shipyard, Kattupalli, in early 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. MATSYA-6000 is designed for 12 hours of operational and up to 96 hours of emergency endurance, and completed wet trials at L&T Shipyard, Kattupalli, Tamil Nadu, in January–February 2025.
At what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee keep the policy repo rate in its August 2025 meeting?
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Correct answer: C — 5.50%
The MPC unanimously voted to keep the policy repo rate unchanged at 5.50%.
What CPI inflation did the RBI's MPC project for 2025-26 in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 3.1%
Considering all factors, CPI inflation for 2025-26 was projected at 3.1%.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's monetary policy decision of August 2025: 1. The standing deposit facility rate remained at 5.25% and the marginal standing facility rate at 5.75%. 2. The MPC changed its stance from neutral to accommodative. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the SDF rate stayed at 5.25% and the MSF rate and Bank Rate at 5.75%. Statement 2 is incorrect: all members decided to continue with the neutral stance.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's August 2025 policy: 1. The MPC projected real GDP growth for 2025-26 at 6.5%. 2. The decision to keep the repo rate unchanged was taken by a 4–2 majority. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: real GDP growth for 2025-26 was projected at 6.5%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the MPC voted unanimously to keep the repo rate unchanged.
What was the approximate total value of the proposals cleared by the Defence Acquisition Council on 5 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — About ₹67,000 crore
The DAC chaired by Rajnath Singh approved proposals amounting to a total cost of about ₹67,000 crore.
Which procurement cleared for the Indian Navy by the DAC in August 2025 is meant for detection, classification and neutralisation of threats in anti-submarine warfare missions?
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Correct answer: B — Compact Autonomous Surface Craft
The Compact Autonomous Surface Craft will give the Navy the capability to detect, classify and neutralise threats in anti-submarine warfare missions.
Consider the following statements about the DAC approvals of 5 August 2025: 1. The SAKSHAM/SPYDER Weapon System of the Air Force is to be upgraded for integration with the Integrated Air Command and Control System. 2. AoN for Medium Altitude Long Endurance (MALE) RPAs was accorded only for the Indian Air Force. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the SAKSHAM/SPYDER upgrade is for integration with the Integrated Air Command and Control System. Statement 2 is incorrect: AoN for MALE RPAs was accorded for all three Services.
Consider the following statements about the DAC approvals of 5 August 2025: 1. AoN was accorded for the procurement of additional S-400 squadrons. 2. AoN was accorded for the sustenance of the C-17 and C-130J fleets. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the S-400 approval was for a comprehensive annual maintenance contract, not new squadrons. Statement 2 is correct: AoN was accorded for sustenance of the C-17 and C-130J fleets.
During the State Visit of Philippine President Ferdinand R. Marcos Jr. in August 2025, India and the Philippines elevated their ties to which level?
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Correct answer: B — Strategic Partnership
On 5 August 2025, the two countries signed a Declaration establishing a Strategic Partnership between India and the Philippines.
The India–Philippines Strategic Partnership established in August 2025 is guided by a Plan of Action covering which period?
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Correct answer: D — 2025-2029
The declaration states that the Strategic Partnership is guided by the Plan of Action (2025-2029), adopted on 5 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about the India–Philippines Strategic Partnership declaration of August 2025: 1. It marks the 75th anniversary of diplomatic relations, established in 1949, and recalls the Treaty of Friendship signed on 11 July 1952. 2. It reiterates both countries' strong support for ASEAN Centrality. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The declaration celebrates 75 years of diplomatic relations established in 1949, emphasises the Treaty of Friendship of 11 July 1952, and reiterates strong support for ASEAN Centrality.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of the Philippine President's State Visit to India in August 2025: 1. India extended a gratis e-tourist visa facility to Filipino nationals for one year from August 2025. 2. India and the Philippines signed a Free Trade Agreement during the visit. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: a gratis e-tourist visa facility was extended to Filipino nationals for one year from August 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: the two sides only adopted Terms of Reference for negotiations on a Preferential Trade Agreement.
During the Philippine President's visit in August 2025, a Statement of Intent on cooperation in the peaceful uses of outer space was signed between the Philippine Space Agency and which Indian body?
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Correct answer: D — Indian Space Research Organisation
The list of outcomes includes a Statement of Intent between the Indian Space Research Organisation and the Philippine Space Agency on cooperation on the peaceful uses of outer space.